Practice Exam

E7E10

1. How does a diode envelope detector function?

• A. By breakdown of the Zener voltage
• B. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
• C. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
• D. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

E1F10

2. Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

• A. Any licensed amateur operator
• B. Only General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators
• C. Only Technician, General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators
• D. Only Amateur Extra class operators

E2E06

3. What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle?

• A. 30 seconds
• B. It varies with the amount of data
• C. 15 seconds
• D. 8 seconds

E4E07

4. Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

• A. Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
• B. Common-mode currents on the shield and conductors
• C. Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield
• D. Use of braided shielding material

E1A10

5. If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

• A. The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
• B. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
• C. The amateur station must operate only in specific segments of the amateur service HF and VHF bands
• D. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply

E7B03

6. What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier?

• A. A filter to remove harmonic content
• B. A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity
• C. A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
• D. A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients

E7H01

7. What are three common oscillator circuits?

• A. Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback
• B. Taft, Hartley, and Pierce
• C. Pierce, Fenner, and Beane
• D. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce

E8B10

8. What is frequency division multiplexing (FDM)?

• A. Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
• B. The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
• C. The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
• D. Dividing the transmitted signal into separate frequency bands that each carry a different data stream

E6C09

9. What is used to design the configuration of a field-programmable gate array (FPGA)?

• A. Hardware description language (HDL)
• B. An auto-router
• C. Karnaugh maps
• D. Machine and assembly language

E6A02

10. Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

• A. Insulated gate
• B. N-type
• C. Bipolar
• D. P-type

E7D03

11. What device is used as a stable voltage reference?

• A. A digital-to-analog converter
• B. An analog-to-digital converter
• C. An SCR
• D. A Zener diode

E7C01

12. How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

• A. A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between the input and output
• B. Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
• C. Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
• D. An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output

E3C07

13. Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

• A. Class X
• B. Class Z
• C. Class M
• D. Class A

E9G11

14. In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

• A. In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
• B. In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
• C. In fractions of antenna electrical frequency
• D. In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency

E1C04

15. What is an IARP?

• A. The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
• B. A permit that allows US amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
• C. A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
• D. An indication of increased antenna reflected power

E4B08

16. Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series-tuned circuit?

• A. The resonant frequency of the circuit
• B. The frequency shift
• C. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
• D. The ratio of inductive reactance to capacitive reactance

E7A11

17. What does "positive logic" mean in reference to logic devices?

• A. The logic devices have high noise immunity
• B. 1s and 0s are defined as different positive voltage levels
• C. High voltage represents a 1, low voltage a 0
• D. The logic circuit is in the "true" condition

E9D06

18. What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?

• A. It is increased
• B. It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at a voltage maximum point
• C. It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at the feed point
• D. It is decreased

E8A05

19. What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true-RMS calculating meter?

• A. The signal's RMS noise factor is also calculated
• B. An inverse Fourier transform can be used
• C. The calculated RMS value can be converted directly into phasor form
• D. RMS is measured for both sinusoidal and non-sinusoidal signals

E5B05

20. What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance?

• A. It is unchanged
• B. It is replaced by its reciprocal
• C. It is shifted by 90 degrees
• D. The sign is reversed

E5A02

21. What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 40 picofarads?

• A. 1.78 MHz
• B. 3.56 MHz
• C. 22.36 MHz
• D. 44.72 MHz

E2A07

22. Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

• A. SSB and SSTV
• B. PSK and packet
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. FM and CW

E9C02

23. What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4- wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

• A. A figure-eight end-fire along the axis of the array
• B. A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array
• C. Omni-directional
• D. Cardioid

E1B04

24. What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70-centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?

• A. Cease operation or make changes to the repeater that mitigate the interference
• B. File an FAA NOTAM (Notice to Air Missions) with the repeater system's ERP, call sign, and six-character grid locator
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Reduce the repeater antenna HAAT (Height Above Average Terrain)

E7G03

25. What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?

• A. Very high
• B. 10,000 ohms
• C. 100 ohms
• D. Very low

E9B11

26. What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?

• A. The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
• B. Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
• C. The antenna will become mechanically unstable
• D. The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect

E9A06

27. What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

• A. 317 watts
• B. 2,000 watts
• C. 126 watts
• D. 300 watts

E3B13

28. What type of polarization is supported by ground-wave propagation?

• A. Circular
• B. Horizontal
• C. Vertical
• D. Elliptical

E8C04

29. What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal?

• A. Use of sinusoidal data pulses
• B. Zero-sum character encoding
• C. Use of linear data pulses
• D. Reed-Solomon character encoding

E4C10

30. What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select?

• A. Receive bandwidth can be set to match the modulation bandwidth, maximizing signal-to-noise ratio and minimizing interference
• B. Multiple frequencies can be received simultaneously if desired
• C. Receiver power consumption can be reduced when wider bandwidth is not required
• D. The noise figure of the RF amplifier can be adjusted to match the modulation type, thus increasing receiver sensitivity

E2B10

31. What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

• A. Tone frequency
• B. Sync amplitude
• C. Sync frequency
• D. Tone amplitude

E6D11

32. Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

• A. Aluminum
• B. Ferrite
• C. Ceramic
• D. Brass

E3A03

33. When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

• A. When the Moon is at apogee
• B. When the Moon is at perigee
• C. When the MUF is above 30 MHz
• D. When the Moon is full

E5C01

34. Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation?

• A. 0 - j100
• B. 100 + j0
• C. 0 + j100
• D. 100 - j0

E1E09

35. What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. A sentence of up to one year in prison
• C. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
• D. A fine of up to $1,000 per occurrence

E8D09

36. What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

• A. +5 dB
• B. +10 dB
• C. +15 dB
• D. -30 dB

E5D06

37. What parasitic characteristic creates an inductor's self-resonance?

• A. Coupling
• B. Inter-turn capacitance
• C. Skin effect
• D. Dielectric loss

E1D12

38. Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications?

• A. A local repeater or linked repeater station
• B. A space station, beacon station, or telecommand station
• C. A message forwarding station or automatically controlled digital station
• D. All these choices are correct

E7F09

39. Why is an anti-aliasing filter required in a decimator?

• A. It removes high-frequency signal components that would otherwise be reproduced as lower frequency components
• B. It peaks the response of the decimator, improving bandwidth
• C. It notches out the sampling frequency to avoid sampling errors
• D. It removes low-frequency signal components to eliminate the need for DC restoration

E9H10

40. How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. By increasing the number of turns and/or the area enclosed by the loop
• C. By utilizing high impedance wire for the coupling loop
• D. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield

E9F02

41. Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a transmission line?

• A. The transmission line length
• B. The insulating dielectric material
• C. The characteristic impedance
• D. The center conductor resistivity

E6B08

42. Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?

• A. Thermionic emission diode
• B. Electrolytic rectifier
• C. Metal-semiconductor junction
• D. PIN junction

E2C08

43. Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (LoTW)?

• A. Special event contacts between stations in the US
• B. Contacts between a US station and a non-US station
• C. Contacts for Worked All States credit
• D. All these choices are correct

E6F03

44. What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

• A. An LED and a phototransistor
• B. A frequency-modulated helium-neon laser
• C. An amplitude-modulated helium-neon laser
• D. A lens and a photomultiplier

E0A08

45. What does SAR measure?

• A. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
• B. The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
• C. Signal amplification rating
• D. Signal attenuation ratio

E4A06

46. What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform?

• A. Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
• B. A false, jittery low-frequency version of the waveform is displayed
• C. Excessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the waveform
• D. The waveform DC offset will be inaccurate

E4D06

47. What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

• A. Quieting
• B. Cross modulation interference
• C. Desensitization
• D. Reciprocal mixing

E6E08

48. How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

• A. Directly to the bias voltage (Vcc) lead
• B. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
• C. MMICs require no operating bias
• D. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead

E9E05

49. What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?

• A. Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)
• B. Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)
• C. Purely resistive
• D. Purely reactive

E2D02

50. What information replaces signal-to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest?

• A. State abbreviation
• B. Grid square
• C. RST report
• D. Serial number