Practice Exam

E5B09

1. What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

• A. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
• B. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
• C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
• D. Voltage and current are in phase

E3A05

2. How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented?

• A. They are tangential
• B. They are parallel
• C. They are at right angles
• D. They are 90 degrees out of phase

E1E08

3. To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Employees of the VE
• C. Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
• D. Friends of the VE

E7A04

4. How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16?

• A. 16
• B. 8
• C. 6
• D. 4

E8D04

5. What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

• A. The generation of key clicks
• B. The generation of RF harmonics
• C. More difficult to tune
• D. More difficult to copy

E7C11

6. Which of the following measures a filter's ability to reject signals in adjacent channels?

• A. Phase response
• B. Shape factor
• C. Passband ripple
• D. Noise factor

E2E01

7. Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz?

• A. FSK
• B. Pulse modulation
• C. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
• D. Spread spectrum

E2A07

8. Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

• A. SSB and SSTV
• B. FM and CW
• C. PSK and packet
• D. All these choices are correct

E8B10

9. What is frequency division multiplexing (FDM)?

• A. Dividing the transmitted signal into separate frequency bands that each carry a different data stream
• B. Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
• C. The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
• D. The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate

E3C12

10. Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

• A. Transequatorial propagation on 6 meters is likely
• B. A temperature inversion has occurred
• C. Long-path propagation on the higher HF bands is likely
• D. A coronal mass ejection impact or a solar flare has occurred

E8C09

11. Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

• A. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
• B. Gray code
• C. Binary Coded Decimal Code
• D. Extended ASCII

E3B07

12. What effect does lowering a signal's transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propagation?

• A. Faraday rotation becomes stronger
• B. The distance covered by each hop increases
• C. The critical frequency increases
• D. The MUF decreases

E6C02

13. What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold voltage?

• A. The comparator changes its output state
• B. The reference level appears at the output
• C. The feedback loop becomes unstable
• D. The IC input can be damaged

E7H05

14. How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

• A. Through a tapped coil
• B. Through link coupling
• C. Through a neutralizing capacitor
• D. Through a quartz crystal

E1A08

15. If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

• A. The control operators of all the stations in the system
• B. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
• C. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
• D. The control operator of the originating station

E9E06

16. Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm transmission line?

• A. 90 ohms
• B. 62 ohms
• C. 50 ohms
• D. 75 ohms

E7F10

17. What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct-sampling software defined radio (SDR)?

• A. Sample rate
• B. Sample width in bits
• C. Differential non-linearity
• D. Integral non-linearity

E1C01

18. What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

• A. 2.8 kHz
• B. 1.5 kHz
• C. 60 Hz
• D. 170 Hz

E7E10

19. How does a diode envelope detector function?

• A. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
• B. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
• C. By breakdown of the Zener voltage
• D. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

E6D01

20. What is piezoelectricity?

• A. The ability of materials to generate electromagnetic waves of a certain frequency when voltage is applied
• B. A characteristic of materials that have an index of refraction which depends on the polarization of the electromagnetic wave passing through it
• C. A characteristic of materials that generate a voltage when stressed and that flex when a voltage is applied
• D. The ability of materials to generate voltage when an electromagnetic wave of a certain frequency is applied

E4D12

21. What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 10 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a cable loss of 3 dB, a path loss of 136 dB, a receiver minimum discernable signal of -103 dBm, and a required signal-to-noise ratio of 6 dB?

• A. +8dB
• B. -14dB
• C. -8dB
• D. +14dB

E2D08

22. What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

• A. Unnumbered Information
• B. Acknowledgement
• C. Burst
• D. Connect

E2C05

23. What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

• A. Handle the receiving and sending of confirmations for a DX station
• B. Communicate to a DXpedition about propagation, band openings, pileup conditions, etc.
• C. Run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
• D. Allocate frequencies for DXpeditions

E7B11

24. In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

• A. Self bias
• B. Emitter bypass
• C. Fixed bias
• D. Output load resistor

E9F09

25. What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. Very low impedance
• B. The same as the generator output impedance
• C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
• D. Very high impedance

E5A10

26. What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 10 picofarads?

• A. 7.12 kHz
• B. 7.12 MHz
• C. 23.5 MHz
• D. 23.5 kHz

E7D05

27. Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator operates by loading the unregulated voltage source?

• A. A shunt regulator
• B. A shunt current source
• C. A constant current source
• D. A series regulator

E4E10

28. Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference?

• A. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
• B. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
• C. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
• D. All these choices are correct

E6E05

29. Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

• A. -10 dB
• B. -20 dBm
• C. 0.5 dB
• D. 44 dBm

E1B10

30. What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
• C. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF, and UHF bands
• D. Specific local government channels

E9G04

31. What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

• A. Voltage and impedance
• B. Inductance and capacitance
• C. Resistance and reactance
• D. Reactance and voltage

E1D05

32. What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the Earth's surface?

• A. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
• D. A photocopy of the station license

E9C11

33. How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?

• A. Radiation at low angles decreases
• B. Radiation at low angles increases
• C. Additional lobes appear at higher elevation angles
• D. Separate elevation lobes will combine into a single lobe

E0A02

34. When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

• A. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
• B. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
• C. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
• D. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits

E6A11

35. In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

• A. 3
• B. 2
• C. 1
• D. 6

E5D12

36. What is reactive power?

• A. Wattless, nonproductive power
• B. The power consumed in inductors and capacitors
• C. Power consumed in circuit Q
• D. Power consumed by an inductor's wire resistance

E9B08

37. What is the far field of an antenna?

• A. The region where radiated field strengths are constant
• B. The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
• C. The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
• D. The region where the shape of the radiation pattern no longer varies with distance

E9H03

38. What is receiving directivity factor (RDF)?

• A. Relative directivity compared to a dipole
• B. Peak antenna gain compared to average gain over the hemisphere around and above the antenna
• C. Relative directivity compared to isotropic
• D. Forward gain compared to the gain in the reverse direction

E9D05

39. Approximately how long is a Yagi's driven element?

• A. 1/2 wavelength
• B. 1005 divided by frequency in MHz
• C. 234 divided by frequency in MHz
• D. 1/4 wavelength

E4B07

40. What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

• A. Frequency order of the measurements
• B. Relative quality of the data
• C. The relative time between measurements
• D. The port or ports at which measurements are made

E4A07

41. Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge?

• A. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
• B. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
• C. Antenna analyzers compute SWR and impedance automatically
• D. All these choices are correct

E6B09

42. What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

• A. As a constant voltage source
• B. As an RF detector
• C. As a high-voltage rectifier
• D. As a constant current source

E6F08

43. Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits?

• A. Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
• B. Optoisolators provide an electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
• C. Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
• D. Optoisolators provide a low-impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit

E8A07

44. What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

• A. Amplifier gain
• B. The frequency of the modulating signal
• C. The degree of carrier suppression
• D. Speech characteristics

E9A08

45. Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone?

• A. 3.4 GHz
• B. 900 MHz
• C. 2.4 GHz
• D. 5.8 GHz

E2B10

46. What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

• A. Tone amplitude
• B. Tone frequency
• C. Sync frequency
• D. Sync amplitude

E5C10

47. Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

• A. Point 2
• B. Point 6
• C. Point 4
• D. Point 5

E4C06

48. How much does increasing a receiver's bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1,000 Hz increase the receiver's noise floor?

• A. 3 dB
• B. 5 dB
• C. 10 dB
• D. 13 dB

E1F05

49. Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

• A. 53 MHz - 54 MHz
• B. 440 MHz - 450 MHz
• C. 222 MHz - 223 MHz
• D. 420 MHz - 430 MHz

E7G07

50. What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

• A. 0.21
• B. 47
• C. 24
• D. 4700