E4A01
1. Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?
E9H03
2. What is receiving directivity factor (RDF)?
E6E05
3. Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?
E6C08
4. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?
E9C05
5. What is the purpose of feeding an off-center-fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoint?
E7H04
6. How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?
E9G02
7. What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?
E2C08
8. Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (LoTW)?
E0A05
9. What hazard is created by operating at microwave frequencies?
E2E09
10. Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length character coding?
E4C11
11. Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?
E7E06
12. Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers?
E8A08
13. Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio?
E8D02
14. What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
E8B01
15. What is the modulation index of an FM signal?
E5C07
16. Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coordinates?
E3A08
17. When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what region of the ionosphere?
E7A06
18. What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?
E3C09
19. What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks?
E1F05
20. Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?
E7F10
21. What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct-sampling software defined radio (SDR)?
E8C02
22. What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?
E9D01
23. How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled?
E2B08
24. What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70- centimeter band?
E6A04
25. What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?
E7G03
26. What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?
E1E10
27. What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?
E1A09
28. Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630-meter band?
E4B07
29. What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?
E3B08
30. How does the maximum range of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
E6F08
31. Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits?
E5D07
32. What combines to create the self-resonance of a component?
E5B04
33. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?
E6B11
34. What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?
E5A13
35. What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?
E1B10
36. What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?
E9E09
37. Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base?
E7C07
38. Which describes a Pi-L network?
E4E05
39. What is used to suppress radio frequency interference from a line-driven AC motor?
E6D05
40. How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core?
E2D03
41. Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications?
E7B07
42. Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?
E1C07
43. What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630- or 2200-meter bands?
E7D09
44. How is battery operating time calculated?
E9B01
45. What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?
E9A06
46. What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?
E9F01
47. What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?
E4D04
48. Which of the following is used to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by a nearby transmitter?
E1D08
49. Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?
E2A08
50. Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder?
Warning! You skipped 0 question(s).