Practice Exam

G0A04

1. What does "time averaging" mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

• A. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
• B. The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
• C. The total time of the exposure
• D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

G7A11

2. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

• A. Symbol 7
• B. Symbol 1
• C. Symbol 11
• D. Symbol 2

G3C04

3. What does the term "critical angle" mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

• A. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
• B. The long path azimuth of a distant station
• C. The short path azimuth of a distant station
• D. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

G1E08

4. What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

• A. 100 milliwatts
• B. 100 watts
• C. 10 watts
• D. 1500 watts

G9A11

5. What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

• A. Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
• B. Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
• C. Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
• D. Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line

G8C09

6. Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

• A. If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
• B. Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
• C. Having more nodes increases signal strengths
• D. More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference

G5A09

7. What unit is used to measure reactance?

• A. Ohm
• B. Farad
• C. Siemens
• D. Ampere

G4B01

8. What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

• A. An oscilloscope
• B. An ammeter
• C. A signal generator
• D. An ohmmeter

G2B06

9. How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

• A. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say "test" several times and listen for a response
• B. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
• C. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
• D. Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use," then give your call sign and listen for a response

G3B02

10. What factors affect the MUF?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Path distance and location
• C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
• D. Time of day and season

G1D03

11. On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

• A. On any General or Technician class band segment
• B. On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
• C. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
• D. Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

G2E07

12. Which of the following is required when using FT8?

• A. Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
• B. A vertically polarized antenna
• C. A special hardware modem
• D. Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB

G0B07

13. Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Always hold on to the tower with one hand
• C. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
• D. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

G1A07

14. On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

• A. The entire band
• B. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
• C. 28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
• D. 28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

G2D10

15. What is QRP operation?

• A. Low-power transmit operation
• B. Traffic relay procedure net operation
• C. Remote piloted model control
• D. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

G7B02

16. Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

• A. Class AB
• B. Class B
• C. Class C
• D. Class A

G5B11

17. What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

• A. 1.00
• B. 1.414
• C. 2.00
• D. 0.707

G3A06

18. What is a geomagnetic storm?

• A. A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
• B. A sudden drop in the solar flux index
• C. Ripples in the geomagnetic force
• D. A temporary disturbance in Earth's geomagnetic field

G9D12

19. What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

• A. Lazy H
• B. Sloper
• C. Inverted L
• D. Inverted V

G6B02

20. What is meant by the term MMIC?

• A. Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
• B. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
• C. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
• D. Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit

G8A11

21. What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

• A. The carrier frequency that contains the signal
• B. The bandwidth of the modulated signal
• C. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
• D. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

G1B10

22. What is the power limit for beacon stations?

• A. 200 watts PEP output
• B. 100 watts PEP output
• C. 20 watts PEP output
• D. 10 watts PEP output

G2A12

23. What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

• A. Attenuator level
• B. Antenna inductance or capacitance
• C. RF clipping level
• D. Transmit audio or microphone gain

G7C10

24. What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

• A. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
• B. Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
• C. The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
• D. Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

G2C02

25. What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS?"

• A. Send slower
• B. Increase your power
• C. Repeat everything twice
• D. Change frequency

G9B08

26. How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

• A. It steadily decreases
• B. It steadily increases
• C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
• D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

G4D05

27. How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

• A. It is 20 times less powerful
• B. It is 100 times more powerful
• C. It is 20 times more powerful
• D. It is 10 times less powerful

G6A03

28. What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

• A. 0.7 volts
• B. 0.3 volts
• C. 1.0 volts
• D. 0.1 volt

G4C12

29. Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

• A. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
• B. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
• C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
• D. It prevents signal overload

G5C14

30. Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

• A. A capacitor in parallel
• B. A capacitor in series
• C. An inductor in parallel
• D. An inductor in series

G1C01

31. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 200 watts PEP output
• B. 1500 watts PEP output
• C. 2000 watts PEP output
• D. 1000 watts PEP output

G4E03

32. Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

• A. To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
• B. To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
• C. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
• D. To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

G8B02

33. What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

• A. Mixer interference
• B. Quadrature response
• C. Image response
• D. Intermediate interference

G4A11

34. Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

• A. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
• D. The ALC action distorts the signal

G9C11

35. What is a beta or hairpin match?

• A. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
• B. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
• C. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
• D. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching