Practice Exam

G8B09

1. Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

• A. It is required by FCC rules
• B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
• C. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
• D. It improves impedance matching of the antenna

G5C06

2. What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

• A. 40 volts
• B. 360 volts
• C. 25.5 volts
• D. 120 volts

G1D04

3. Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

• A. At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
• B. At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
• C. At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
• D. At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

G9A03

4. What is the nominal characteristic impedance of "window line" transmission line?

• A. 75 ohms
• B. 100 ohms
• C. 50 ohms
• D. 450 ohms

G4D02

5. How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

• A. It increases average power
• B. It reduces intermodulation distortion
• C. It increases peak power
• D. It reduces harmonic distortion

G7A02

6. Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

• A. Diodes
• B. Capacitors and inductors
• C. Transformers and transducers
• D. All these choices are correct

G6B03

7. Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

• A. Better suited for power supply regulation
• B. Better suited for RF amplification
• C. High power handling capability
• D. Low power consumption

G2A01

8. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

• A. Suppressed sideband
• B. Lower sideband
• C. Double sideband
• D. Upper sideband

G2D03

9. What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

• A. Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
• D. Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency

G1B11

10. Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice," as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

• A. The ITU
• B. The FCC
• C. The control operator
• D. The IEEE

G5B14

11. What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

• A. 5000 watts
• B. 2500 watts
• C. 8.75 watts
• D. 625 watts

G1E01

12. Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

• A. The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The third party is speaking in a language other than English
• D. The third party is not a US citizen

G4E03

13. Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

• A. To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
• B. To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
• C. To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
• D. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

G1A09

14. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

• A. 14250 kHz
• B. 21300 kHz
• C. 24900 kHz
• D. 18155 kHz

G1C05

15. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

• A. 2000 watts PEP output
• B. 100 watts PEP output
• C. 1000 watts PEP output
• D. 1500 watts PEP output

G2B05

16. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• B. 2 kHz to 3 kHz
• C. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• D. Approximately 6 kHz

G3C07

17. What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

• A. The E region is not present
• B. The ionospheric region involved is unstable
• C. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
• D. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

G3B09

18. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

• A. 180 miles
• B. 12,000 miles
• C. 1,200 miles
• D. 2,500 miles

G9D03

19. In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF "halo" antenna?

• A. Broadside to the plane of the halo
• B. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
• C. On the same side as the feed point
• D. Opposite the feed point

G0B09

20. Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

• A. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
• B. The generator must be insulated from ground
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area

G8C07

21. Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

• A. MSK144
• B. AMTOR
• C. MFSK32
• D. FT8

G4C05

22. What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

• A. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
• B. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
• C. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
• D. The ground rod is resonant

G2E09

23. How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

• A. Send a NAK code
• B. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
• C. Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
• D. Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects

G5A04

24. Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

• A. Conductance
• B. Admittance
• C. Reactance
• D. Reluctance

G0A06

25. What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

• A. Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
• B. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
• C. Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
• D. Contact the FCC for permission to transmit

G9C05

26. What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

• A. Resonant frequency is lower
• B. Front-to-back ratio decreases
• C. Gain increases
• D. Beamwidth increases

G4B12

27. What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

• A. Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
• B. Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Received power that interferes with SWR readings

G3A04

28. Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

• A. 60 meters and 40 meters
• B. 30 meters and 20 meters
• C. 80 meters and 160 meters
• D. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

G7B06

29. What is a shift register?

• A. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
• B. A digital mixer
• C. An analog mixer
• D. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

G8A13

30. What is a link budget?

• A. The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
• B. The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
• C. The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
• D. The financial costs associated with operating a radio link

G9B11

31. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

• A. 42 feet
• B. 132 feet
• C. 84 feet
• D. 263 feet

G6A01

32. What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

• A. 6 volts
• B. 12 volts
• C. 8.5 volts
• D. 10.5 volts

G2C06

33. What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

• A. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
• B. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
• C. Sending without error
• D. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

G7C10

34. What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

• A. Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
• B. Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
• C. The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
• D. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing

G4A07

35. What happens as a receiver's noise reduction control level is increased?

• A. Received frequency may become unstable
• B. Received signals may become distorted
• C. Received frequency may shift several kHz
• D. CW signals may become severely attenuated