Practice Exam

G3C09

1. What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?

• A. Scatter
• B. Short-path
• C. Faraday rotation
• D. Chordal hop

G4C11

2. What technique helps to minimize RF "hot spots" in an amateur station?

• A. Bonding all equipment enclosures together
• B. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
• C. Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
• D. Using surge suppressor power outlets

G5A04

3. Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

• A. Reluctance
• B. Reactance
• C. Admittance
• D. Conductance

G1E12

4. When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

• A. Under no circumstances except for emergencies
• B. Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
• C. Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
• D. Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules

G4B08

5. What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

• A. Percentage of frequency modulation
• B. Percentage of carrier phase shift
• C. Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
• D. Linearity

G0B01

6. Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

• A. Only the neutral wire
• B. All wires
• C. Only the hot wires
• D. Only the ground wire

G3B09

7. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

• A. 180 miles
• B. 2,500 miles
• C. 1,200 miles
• D. 12,000 miles

G1D07

8. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
• B. The Universal Licensing System
• C. The Federal Communications Commission
• D. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator

G2A05

9. Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

• A. Single sideband
• B. Double sideband
• C. Single phase modulation
• D. Frequency modulation

G7B02

10. Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

• A. Class C
• B. Class AB
• C. Class A
• D. Class B

G9A01

11. Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

• A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
• B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
• C. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
• D. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

G4D03

12. What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Excessive background noise
• C. Excess intermodulation products
• D. Distorted speech

G5C14

13. Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

• A. A capacitor in parallel
• B. A capacitor in series
• C. An inductor in series
• D. An inductor in parallel

G3A11

14. How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 28 days
• B. 15 hours to several days
• C. 4 to 8 minutes
• D. 14 days

G8B10

15. What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

• A. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• B. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
• C. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• D. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

G2D11

16. Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

• A. To be sure the contact will count for award programs
• B. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
• C. To allow each station to operate according to conditions
• D. To follow standard radiogram structure

G2C09

17. What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

• A. We have already confirmed the contact
• B. We have worked before
• C. Send slower
• D. I have received and understood

G1B10

18. What is the power limit for beacon stations?

• A. 200 watts PEP output
• B. 100 watts PEP output
• C. 10 watts PEP output
• D. 20 watts PEP output

G9D12

19. What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

• A. Inverted L
• B. Inverted V
• C. Sloper
• D. Lazy H

G1A01

20. On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

• A. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
• B. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
• C. 80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
• D. 160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters

G9C08

21. What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

• A. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
• B. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
• C. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
• D. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element

G0A03

22. How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

• A. By calculation based on computer modeling
• B. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

G2E13

23. What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

• A. Gateway
• B. Printer/Server
• C. Terminal Node Controller
• D. RJ-45

G4A06

24. What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

• A. Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
• D. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line

G6A05

25. What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

• A. 0.3 volts
• B. 0.7 volts
• C. 1.0 volts
• D. 0.1 volt

G6B06

26. What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

• A. Programmable Logic
• B. MMIC
• C. Analog
• D. Digital

G4E09

27. What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

• A. 1.38 VDC
• B. 0.2 VDC
• C. 0.5 VDC
• D. 0.02 VDC

G5B01

28. What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

• A. Approximately 2 dB
• B. Approximately 9 dB
• C. Approximately 6 dB
• D. Approximately 3 dB

G7C08

29. Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

• A. Input amplifier noise figure
• B. Demodulator stage bandwidth
• C. Input amplifier gain
• D. All these choices are correct

G8A07

30. Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

• A. Phase modulation
• B. Vestigial sideband
• C. Frequency modulation
• D. Single sideband

G2B05

31. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• B. 2 kHz to 3 kHz
• C. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• D. Approximately 6 kHz

G8C14

32. Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

• A. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
• B. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
• C. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
• D. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

G9B03

33. Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

• A. Isotropic
• B. Bi-directional in azimuth
• C. Omnidirectional in azimuth
• D. Hemispherical

G7A09

34. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

• A. Symbol 5
• B. Symbol 4
• C. Symbol 1
• D. Symbol 2

G1C03

35. What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

• A. 1.8 kHz
• B. 3 kHz
• C. 5.6 kHz
• D. 2.8 kHz