Practice Exam

E6E01

1. Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?

• A. Higher noise figures
• B. Higher electron mobility
• C. Lower junction voltage drop
• D. Lower transconductance

E1A02

2. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

• A. 300 Hz above the lower band edge
• B. The exact lower band edge
• C. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
• D. 1 kHz above the lower band edge

E6C07

3. What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

• A. A resistor that ensures that an oscillator frequency does not drift
• B. A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
• C. A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
• D. A resistor connected to an op-amp output that prevents signals from exceeding the power supply voltage

E4D09

4. What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

• A. To increase the rejection of signals outside the band being received
• B. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
• C. To store frequencies that are often used
• D. To provide broadband attenuation before the first RF stage to prevent intermodulation

E7F07

5. What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform?

• A. Converting signals from the frequency domain to the time domain
• B. Converting analog signals to digital form
• C. Converting digital signals to analog form
• D. Converting signals from the time domain to the frequency domain

E1B08

6. What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

• A. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
• B. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
• C. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
• D. The amateur station must cease operation

E2D07

7. What digital protocol is used by APRS?

• A. AMTOR
• B. AX.25
• C. PACTOR
• D. QAM

E5B05

8. What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance?

• A. It is unchanged
• B. The sign is reversed
• C. It is shifted by 90 degrees
• D. It is replaced by its reciprocal

E2A01

9. What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

• A. From south to north
• B. From east to west
• C. From west to east
• D. From north to south

E7B11

10. In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

• A. Output load resistor
• B. Fixed bias
• C. Self bias
• D. Emitter bypass

E3C12

11. Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

• A. Transequatorial propagation on 6 meters is likely
• B. A temperature inversion has occurred
• C. A coronal mass ejection impact or a solar flare has occurred
• D. Long-path propagation on the higher HF bands is likely

E7A08

12. What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

• A. It produces a 0 at its output if some but not all inputs are 1
• B. It produces a 1 at its output if any input is 1
• C. It produces a 0 at its output if all inputs are 1
• D. It produces a 1 at its output if all inputs are 0

E9A09

13. What is antenna efficiency?

• A. Total resistance divided by radiation resistance
• B. Radiation resistance divided by total resistance
• C. Radiation resistance divided by transmission resistance
• D. Effective radiated power divided by transmitter output

E7G08

14. How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

• A. It does not vary with frequency
• B. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
• C. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
• D. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency

E6D03

15. Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

• A. Mechanical deformation of material due to the application of a magnetic field
• B. Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light
• C. Mechanical deformation of material due to the application of a voltage
• D. Increased conductivity in the presence of light

E6B09

16. What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

• A. As an RF detector
• B. As a high-voltage rectifier
• C. As a constant voltage source
• D. As a constant current source

E6F03

17. What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

• A. A frequency-modulated helium-neon laser
• B. An LED and a phototransistor
• C. A lens and a photomultiplier
• D. An amplitude-modulated helium-neon laser

E5C12

18. Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

• A. Point 8
• B. Point 1
• C. Point 7
• D. Point 3

E4E02

19. Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced by a digital noise reduction?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Ignition noise
• C. Power line noise
• D. Broadband white noise

E9D11

20. Why do most two-element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director?

• A. Higher receiving directivity factor
• B. Lower SWR
• C. Higher gain
• D. Greater front-to-side

E8C09

21. Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

• A. Binary Coded Decimal Code
• B. Gray code
• C. Extended ASCII
• D. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code

E1C03

22. How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200-meter or 630-meter band?

• A. Operations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC
• B. Operators must not operate until approval is received
• C. Operators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 kilometer of PLC systems using those frequencies
• D. Operators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company

E4A10

23. Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply's output ripple?

• A. Edge
• B. Line
• C. Single-shot
• D. Level

E3B07

24. What effect does lowering a signal's transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propagation?

• A. The MUF decreases
• B. The critical frequency increases
• C. Faraday rotation becomes stronger
• D. The distance covered by each hop increases

E3A07

25. Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

• A. Nimbus clouds
• B. Stratocumulus clouds
• C. Large bodies of water
• D. Mountain ranges

E9F04

26. What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. Very low impedance
• B. Very high impedance
• C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• D. The same as the output impedance of the RF generator

E9B07

27. What is the difference in radiated power between a lossless antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the same power?

• A. The power radiated from the isotropic radiator is 2.15 dB greater than that from the directional antenna
• B. The power radiated from the directional antenna is stronger by its front-to-back ratio
• C. They are the same
• D. The power radiated from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

E6A06

28. What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

• A. The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 0.707
• B. The change in collector current with respect to the change in base current
• C. The breakdown voltage of the base-to-collector junction
• D. The switching speed

E4B04

29. Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?

• A. S21
• B. S22
• C. S11
• D. S12

E9G10

30. What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

• A. Points with constant resistance
• B. SWR
• C. Frequency
• D. Points with constant reactance

E2C08

31. Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (LoTW)?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Special event contacts between stations in the US
• C. Contacts for Worked All States credit
• D. Contacts between a US station and a non-US station

E7C06

32. What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter?

• A. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
• B. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop-band ripple
• C. Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop-band corners
• D. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop-band ripple

E0A06

33. Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz?

• A. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
• B. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Ground reflections and scattering cause the field strength to vary with location

E1F10

34. Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

• A. Only General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators
• B. Only Amateur Extra class operators
• C. Any licensed amateur operator
• D. Only Technician, General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators

E9H09

35. What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?

• A. Omnidirectional
• B. Hyperbolic
• C. Bidirectional
• D. Cardioid

E2E01

36. Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz?

• A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
• B. FSK
• C. Spread spectrum
• D. Pulse modulation

E9E07

37. What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line?

• A. Characteristic impedance
• B. Velocity factor
• C. Dielectric constant
• D. Reflection coefficient

E5A11

38. What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

• A. 23.67 kHz
• B. 47.3 kHz
• C. 315.6 Hz
• D. 157.8 Hz

E7D15

39. What is the purpose of a step-start circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

• A. To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
• B. To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
• C. To prevent arcing across the input power switch or relay contacts
• D. To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually

E9C07

40. What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire half-wave folded dipole antenna?

• A. 300 ohms
• B. 450 ohms
• C. 50 ohms
• D. 72 ohms

E1E02

41. Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of questions for all US amateur license examinations?

• A. The VECs
• B. The FCC
• C. The VEs
• D. The ARRL

E2B12

42. What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?

• A. Specific tone frequencies
• B. A two-tone signal
• C. Specific tone amplitudes
• D. Elapsed time

E8B06

43. What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

• A. 0.214
• B. 47
• C. 0.47
• D. 2.14

E7E10

44. How does a diode envelope detector function?

• A. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
• B. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
• C. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
• D. By breakdown of the Zener voltage

E7H12

45. Which of the following ensures that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

• A. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
• B. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
• C. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
• D. Bias the crystal at a specified current

E1D07

46. Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations?

• A. 40 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
• B. Only 10 meters
• C. 30 meters, 17 meters, and 10 meters
• D. Satellite operation is permitted on all HF bands

E4C02

47. Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals?

• A. A front-end filter or preselector
• B. A narrow IF filter
• C. A properly adjusted product detector
• D. A notch filter

E8D02

48. What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

• A. Phase compandored spread spectrum
• B. Direct sequence
• C. Frequency hopping
• D. Binary phase-shift keying

E5D12

49. What is reactive power?

• A. Power consumed by an inductor's wire resistance
• B. Power consumed in circuit Q
• C. Wattless, nonproductive power
• D. The power consumed in inductors and capacitors

E8A03

50. Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain?

• A. Amplitude at different times
• B. Discrete impulses in time order
• C. Frequency at different times
• D. Power at intervals of phase