Practice Exam

E6C07

1. What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

• A. A resistor connected to an op-amp output that prevents signals from exceeding the power supply voltage
• B. A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
• C. A resistor that ensures that an oscillator frequency does not drift
• D. A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit

E6A04

2. What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

• A. N-type impurity
• B. Donor impurity
• C. Insulator impurity
• D. Acceptor impurity

E9E05

3. What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?

• A. Purely resistive
• B. Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)
• C. Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)
• D. Purely reactive

E9A05

4. What does the term "ground gain" mean?

• A. The gain of the antenna with respect to a dipole at ground level
• B. To force net gain to 0 dB by grounding part of the antenna
• C. An increase in signal strength from ground reflections in the environment of the antenna
• D. The change in signal strength caused by grounding the antenna

E7D03

5. What device is used as a stable voltage reference?

• A. An analog-to-digital converter
• B. A digital-to-analog converter
• C. A Zener diode
• D. An SCR

E5C01

6. Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation?

• A. 0 - j100
• B. 0 + j100
• C. 100 + j0
• D. 100 - j0

E3B05

7. Which of the following paths is most likely to support long-distance propagation on 160 meters?

• A. A path entirely in sunlight
• B. Paths at high latitudes
• C. A path entirely in darkness
• D. A direct north-south path

E8C01

8. What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM?

• A. A method of performing single sideband modulation by shifting the phase of the carrier and modulation components of the signal
• B. A technique for digital data compression used in digital television which removes redundancy in the data by comparing bit amplitudes
• C. A technique for analog modulation of television video signals using phase modulation and compression
• D. Transmission of data by modulating the amplitude of two carriers of the same frequency but 90 degrees out of phase

E2A11

9. What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

• A. An isotropic antenna
• B. A log-periodic dipole array
• C. A linearly polarized antenna
• D. A circularly polarized antenna

E4E09

10. What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker?

• A. FM signals can no longer be demodulated
• B. Strong signals may be distorted and appear to cause spurious emissions
• C. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
• D. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed

E7F04

11. Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing?

• A. Signals are combined in quadrature phase relationship
• B. A frequency synthesizer removes unwanted sidebands
• C. Varying quartz crystal characteristics are emulated in digital form
• D. Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits

E9C08

12. What is a folded dipole antenna?

• A. A center-fed dipole with the ends folded down 90 degrees at the midpoint of each side
• B. A dipole configured to provide forward gain
• C. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
• D. A half-wave dipole with an additional parallel wire connecting its two ends

E1E09

13. What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. A sentence of up to one year in prison
• C. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
• D. A fine of up to $1,000 per occurrence

E7E07

14. What is meant by the term "baseband" in radio communications?

• A. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
• B. The frequency range occupied by a message signal prior to modulation
• C. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
• D. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal

E1B06

15. Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or near a public use airport?

• A. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
• B. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of the FCC rules
• C. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority per Part 119 of the FAA regulations
• D. You may have to enter the height above ground in meters, and the latitude and longitude in degrees, minutes, and seconds on the FAA website

E2D05

16. What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode?

• A. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
• B. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
• C. Symbol rate is 65 baud
• D. Decodes signals with a very low signal-to-noise ratio

E0A10

17. When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters?

• A. When the output power from the transmitter is less than 100 watts
• B. An evaluation must always be performed
• C. When the station's operating mode is CW
• D. When the ERP of the station is less than 10 watts

E7B08

18. Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

• A. Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
• B. The switching device is at saturation or cutoff most of the time
• C. Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits
• D. Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages

E3C03

19. Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A-index or K-index is elevated?

• A. Through the auroral oval
• B. Sporadic-E
• C. Transequatorial
• D. NVIS

E9D10

20. How does radiation resistance of a base-fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency?

• A. Radiation resistance increases
• B. Radiation resistance decreases
• C. Radiation resistance does not depend on frequency
• D. Radiation resistance becomes imaginary

E4B03

21. Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

• A. S11
• B. S12
• C. S21
• D. S22

E9F11

22. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?

• A. Infinite
• B. A capacitive reactance
• C. An inductive reactance
• D. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

E2E07

23. How does Q65 differ from JT65?

• A. Multiple receive cycles are averaged
• B. Quadrature modulation is used
• C. Keyboard-to keyboard operation is supported
• D. All these choices are correct

E1C09

24. What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

• A. 0.5
• B. 2.0
• C. 1.0
• D. 3.0

E7C04

25. How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

• A. It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to the desired value
• B. Reactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances
• C. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
• D. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

E8D08

26. What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?

• A. Signal-to-noise ratio
• B. Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
• C. Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
• D. Baud error rate

E7H11

27. What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

• A. Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
• B. Broadband noise
• C. Harmonics of the local oscillator
• D. Digital conversion noise

E4C01

28. What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver's master clock oscillator?

• A. It decreases the receiver's third-order intercept point
• B. It can affect the receiver's frequency calibration
• C. It can combine with strong signals on nearby frequencies to generate interference
• D. It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals

E1A06

29. What is the required transmit frequency of a CW signal for channelized 60 meter operation?

• A. At the center frequency of the channel
• B. On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
• C. At the highest frequency of the channel
• D. At the lowest frequency of the channel

E8A08

30. Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio?

• A. Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
• D. Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses

E2B11

31. What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

• A. To identify the SSTV mode being used
• B. To provide vertical synchronization
• C. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
• D. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting

E9B01

32. What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

• A. 50 degrees
• B. 30 degrees
• C. 25 degrees
• D. 75 degrees

E2C06

33. During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity?

• A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
• B. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
• C. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
• D. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency

E7A09

34. What logical operation is performed by a two-input exclusive NOR gate?

• A. It produces a 0 at its output if one and only one of its inputs is 1
• B. It produces a 1 at its output only if all inputs are 1
• C. It produces a 0 at its output only if all inputs are 0
• D. It produces a 1 at its output if one and only one input is 1

E9H10

35. How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

• A. By utilizing high impedance wire for the coupling loop
• B. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
• C. By increasing the number of turns and/or the area enclosed by the loop
• D. All these choices are correct

E4A04

36. How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed?

• A. A frequency standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
• B. A high frequency sine wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
• C. A square wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
• D. A DC voltage standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate

E1D01

37. What is the definition of telemetry?

• A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
• B. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
• C. Two-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
• D. Two-way transmissions of data

E6D12

38. What causes inductor saturation?

• A. Operation at too high a frequency
• B. Selecting a core with low permeability
• C. Operation at excessive magnetic flux
• D. Selecting a core with excessive permittivity

E5D01

39. What is the result of conductor skin effect?

• A. Resistance increases as frequency increases because RF current flows closer to the surface
• B. Resistance decreases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient
• C. Resistance decreases as frequency increases because electron mobility increases
• D. Resistance increases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient

E8B01

40. What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

• A. The ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency
• B. The bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency
• C. The ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
• D. The modulating signal frequency divided by the bandwidth of the transmitted signal

E1F09

41. Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network?

• A. Email
• B. Messages encoded to obscure their meaning
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Third party traffic

E4D09

42. What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

• A. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
• B. To increase the rejection of signals outside the band being received
• C. To store frequencies that are often used
• D. To provide broadband attenuation before the first RF stage to prevent intermodulation

E7G11

43. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

• A. 14
• B. 7
• C. 0.07
• D. 28

E6E07

44. What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMICs?

• A. Parallel wire
• B. Microstrip
• C. Circular waveguide
• D. Miniature coax

E9G01

45. Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

• A. Radio propagation
• B. Impedance along transmission lines
• C. Antenna radiation pattern
• D. Radiation resistance

E6B09

46. What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

• A. As a constant voltage source
• B. As an RF detector
• C. As a high-voltage rectifier
• D. As a constant current source

E6F10

47. What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells?

• A. Cadmium sulfide
• B. Silicon
• C. Indium arsenide
• D. Selenium

E3A05

48. How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented?

• A. They are 90 degrees out of phase
• B. They are parallel
• C. They are at right angles
• D. They are tangential

E5B08

49. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms?

• A. 63 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• B. 63 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• C. 27 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• D. 27 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E5A11

50. What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

• A. 315.6 Hz
• B. 157.8 Hz
• C. 23.67 kHz
• D. 47.3 kHz