Practice Exam

E1F08

1. What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

• A. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
• B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
• C. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
• D. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope

E3A05

2. What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting an EME contact?

• A. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute
• B. Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes
• C. Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes
• D. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes

E7B17

3. Which of the following is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

• A. High filament voltage
• B. Low input impedance
• C. Low bandwidth
• D. High power gain

E1A01

4. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies will result in a normal USB emission being within the band?

• A. The exact upper band edge
• B. 3 kHz below the upper band edge
• C. 300 Hz below the upper band edge
• D. 1 kHz below the upper band edge

E1D11

5. Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

• A. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
• B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
• C. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
• D. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators

E4C08

6. How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance?

• A. It would increase signal to noise ratio
• B. It would reduce bandwidth
• C. It would increase bandwidth
• D. It would reduce the signal to noise ratio

E9H02

7. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

• A. 2000 watts
• B. 126 watts
• C. 300 watts
• D. 317 watts

E8C06

8. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

• A. Approximately 104 Hz
• B. Approximately 52 Hz
• C. Approximately 26 Hz
• D. Approximately 13 Hz

E4D08

9. What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

• A. Positive feedback
• B. Too little gain
• C. Nonlinear circuits or devices
• D. Lack of neutralization

E2A14

10. What happens to a satellite's transmitted signal due to the Doppler Effect?

• A. The signal frequency shifts lower as the satellite passes overhead
• B. The signal frequency shifts higher as the satellite passes overhead
• C. The signal strength is reduced as the satellite passes overhead
• D. The polarization of the signal continually rotates

E2E12

11. Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

• A. MFSK16
• B. 300-baud packet
• C. PSK31
• D. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

E9E09

12. Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed-line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

• A. All of these answers are correct
• B. Double-bazooka match
• C. Gamma match
• D. Hairpin match

E8B04

13. What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?

• A. 6000
• B. 2000
• C. 1/3
• D. 3

E7A10

14. What logical operation does a NOR gate perform?

• A. It produces a logic "1" at its output only when none of its inputs are logic "0"
• B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1"
• C. It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0"
• D. It produces a logic "0" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"

E2B17

15. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV (Frequency-Modulated Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial sideband AM television?

• A. Poor weak signal performance
• B. Immunity from fading due to limiting
• C. Greater signal bandwidth
• D. Greater complexity of receiving equipment

E9F15

16. What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

• A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• B. The same as the output impedance of the generator
• C. A very high impedance
• D. A very low impedance

E9G03

17. Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

• A. Trigonometric functions
• B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
• C. Beam headings and radiation patterns
• D. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines

E3C12

18. As the frequency of a signal is increased, how does its ground wave propagation change?

• A. Radio waves don't propagate along the Earth's surface
• B. It decreases
• C. It increases
• D. It stays the same

E7F11

19. What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

• A. To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
• B. To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal
• C. To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency
• D. To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals

E0A09

20. Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

• A. Zinc oxide
• B. Uranium Hexaflouride
• C. Mica
• D. Beryllium Oxide

E4E05

21. How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?

• A. By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor
• B. By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
• C. By installing a ferrite bead on the AC line used to power the motor
• D. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads

E3B02

22. What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

• A. 2500 miles
• B. 5000 miles
• C. 7500 miles
• D. 1000 miles

E7C02

23. A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel (shunt) inductor has which of the following properties?

• A. It transforms reactance and is a narrow bandwidth notch filter
• B. It transforms impedance and is a low-pass filter
• C. It transforms impedance and is a high-pass filter
• D. It transforms reactance and is a low-pass filter

E6B04

24. What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and oscillation?

• A. Point contact
• B. Zener
• C. Tunnel
• D. Junction

E1B10

25. Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES?

• A. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
• B. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
• C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)
• D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served

E1E20

26. What is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner?

• A. 16 years old
• B. 13 years old
• C. 21 years old
• D. 18 years old

E7G03

27. What are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?

• A. Op-amps are more rugged and can withstand more abuse than can LC elements
• B. Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
• C. Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
• D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss

E1C09

28. Which of these frequencies are available for automatically controlled ground-station repeater operation?

• A. 29.500 - 29.700 MHz
• B. 10.100 - 10.150 MHz
• C. 18.110 - 18.168 MHz
• D. 24.940 - 24.990 MHz

E7H07

29. What is a magnetron oscillator?

• A. A UHF or microwave oscillator consisting of a diode vacuum tube with a specially shaped anode, surrounded by an external magnet
• B. An oscillator in which the output is fed back to the input by the magnetic field of a transformer
• C. A reference standard oscillator in which the oscillations are synchronized by magnetic coupling to a rubidium gas tube
• D. An crystal oscillator in which variable frequency is obtained by placing the crystal in a strong magnetic field

E5A11

30. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

• A. 157.8 Hz
• B. 23.67 kHz
• C. 315.6 Hz
• D. 47.3 kHz

E5C05

31. In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm- reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?

• A. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
• B. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
• C. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
• D. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees

E2D04

32. What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur satellite?

• A. To upload operational software for the transponder
• B. To relay messages between satellites
• C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations
• D. To delay download of telemetry until the satellite is over the control station

E8A07

33. What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?

• A. The degree of carrier suppression
• B. The amplifier gain
• C. The characteristics of the modulating signal
• D. The frequency of the modulating signal

E5B12

34. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

• A. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• B. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• D. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E6F02

35. What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

• A. It decreases
• B. It increases
• C. It becomes unstable
• D. It stays the same

E6E11

36. How is the operating bias voltage normally supplied to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

• A. MMICs require no operating bias
• B. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
• C. Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead
• D. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead

E8D18

37. Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a common household electrical power outlet?

• A. 85-V AC
• B. 120-V AC
• C. 170-V AC
• D. 340-V AC

E6C09

38. In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an OR gate?

• A. 6
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

E7D13

39. What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

• A. Hum filtering
• B. Peak clipping
• C. To provide line voltage stabilization
• D. To provide a voltage reference

E5D17

40. What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

• A. 0.5
• B. 0.866
• C. 1.73
• D. 0.577

E4A12

41. Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output?

• A. All of these choices are correct
• B. Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
• C. Match the antenna to the load
• D. Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer

E2C05

42. Which of the following frequencies would generally be acceptable for U.S. stations to work other U.S. stations in a phone contest?

• A. 5405 kHz
• B. 14.310 MHz
• C. 50.050 MHz
• D. 146.52 MHz

E6D17

43. What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices over other types of display devices?

• A. They can be easily interchanged with other display devices
• B. They are visible in all light conditions
• C. They can display changes instantly
• D. They consume less power

E4B08

44. Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

• A. Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
• B. All of these choices are correct
• C. Keep the ground connection of the probe as short as possible
• D. Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit

E9C07

45. What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna?

• A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
• B. It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
• C. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
• D. It decreases the ground loss

E7E12

46. Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating SSB signals?

• A. Product detector
• B. Phase comparator
• C. Discriminator
• D. Phase detector

E6A17

47. What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?

• A. Holes
• B. Free protons
• C. Free neutrons
• D. Free electrons

E9D10

48. What is the approximate feed-point impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna?

• A. 72 ohms
• B. 300 ohms
• C. 450 ohms
• D. 50 ohms

E9B06

49. What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

• A. The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
• B. The SWR is reduced
• C. The front-to-back ratio decreases
• D. The front-to-back ratio increases

E9A13

50. Which is the most important factor that determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3-30 MHz range?

• A. Base current
• B. Soil conductivity
• C. The standing-wave ratio
• D. Base impedance