Practice Exam

G4E05

1. Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

• A. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
• B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
• C. "Picket fencing"
• D. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

G5B05

2. How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

• A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
• B. Approximately 11 milliwatts
• C. Approximately 61 watts
• D. Approximately 11 watts

G4D06

3. How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

• A. 15 dB
• B. 6 dB
• C. 18 dB
• D. 12 dB

G2D05

4. Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

• A. Say "QTC" followed by "this is" and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
• B. Repeat "CQ" a few times, followed by "this is," then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
• C. Sign your call sign once, followed by the words "listening for a call" -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
• D. Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by "this is" and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary

G9B07

5. How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

• A. It steadily increases
• B. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
• C. It steadily decreases
• D. It is unaffected by the height above ground

G1E03

6. What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

• A. No third-party traffic may be transmitted
• B. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
• C. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
• D. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

G2A02

7. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

• A. Suppressed sideband
• B. Upper sideband
• C. Double sideband
• D. Lower sideband

G4A02

8. What is the benefit of using the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW?

• A. Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
• B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
• C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
• D. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

G9A04

9. What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

• A. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
• B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
• C. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
• D. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

G3A03

10. Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 8 minutes
• B. 28 days
• C. 20 to 40 hours
• D. 1 to 2 hours

G1B02

11. With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

• A. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
• B. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
• C. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
• D. All these choices are correct

G0A07

12. What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

• A. A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
• B. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
• C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
• D. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted

G9D03

13. In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF "halo" antenna?

• A. Broadside to the plane of the halo
• B. Opposite the feed point
• C. On the same side as the feed point
• D. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo

G4C12

14. Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

• A. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
• B. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
• C. It prevents signal overload
• D. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

G2E09

15. How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

• A. Send a NAK code
• B. Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
• C. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
• D. Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

G3C06

16. What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

• A. Phone signals have high intelligibility
• B. Signals have a fluttering sound
• C. There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
• D. Scatter propagation occurs only at night

G8C07

17. Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

• A. MFSK32
• B. AMTOR
• C. MSK144
• D. FT8

G1C02

18. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

• A. 50 watts PEP output
• B. An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
• C. 200 watts PEP output
• D. 1500 watts PEP output

G6A02

19. What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

• A. Rapid recharge
• B. High voltage
• C. High discharge current
• D. Long life

G0B07

20. Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
• C. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
• D. Always hold on to the tower with one hand

G7B11

21. For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. AM
• C. FM
• D. SSB

G2B01

22. Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

• A. Nets have priority
• B. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
• C. Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
• D. QSOs in progress have priority

G7A07

23. What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

• A. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
• B. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
• C. A steady DC voltage
• D. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input

G5C13

24. Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

• A. A capacitor in series
• B. An inductor in parallel
• C. An inductor in series
• D. A capacitor in parallel

G8B03

25. What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

• A. Synthesizing
• B. Phase inversion
• C. Heterodyning
• D. Frequency inversion

G5A02

26. What is reactance?

• A. Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
• B. Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
• C. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
• D. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

G2C06

27. What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

• A. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
• B. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
• C. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
• D. Sending without error

G4B11

28. Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

• A. Antenna and feed line
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Transmitter
• D. Receiver

G8A13

29. What is a link budget?

• A. The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
• B. The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
• C. The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
• D. The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver

G9C12

30. Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. It is useful for matching multiband antennas
• C. It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
• D. It does not require any inductors or capacitors

G7C01

31. What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

• A. IF amplifier
• B. RF amplifier
• C. Filter
• D. Carrier oscillator

G3B07

32. What does LUF stand for?

• A. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• B. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
• C. Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
• D. Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes

G6B06

33. What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

• A. Programmable Logic
• B. MMIC
• C. Analog
• D. Digital

G1A03

34. On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

• A. 160 meters
• B. 20 meters
• C. 30 meters
• D. 12 meters

G1D05

35. When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

• A. Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
• B. A US operator/primary station license
• C. Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
• D. A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC