Practice Exam

E9C13

1. How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground?

• A. The horizontal beamwidth increases
• B. The takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe increases
• C. The takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe decreases
• D. The horizontal beamwidth decreases

E6B06

2. Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

• A. In power supplies as a constant voltage reference
• B. In oscillator circuits as the negative resistance element
• C. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
• D. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit

E5D01

3. What is the result of conductor skin effect?

• A. Resistance decreases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient
• B. Resistance increases as frequency increases because RF current flows closer to the surface
• C. Resistance decreases as frequency increases because electron mobility increases
• D. Resistance increases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient

E6A06

4. What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

• A. The switching speed
• B. The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 0.707
• C. The breakdown voltage of the base-to-collector junction
• D. The change in collector current with respect to the change in base current

E4E06

5. What type of electrical interference can be caused by computer network equipment?

• A. A whining-type noise that continually pulses off and on
• B. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
• C. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station's receiver
• D. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies

E3C05

6. What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charged particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

• A. Southward
• B. Westward
• C. Eastward
• D. Northward

E4C03

7. What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?

• A. Capture effect
• B. Cross-modulation interference
• C. Frequency discrimination
• D. Desensitization

E9H09

8. What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?

• A. Bidirectional
• B. Hyperbolic
• C. Omnidirectional
• D. Cardioid

E7C03

9. What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi-network to create a Pi-L-network?

• A. To eliminate one capacitor
• B. Greater harmonic suppression
• C. Higher efficiency
• D. Greater transformation range

E7F01

10. What is meant by "direct sampling" in software defined radios?

• A. I and Q signals are generated by digital processing without the use of RF amplification
• B. A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
• C. Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
• D. Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver

E1A09

11. Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630-meter band?

• A. 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• B. 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• C. 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• D. 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)

E7E07

12. What is meant by the term "baseband" in radio communications?

• A. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
• B. The frequency range occupied by a message signal prior to modulation
• C. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
• D. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers

E2C03

13. From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

• A. 30 meters
• B. 6 meters
• C. 70 centimeters
• D. 33 centimeters

E4B08

14. Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series-tuned circuit?

• A. The resonant frequency of the circuit
• B. The frequency shift
• C. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
• D. The ratio of inductive reactance to capacitive reactance

E7B02

15. What is a Class D amplifier?

• A. An amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
• B. An amplifier biased to be relatively free from distortion
• C. An amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
• D. A low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity

E8C04

16. What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal?

• A. Reed-Solomon character encoding
• B. Zero-sum character encoding
• C. Use of sinusoidal data pulses
• D. Use of linear data pulses

E9F05

17. What is microstrip?

• A. Miniature coax used for low power applications
• B. Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
• C. Special shielding material designed for microwave frequencies
• D. Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies

E4A10

18. Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply's output ripple?

• A. Line
• B. Edge
• C. Single-shot
• D. Level

E1B06

19. Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or near a public use airport?

• A. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
• B. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority per Part 119 of the FAA regulations
• C. You may have to enter the height above ground in meters, and the latitude and longitude in degrees, minutes, and seconds on the FAA website
• D. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of the FCC rules

E4D12

20. What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 10 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a cable loss of 3 dB, a path loss of 136 dB, a receiver minimum discernable signal of -103 dBm, and a required signal-to-noise ratio of 6 dB?

• A. -14dB
• B. +14dB
• C. -8dB
• D. +8dB

E0A10

21. When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters?

• A. When the station's operating mode is CW
• B. When the ERP of the station is less than 10 watts
• C. An evaluation must always be performed
• D. When the output power from the transmitter is less than 100 watts

E2E04

22. Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode?

• A. Variable transmit/receive periods
• B. Seven different tone spacings
• C. Four-tone Gaussian frequency shift keying
• D. All these choices are correct

E2B01

23. In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

• A. 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval
• B. Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel
• C. 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data
• D. Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4

E6E08

24. How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

• A. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
• B. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
• C. MMICs require no operating bias
• D. Directly to the bias voltage (Vcc) lead

E9B05

25. What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. Elevation
• B. Near field
• C. Polarization
• D. Azimuth

E1F10

26. Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

• A. Any licensed amateur operator
• B. Only Technician, General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators
• C. Only General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators
• D. Only Amateur Extra class operators

E5A04

27. What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

• A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
• B. High compared to the circuit resistance
• C. Low compared to the circuit resistance
• D. Approximately equal to inductive reactance

E6C11

28. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inversion)?

• A. 5
• B. 2
• C. 4
• D. 6

E7H10

29. What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

• A. The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
• B. Amplitude values that represent the desired waveform
• C. Frequently used receiver and transmitter frequencies
• D. The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform

E6D09

30. What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?

• A. Steel-core toroids
• B. Electrolytic capacitors
• C. Butterworth filters
• D. Ferrite beads

E9G04

31. What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

• A. Voltage and impedance
• B. Reactance and voltage
• C. Inductance and capacitance
• D. Resistance and reactance

E1E01

32. For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

• A. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
• B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
• C. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
• D. Preparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license

E3A13

33. Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

• A. CW
• B. RTTY
• C. SSB
• D. FM

E7D08

34. What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?

• A. Linear voltage regulator
• B. Switching voltage regulator
• C. Common base amplifier
• D. Common emitter amplifier

E1C11

35. Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. IARP
• C. CEPT
• D. ITU reciprocal license

E2A09

36. What do the terms "L band" and "S band" specify?

• A. Which sideband to use
• B. The 2-meter and 70-centimeter bands
• C. FM and digital store-and-forward systems
• D. The 23- and 13-centimeter bands

E7G12

37. What is an operational amplifier?

• A. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance
• B. A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
• C. A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
• D. An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit

E6F02

38. What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it?

• A. Resistance decreases
• B. Reflectivity decreases
• C. Reflectivity increases
• D. Resistance increases

E1D11

39. Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

• A. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
• B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operators
• C. Any amateur licensee who has successfully completed the AMSAT space communications course
• D. Only those of Amateur Extra class operators

E5B07

40. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

• A. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• B. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E9D08

41. What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

• A. SWR bandwidth increases
• B. More common-mode current is present on the feed line
• C. Gain is reduced
• D. SWR bandwidth decreases

E5C05

42. What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

• A. Venn diagram
• B. Near field diagram
• C. Phasor diagram
• D. Far field diagram

E9A01

43. What is an isotropic radiator?

• A. An omnidirectional, horizontally polarized, precisely calibrated antenna used to make field measurements of antenna gain
• B. A calibrated, unidirectional antenna used to make precise antenna gain measurements
• C. A hypothetical, lossless antenna having equal radiation intensity in all directions used as a reference for antenna gain
• D. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward Earth

E8B11

44. What is digital time division multiplexing?

• A. Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
• B. Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
• C. Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
• D. Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission

E8D07

45. What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

• A. Excessive frequency deviation
• B. Excessive transmit audio levels
• C. Bit errors in the modem
• D. Excessive numbers of retries

E3B04

46. What are "extraordinary" and "ordinary" waves?

• A. Extraordinary waves exhibit rare long-skip propagation, compared to ordinary waves, which travel shorter distances
• B. Refracted rays and reflected waves
• C. Independently propagating, elliptically polarized waves created in the ionosphere
• D. Long-path and short-path waves

E8A06

47. What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

• A. 2.5 to 1
• B. 13 to 1
• C. 25 to 1
• D. 1 to 1

E2D06

48. Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts?

• A. Storing and forwarding digital messages
• B. Time-synchronous transmissions alternating between stations
• C. High-speed CW identification to avoid fading
• D. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon

E7A01

49. Which circuit is bistable?

• A. A flip-flop
• B. An AND gate
• C. A bipolar amplifier
• D. An OR gate

E9E05

50. What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?

• A. Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)
• B. Purely reactive
• C. Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)
• D. Purely resistive