Practice Exam

E6F05

1. Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

• A. A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
• B. A device that detects rotation by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
• C. A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog-to-digital conversion
• D. An optical computing device in which light is coupled between devices by fiber optics

E8A01

2. What technique shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics?

• A. Fourier analysis
• B. Numerical analysis
• C. Differential analysis
• D. Vector analysis

E6B06

3. Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

• A. In power supplies as a constant voltage reference
• B. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
• C. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
• D. In oscillator circuits as the negative resistance element

E7D12

4. What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator?

• A. Maximum output voltage drop when the input voltage is varied over its specified range
• B. Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
• C. Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
• D. Maximum that the output voltage may decrease at rated load

E5B10

5. What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

• A. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
• B. Voltage and current are in phase
• C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
• D. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

E9G05

6. Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?

• A. Determine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials
• B. Determine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions
• C. Determine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters
• D. Determine the length and position of an impedance matching stub

E9E05

7. What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?

• A. Purely reactive
• B. Purely resistive
• C. Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)
• D. Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)

E8D06

8. What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

• A. A larger character set is available
• B. Some types of errors can be detected
• C. Signal-to-noise ratio is improved
• D. Faster transmission rate

E3B13

9. What type of polarization is supported by ground-wave propagation?

• A. Circular
• B. Vertical
• C. Elliptical
• D. Horizontal

E5C01

10. Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation?

• A. 100 + j0
• B. 100 - j0
• C. 0 - j100
• D. 0 + j100

E7E04

11. What is one way to produce a single-sideband phone signal?

• A. Use a loop modulator followed by a mixer
• B. Use a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
• C. Use a product detector with a DSB signal
• D. Use a balanced modulator followed by a filter

E7B06

12. What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

• A. High electrostatic damage protection
• B. Low input impedance
• C. High power gain
• D. Low bandwidth

E2B02

13. How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

• A. 525
• B. 1080
• C. 30
• D. 60

E9A05

14. What does the term "ground gain" mean?

• A. To force net gain to 0 dB by grounding part of the antenna
• B. An increase in signal strength from ground reflections in the environment of the antenna
• C. The gain of the antenna with respect to a dipole at ground level
• D. The change in signal strength caused by grounding the antenna

E9B04

15. What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 3 dB
• B. 28 dB
• C. 38 dB
• D. 15 dB

E5A02

16. What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 40 picofarads?

• A. 3.56 MHz
• B. 44.72 MHz
• C. 1.78 MHz
• D. 22.36 MHz

E4D01

17. What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

• A. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third-order intercept point
• B. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal that will cause 1 dB of gain compression
• C. The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals that will cause one signal to block the other
• D. The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third-order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor

E9C10

18. Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

• A. An end-fed half-wavelength dipole
• B. A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
• C. An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
• D. A horizontal array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines

E1A04

19. May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone?

• A. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 75-meter phone band segment
• B. No, the sideband components will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
• C. Yes, the entire signal will be inside the SSB allocation for Extra class operators
• D. No, US stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz

E4A10

20. Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply's output ripple?

• A. Edge
• B. Line
• C. Single-shot
• D. Level

E4C10

21. What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select?

• A. The noise figure of the RF amplifier can be adjusted to match the modulation type, thus increasing receiver sensitivity
• B. Receive bandwidth can be set to match the modulation bandwidth, maximizing signal-to-noise ratio and minimizing interference
• C. Receiver power consumption can be reduced when wider bandwidth is not required
• D. Multiple frequencies can be received simultaneously if desired

E8C02

22. What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?

• A. The number of characters carried per second by the station-to-station link
• B. The rate at which the waveform changes to convey information
• C. The number of control characters in a message packet
• D. The maximum rate at which the forward error correction code can make corrections

E9D03

23. What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip?

• A. At a voltage null
• B. At a voltage maximum
• C. As low as possible on the vertical radiator
• D. Near the center of the vertical radiator

E2E04

24. Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode?

• A. Four-tone Gaussian frequency shift keying
• B. Seven different tone spacings
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Variable transmit/receive periods

E5D12

25. What is reactive power?

• A. Wattless, nonproductive power
• B. Power consumed by an inductor's wire resistance
• C. Power consumed in circuit Q
• D. The power consumed in inductors and capacitors

E2D05

26. What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode?

• A. Decodes signals with a very low signal-to-noise ratio
• B. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
• C. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
• D. Symbol rate is 65 baud

E1B10

27. What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

• A. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
• B. Specific local government channels
• C. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF, and UHF bands
• D. All these choices are correct

E8B05

28. What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

• A. 6
• B. 1.67
• C. 0.6
• D. 0.167

E1C12

29. In what portion of the 630-meter band are phone emissions permitted?

• A. The entire band
• B. None
• C. Only the top 3 kHz
• D. Only the bottom 3 kHz

E4E12

30. What causes interference received as a series of carriers at regular intervals across a wide frequency range?

• A. Radar transmitters
• B. Wireless security camera transmitters
• C. Switch-mode power supplies
• D. Electric fences

E2A04

31. What is meant by the "mode" of an amateur radio satellite?

• A. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
• B. Whether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit
• C. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
• D. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands

E7A10

32. What is a truth table?

• A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp
• B. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
• C. A diagram showing logic states when the digital gate output is true
• D. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for an op-amp

E1D12

33. Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications?

• A. A local repeater or linked repeater station
• B. A space station, beacon station, or telecommand station
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. A message forwarding station or automatically controlled digital station

E9H11

34. What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction-finding antennas?

• A. Broadband response
• B. A single null
• C. A very sharp peak
• D. High radiation angle

E1F11

35. Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

• A. It must have received an Underwriters Laboratory certification for electrical safety as well as having met IEEE standard 14.101(B)
• B. It must exhibit a gain of less than 23 dB when driven by 10 watts or less
• C. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
• D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power

E0A09

36. Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations?

• A. Hand-held transceivers sold before May 3, 2021
• B. Antennas that radiate only in the near field
• C. Dish antennas less than one meter in diameter
• D. Transceivers with less than 7 watts of RF output

E6E09

37. Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range?

• A. Radial lead
• B. TO-220
• C. Axial lead
• D. Surface mount

E7H01

38. What are three common oscillator circuits?

• A. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce
• B. Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback
• C. Pierce, Fenner, and Beane
• D. Taft, Hartley, and Pierce

E6C04

39. Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
• C. It is immune to electrostatic damage
• D. It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors

E7F06

40. What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

• A. 10 bits
• B. 6 bits
• C. 8 bits
• D. 4 bits

E1E06

41. Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

• A. Each administering VE
• B. The VEC coordinating the session
• C. The designated monitoring VE
• D. Only the VE session manager

E9F04

42. What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. Very high impedance
• B. Very low impedance
• C. The same as the output impedance of the RF generator
• D. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

E7G08

43. How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

• A. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
• B. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
• C. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
• D. It does not vary with frequency

E7C11

44. Which of the following measures a filter's ability to reject signals in adjacent channels?

• A. Phase response
• B. Noise factor
• C. Passband ripple
• D. Shape factor

E2C01

45. What indicator is required to be used by US-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the US?

• A. / followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station
• B. /R# where # is the district of the remote station
• C. / followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
• D. No additional indicator is required

E6A08

46. What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

• A. Alpha cutoff frequency
• B. Alpha rejection frequency
• C. Corner frequency
• D. Beta cutoff frequency

E4B04

47. Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?

• A. S22
• B. S12
• C. S11
• D. S21

E6D06

48. What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

• A. Permittivity
• B. Reactivity
• C. Resistance
• D. Permeability

E3A08

49. When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what region of the ionosphere?

• A. The F2 region
• B. The F1 region
• C. The D region
• D. The E region

E3C06

50. How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon?

• A. It is approximately 20 percent nearer
• B. It is approximately 50 percent farther
• C. It is approximately 15 percent farther
• D. They are approximately the same