Practice Exam

E4E10

1. Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference?

• A. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
• D. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence

E7H08

2. Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

• A. Toroidal inductors
• B. Wirewound resistors
• C. Non-inductive resistors
• D. NP0 capacitors

E0A05

3. What hazard is created by operating at microwave frequencies?

• A. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
• B. Microwaves are ionizing radiation
• C. The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
• D. Microwaves are in the frequency range where wave velocity is higher

E6F01

4. What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

• A. Holes
• B. Protons
• C. Electrons
• D. Photons

E9D04

5. Why should antenna loading coils have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

• A. To lower the radiation angle
• B. To swamp out harmonics
• C. To maximize efficiency
• D. To minimize the Q

E9E11

6. What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines?

• A. To control the antenna's radiation pattern
• B. To allow single-band antennas to operate on other bands
• C. To prevent harmonic radiation from the transmitter
• D. To create a low-angle radiation pattern

E1B10

7. What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

• A. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF, and UHF bands
• B. Specific local government channels
• C. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
• D. All these choices are correct

E1E01

8. For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

• A. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
• B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
• C. Preparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license
• D. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials

E7D15

9. What is the purpose of a step-start circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

• A. To prevent arcing across the input power switch or relay contacts
• B. To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
• C. To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
• D. To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications

E8D05

10. What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

• A. Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
• B. Insert high-pass filters at the transmitter output
• C. Insert low-pass filters at the transmitter output
• D. Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times

E8A03

11. Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain?

• A. Frequency at different times
• B. Discrete impulses in time order
• C. Power at intervals of phase
• D. Amplitude at different times

E2E08

12. Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

• A. RTTY
• B. PACTOR
• C. PSK31
• D. AMTOR

E1A02

13. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

• A. 300 Hz above the lower band edge
• B. The exact lower band edge
• C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
• D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge

E7A11

14. What does "positive logic" mean in reference to logic devices?

• A. The logic devices have high noise immunity
• B. High voltage represents a 1, low voltage a 0
• C. The logic circuit is in the "true" condition
• D. 1s and 0s are defined as different positive voltage levels

E6E10

15. What advantage does surface-mount technology offer at RF compared to using through-hole components?

• A. Shorter circuit board traces
• B. Smaller circuit area
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Components have less parasitic inductance and capacitance

E5A09

16. How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

• A. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
• B. Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
• C. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
• D. Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance

E4C03

17. What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?

• A. Frequency discrimination
• B. Cross-modulation interference
• C. Desensitization
• D. Capture effect

E7F06

18. What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

• A. 4 bits
• B. 10 bits
• C. 8 bits
• D. 6 bits

E1C05

19. Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled?

• A. On any mode approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
• B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
• C. Never
• D. Only when transmitting SSB or CW

E4B11

20. Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?

• A. Input impedance
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Reflection coefficient
• D. Output impedance

E5D07

21. What combines to create the self-resonance of a component?

• A. The component's nominal and parasitic reactance
• B. The component's inductance and capacitance
• C. The component's resistance and reactance
• D. The component's electrical length and impedance

E8C09

22. Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

• A. Gray code
• B. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
• C. Extended ASCII
• D. Binary Coded Decimal Code

E7B08

23. Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

• A. Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
• B. The switching device is at saturation or cutoff most of the time
• C. Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits
• D. Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content

E5B12

24. What is admittance?

• A. The term for the on-impedance of a field effect transistor
• B. The inverse of reactance
• C. The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
• D. The inverse of impedance

E3B01

25. Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur?

• A. Between points located at each other's antipode
• B. Between points located 1,500 miles to 2,000 miles apart on the geomagnetic equator
• C. Through the region where the terminator crosses the geographic equator
• D. Between points separated by 2,000 miles to 3,000 miles over a path perpendicular to the geomagnetic equator

E9F11

26. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?

• A. A capacitive reactance
• B. An inductive reactance
• C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• D. Infinite

E9H05

27. What challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

• A. It has a bidirectional null pattern
• B. It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
• C. It does not have a clearly defined null
• D. All these choices are correct

E9B02

28. What is the front-to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

• A. 36 dB
• B. 14 dB
• C. 24 dB
• D. 18 dB

E6B07

29. What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current?

• A. Charge carrier depletion
• B. Excessive inverse voltage
• C. Insufficient forward voltage
• D. Excessive junction temperature

E3A08

30. When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what region of the ionosphere?

• A. The F2 region
• B. The D region
• C. The E region
• D. The F1 region

E2A04

31. What is meant by the "mode" of an amateur radio satellite?

• A. Whether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit
• B. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
• C. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
• D. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

E8B06

32. What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

• A. 2.14
• B. 0.214
• C. 47
• D. 0.47

E9C13

33. How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground?

• A. The horizontal beamwidth decreases
• B. The horizontal beamwidth increases
• C. The takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe increases
• D. The takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe decreases

E3C05

34. What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charged particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

• A. Eastward
• B. Westward
• C. Northward
• D. Southward

E7C07

35. Which describes a Pi-L network?

• A. A network with only three discrete parts
• B. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
• C. A Pi-network with an additional output series inductor
• D. A Phase Inverter Load network

E6A11

36. In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

• A. 3
• B. 2
• C. 1
• D. 6

E6C02

37. What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold voltage?

• A. The feedback loop becomes unstable
• B. The IC input can be damaged
• C. The comparator changes its output state
• D. The reference level appears at the output

E2D06

38. Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts?

• A. High-speed CW identification to avoid fading
• B. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
• C. Storing and forwarding digital messages
• D. Time-synchronous transmissions alternating between stations

E6D04

39. Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers?

• A. To simplify assembly during manufacturing
• B. To increase the cutoff frequency by reducing capacitance
• C. To reduce power loss from eddy currents in the core
• D. To save cost by reducing the amount of magnetic material

E7E06

40. Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers?

• A. For higher efficiency
• B. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
• C. To remove third-order distortion products
• D. To reduce impulse noise reception

E5C02

41. How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

• A. By real and imaginary parts
• B. By magnitude and phase angle
• C. By X and R values
• D. By Y and G values

E2B09

42. What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol?

• A. AM
• B. CDMA
• C. AREDN
• D. SSB

E7G09

43. What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

• A. -2.3 volts
• B. 2.3 volts
• C. -0.23 volts
• D. 0.23 volts

E9G05

44. Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?

• A. Determine the length and position of an impedance matching stub
• B. Determine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters
• C. Determine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials
• D. Determine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions

E1D01

45. What is the definition of telemetry?

• A. Two-way transmissions of data
• B. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
• C. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
• D. Two-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet

E1F11

46. Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

• A. It must exhibit a gain of less than 23 dB when driven by 10 watts or less
• B. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
• C. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
• D. It must have received an Underwriters Laboratory certification for electrical safety as well as having met IEEE standard 14.101(B)

E4D11

47. Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

• A. Odd-order products of two signals in the band being received are also likely to be within the band
• B. Odd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
• C. Odd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
• D. Odd-order products are more likely to overload the IF filters

E2C07

48. What is the Cabrillo format?

• A. A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
• B. A digital protocol specifically designed for rapid contest exchanges
• C. The most common set of contest rules
• D. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO

E4A10

49. Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply's output ripple?

• A. Single-shot
• B. Line
• C. Level
• D. Edge

E9A12

50. How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half-wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?

• A. 6.0 dB
• B. 8.15 dB
• C. 2.79 dB
• D. 3.85 dB