Practice Exam

E6D11

1. Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

• A. Brass
• B. Ferrite
• C. Ceramic
• D. Aluminum

E7D13

2. Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator?

• A. Output voltage multiplied by output current
• B. Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
• C. Input voltage divided by output current
• D. Input voltage multiplied by input current

E7H08

3. Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

• A. Toroidal inductors
• B. Non-inductive resistors
• C. NP0 capacitors
• D. Wirewound resistors

E1F08

4. Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

• A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
• B. Communications that have political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
• C. Communications that have religious content
• D. Communications in a language other than English

E6F09

5. What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

• A. The output RF power divided by the input DC power
• B. The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
• C. The output in lumens divided by the input power in watts
• D. The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination

E0A04

6. When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

• A. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
• B. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 25 percent
• C. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
• D. Each transmitter that produces 20 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded

E1C12

7. In what portion of the 630-meter band are phone emissions permitted?

• A. Only the bottom 3 kHz
• B. The entire band
• C. Only the top 3 kHz
• D. None

E5A06

8. What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

• A. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)
• B. It is at a maximum
• C. It is at a minimum
• D. It equals 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)

E1A07

9. What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200-meter band?

• A. 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• B. 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• C. 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• D. 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)

E1D12

10. Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications?

• A. A local repeater or linked repeater station
• B. A message forwarding station or automatically controlled digital station
• C. A space station, beacon station, or telecommand station
• D. All these choices are correct

E5D11

11. How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

• A. 200 watts
• B. 141.4 watts
• C. 70.7 watts
• D. 100 watts

E2D02

12. What information replaces signal-to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest?

• A. RST report
• B. Grid square
• C. Serial number
• D. State abbreviation

E1B10

13. What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

• A. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
• B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF, and UHF bands
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Specific local government channels

E7F02

14. What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

• A. A phase-inverting filter
• B. An adaptive filter
• C. A crystal-lattice filter
• D. A Hilbert-transform filter

E3A05

15. How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented?

• A. They are tangential
• B. They are parallel
• C. They are at right angles
• D. They are 90 degrees out of phase

E7E01

16. Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals?

• A. Reactance modulation of a local oscillator
• B. Balanced modulation of a local oscillator
• C. Balanced modulation of the audio amplifier
• D. Reactance modulation of the final amplifier

E8A07

17. What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

• A. The degree of carrier suppression
• B. Speech characteristics
• C. The frequency of the modulating signal
• D. Amplifier gain

E6E05

18. Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

• A. -20 dBm
• B. 0.5 dB
• C. -10 dB
• D. 44 dBm

E2C05

19. What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

• A. Run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
• B. Handle the receiving and sending of confirmations for a DX station
• C. Communicate to a DXpedition about propagation, band openings, pileup conditions, etc.
• D. Allocate frequencies for DXpeditions

E6B10

20. In Figure E6-2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 6
• D. 1

E8C14

21. What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network?

• A. Email
• B. Internet Protocol (IP)
• C. Talk group
• D. Trust server

E9E03

22. What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

• A. T-match
• B. Delta match
• C. Gamma match
• D. Stub match

E3C06

23. How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon?

• A. They are approximately the same
• B. It is approximately 50 percent farther
• C. It is approximately 20 percent nearer
• D. It is approximately 15 percent farther

E5B12

24. What is admittance?

• A. The inverse of impedance
• B. The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
• C. The inverse of reactance
• D. The term for the on-impedance of a field effect transistor

E2A01

25. What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

• A. From south to north
• B. From east to west
• C. From north to south
• D. From west to east

E9C04

26. What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?

• A. The elevation angle increases, while the front-to-rear ratio is unaffected
• B. Fewer lobes form with the major lobes increasing closer to broadside to the wire
• C. Additional lobes form with major lobes increasingly aligned with the axis of the antenna
• D. The elevation angle increases, and the front-to-rear ratio decreases

E2B01

27. In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

• A. Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
• B. Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel
• C. 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data
• D. 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval

E9B09

28. What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas?

• A. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
• B. Mutual impedance analysis
• C. Method of Moments
• D. Graphical analysis

E9A06

29. What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

• A. 126 watts
• B. 2,000 watts
• C. 300 watts
• D. 317 watts

E4B01

30. Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

• A. Input attenuator accuracy
• B. Decade divider accuracy
• C. Temperature coefficient of the logic
• D. Time base accuracy

E9D01

31. How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled?

• A. 2 dB
• B. 3 dB
• C. 6 dB
• D. 4 dB

E9F01

32. What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

• A. The velocity of a wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
• B. The velocity of a wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
• C. The ratio of its termination impedance to its characteristic impedance
• D. The ratio of its characteristic impedance to its termination impedance

E1E09

33. What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

• A. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. A sentence of up to one year in prison
• D. A fine of up to $1,000 per occurrence

E7G04

34. What is meant by the term "op-amp input offset voltage"?

• A. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
• B. The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
• C. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
• D. The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition

E6C05

35. Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption?

• A. ECL
• B. CMOS
• C. NMOS
• D. Schottky TTL

E9H04

36. What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small-loop direction-finding antenna?

• A. It increases signal strength by providing a better match to the feed line
• B. It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
• C. It adds capacitive loading, increasing the bandwidth of the antenna
• D. It eliminates unbalanced capacitive coupling to the antenna's surroundings, improving the depth of its nulls

E7C04

37. How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

• A. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
• B. It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to the desired value
• C. Reactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances
• D. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

E3B09

38. At what time of year is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

• A. Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
• B. Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
• C. Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
• D. Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice

E9G03

39. Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

• A. Beam headings and radiation patterns
• B. Point-to-point propagation reliability as a function of frequency
• C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
• D. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings

E7B01

40. For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull, Class AB amplifier conduct?

• A. The entire cycle
• B. Less than 180 degrees
• C. Exactly 180 degrees
• D. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees

E6A03

41. Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

• A. Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
• B. Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
• C. Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
• D. Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region

E2E10

42. Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

• A. 170 Hz shift, 45-baud RTTY
• B. PACTOR IV
• C. MFSK16
• D. FT8

E7A04

43. How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16?

• A. 8
• B. 4
• C. 6
• D. 16

E4E13

44. Where should a station AC surge protector be installed?

• A. At the AC service panel
• B. On a ground rod outside the station
• C. At an AC outlet
• D. On the single point ground panel

E8D05

45. What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

• A. Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
• B. Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
• C. Insert low-pass filters at the transmitter output
• D. Insert high-pass filters at the transmitter output

E5C08

46. What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance?

• A. Maidenhead grid
• B. Faraday grid
• C. Polar coordinates
• D. Elliptical coordinates

E4C10

47. What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select?

• A. The noise figure of the RF amplifier can be adjusted to match the modulation type, thus increasing receiver sensitivity
• B. Multiple frequencies can be received simultaneously if desired
• C. Receive bandwidth can be set to match the modulation bandwidth, maximizing signal-to-noise ratio and minimizing interference
• D. Receiver power consumption can be reduced when wider bandwidth is not required

E4D07

48. Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

• A. Raise the receiver's IF frequency
• B. Increase the receiver's front-end gain
• C. Insert attenuation before the first RF stage
• D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC

E8B07

49. Orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication?

• A. EME
• B. Extremely low-power contacts
• C. Digital modes
• D. OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands

E4A07

50. Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge?

• A. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
• B. Antenna analyzers compute SWR and impedance automatically
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance