Practice Exam

G2C07

1. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

• A. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
• B. Key clicks
• C. 100 percent copy
• D. Chirpy or unstable signal

G2A10

2. Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

• A. It occupies less bandwidth
• B. It provides more power output
• C. The received signal is more natural sounding
• D. It allows "hands free" operation

G5B05

3. How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

• A. Approximately 61 watts
• B. Approximately 61 milliwatts
• C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
• D. Approximately 11 watts

G3C08

4. Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

• A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
• B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
• C. Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
• D. Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy

G4B08

5. What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

• A. Linearity
• B. Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
• C. Percentage of carrier phase shift
• D. Percentage of frequency modulation

G0B01

6. Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

• A. Only the ground wire
• B. Only the neutral wire
• C. All wires
• D. Only the hot wires

G9C07

7. What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

• A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
• B. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
• C. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
• D. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

G6A04

8. Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

• A. Inexpensive RF capacitor
• B. Tight tolerance
• C. High capacitance for a given volume
• D. Much less leakage than any other type

G1C02

9. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

• A. 200 watts PEP output
• B. 50 watts PEP output
• C. 1500 watts PEP output
• D. An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

G1E01

10. Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

• A. The third party is speaking in a language other than English
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The third party is not a US citizen
• D. The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

G2E06

11. What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

• A. 85 Hz
• B. 850 Hz
• C. 425 Hz
• D. 170 Hz

G7C10

12. What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

• A. The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
• B. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
• C. Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
• D. Minimum detectible signal level is reduced

G6B10

13. How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

• A. Ferrites expel magnetic fields
• B. By creating an impedance in the current's path
• C. It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
• D. By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

G8A05

14. What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

• A. Phase modulation
• B. Frequency modulation
• C. Amplitude modulation
• D. Power modulation

G5A11

15. What letter is used to represent reactance?

• A. Y
• B. B
• C. Z
• D. X

G9D10

16. In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

• A. Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
• B. Broadside and in the plane of the loop
• C. Broadside to the loop
• D. In the plane of the loop

G2B09

17. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

• A. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
• B. Only a RACES net control operator
• C. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
• D. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

G0A09

18. What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

• A. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
• B. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
• C. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
• D. A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction

G7A06

19. What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

• A. 270 degrees
• B. 90 degrees
• C. 360 degrees
• D. 180 degrees

G2D02

20. Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

• A. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
• B. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
• C. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
• D. To provide emergency and public safety communications

G4C06

21. What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

• A. Overheating of ground straps
• B. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
• C. A ground loop
• D. Corrosion of the ground rod

G7B01

22. What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

• A. To limit the modulation index
• B. To keep the carrier on frequency
• C. To eliminate self-oscillations
• D. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

G3A10

23. What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

• A. Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
• B. Cyclic variation in Earth's radiation belts
• C. Rotation of the Sun's surface layers around its axis
• D. The position of the Moon in its orbit

G9A04

24. What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

• A. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
• B. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
• C. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
• D. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

G5C09

25. What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

• A. 0.33 microfarads
• B. 300 microfarads
• C. 3.0 microfarads
• D. 33.3 microfarads

G8C08

26. Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

• A. Upper case letters are sent with more power
• B. Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
• C. Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
• D. Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

G1B07

27. What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

• A. They are not permitted
• B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
• C. Only "Q" signals are permitted
• D. They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules

G4E08

28. In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

• A. Series-parallel
• B. Bypass
• C. Shunt
• D. Full-wave bridge

G4D06

29. How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

• A. 15 dB
• B. 12 dB
• C. 6 dB
• D. 18 dB

G8B09

30. Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

• A. It is required by FCC rules
• B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
• C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna
• D. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

G3B10

31. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

• A. 2,500 miles
• B. 1,200 miles
• C. 180 miles
• D. 12,000 miles

G1D07

32. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
• B. The Universal Licensing System
• C. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
• D. The Federal Communications Commission

G9B12

33. What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

• A. 8 feet
• B. 21 feet
• C. 16 feet
• D. 11 feet

G4A09

34. What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter's keying line to an external amplifier?

• A. To prevent transient overmodulation
• B. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
• C. To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
• D. To prevent key clicks on CW

G1A05

35. On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

• A. All of the above
• B. 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
• C. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
• D. 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz