Practice Exam

E9G07

1. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

• A. The reactance axis
• B. The voltage axis
• C. The current axis
• D. The resistance axis

E2A08

2. Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder?

• A. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
• B. To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
• C. To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals
• D. To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users

E5A07

3. What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

• A. R/L
• B. Maximum
• C. L/R
• D. Minimum

E7F06

4. What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

• A. 6 bits
• B. 8 bits
• C. 10 bits
• D. 4 bits

E1F08

5. Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

• A. Communications in a language other than English
• B. Communications that have religious content
• C. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
• D. Communications that have political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine

E7B09

6. What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier?

• A. Differential inputs and single output
• B. Acts as an OR circuit if one input is grounded
• C. Low input impedance and phase inversion from input to output
• D. Input and output signals in-phase

E4C04

7. What is the noise figure of a receiver?

• A. The ratio of the noise bandwidth in hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
• B. The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
• C. The ratio in dB of the noise generated in the receiver to atmospheric noise
• D. The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise

E7C11

8. Which of the following measures a filter's ability to reject signals in adjacent channels?

• A. Shape factor
• B. Noise factor
• C. Passband ripple
• D. Phase response

E7G10

9. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

• A. 0.03
• B. 1
• C. 76
• D. 38

E1D07

10. Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations?

• A. Satellite operation is permitted on all HF bands
• B. Only 10 meters
• C. 40 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
• D. 30 meters, 17 meters, and 10 meters

E4B04

11. Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?

• A. S12
• B. S11
• C. S21
• D. S22

E7E08

12. What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer?

• A. The square root of the product of input frequencies
• B. The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
• C. Two and four times the input frequency
• D. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency

E1E06

13. Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

• A. Each administering VE
• B. The VEC coordinating the session
• C. The designated monitoring VE
• D. Only the VE session manager

E6B01

14. What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

• A. A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
• B. A negative resistance region
• C. A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
• D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage

E8C14

15. What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network?

• A. Email
• B. Trust server
• C. Internet Protocol (IP)
• D. Talk group

E9F09

16. What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. Very low impedance
• B. Very high impedance
• C. The same as the generator output impedance
• D. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

E4A07

17. Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Antenna analyzers compute SWR and impedance automatically
• C. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
• D. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope

E3B07

18. What effect does lowering a signal's transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propagation?

• A. The MUF decreases
• B. The distance covered by each hop increases
• C. Faraday rotation becomes stronger
• D. The critical frequency increases

E6A11

19. In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

• A. 3
• B. 6
• C. 2
• D. 1

E7H02

20. What is a microphonic?

• A. Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
• B. Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
• C. Changes in oscillator frequency caused by mechanical vibration
• D. An IC used for amplifying microphone signals

E8B11

21. What is digital time division multiplexing?

• A. Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
• B. Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
• C. Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
• D. Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter

E3A01

22. What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by EME?

• A. 5,000 miles, if the moon is at perigee
• B. 2,000 miles, if the moon is at apogee
• C. 12,000 miles, if the moon is "visible" by both stations
• D. 2,000 miles, if the moon is at perigee

E1A09

23. Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630-meter band?

• A. 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• B. 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• C. 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• D. 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)

E5D01

24. What is the result of conductor skin effect?

• A. Resistance increases as frequency increases because RF current flows closer to the surface
• B. Resistance decreases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient
• C. Resistance decreases as frequency increases because electron mobility increases
• D. Resistance increases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient

E5B06

25. What is susceptance?

• A. A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
• B. The magnetic impedance of a circuit
• C. The imaginary part of admittance
• D. The ratio of magnetic field to electric field

E9H10

26. How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. By utilizing high impedance wire for the coupling loop
• C. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
• D. By increasing the number of turns and/or the area enclosed by the loop

E6F09

27. What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

• A. The output RF power divided by the input DC power
• B. The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
• C. The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
• D. The output in lumens divided by the input power in watts

E2D09

28. What type of modulation is used by JT65?

• A. QAM
• B. Multitone AFSK
• C. RTTY
• D. PSK

E5C09

29. When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent?

• A. The X axis represents the reactive component, and the Y axis represents the resistive component
• B. The X axis represents the resistive component, and the Y axis represents the reactive component
• C. The X axis represents the phase angle, and the Y axis represents the magnitude
• D. The X axis represents the magnitude, and the Y axis represents the phase angle

E9D09

30. What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna?

• A. To resonate the antenna by cancelling the capacitive reactance
• B. To lower the Q
• C. To increase the SWR bandwidth by increasing net reactance
• D. To lower the losses

E2B04

31. How is color information sent in analog SSTV?

• A. Color is amplitude modulated on the frequency modulated intensity signal
• B. Color lines are sent sequentially
• C. Color information is sent on a 2.8 kHz subcarrier
• D. Color is sent in a color burst at the end of each line

E0A12

32. Where should a shock-absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground?

• A. To the next lowest set of guys
• B. Above the climber's head level
• C. Even with the climber's waist
• D. To the belt of the fall-arrest harness

E9B07

33. What is the difference in radiated power between a lossless antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the same power?

• A. The power radiated from the directional antenna is stronger by its front-to-back ratio
• B. The power radiated from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna
• C. They are the same
• D. The power radiated from the isotropic radiator is 2.15 dB greater than that from the directional antenna

E2C04

34. Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks?

• A. The 60-meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
• B. Cable TV channels 41-43
• C. HF frequencies where digital communications are permitted
• D. Frequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services

E3C02

35. What is indicated by a rising A-index or K-index?

• A. Higher levels of solar UV radiation
• B. Increasing disturbance of the geomagnetic field
• C. Decreasing disturbance of the geomagnetic field
• D. An increase in the critical frequency

E6D12

36. What causes inductor saturation?

• A. Selecting a core with low permeability
• B. Selecting a core with excessive permittivity
• C. Operation at too high a frequency
• D. Operation at excessive magnetic flux

E9E05

37. What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?

• A. Purely reactive
• B. Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)
• C. Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)
• D. Purely resistive

E8A08

38. Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio?

• A. Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
• B. Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
• C. Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
• D. All these choices are correct

E8D04

39. What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

• A. More difficult to tune
• B. The generation of key clicks
• C. The generation of RF harmonics
• D. More difficult to copy

E1B08

40. What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

• A. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
• B. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
• C. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
• D. The amateur station must cease operation

E4E11

41. What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals combining to generate spurious signals on the MF or HF bands?

• A. Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is overloaded
• B. Nearby corroded metal connections are mixing and reradiating the broadcast signals
• C. You are receiving skywave signals from a distant station
• D. One or more of the broadcast stations is transmitting an over-modulated signal

E6C10

42. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

• A. 4
• B. 1
• C. 3
• D. 2

E7A10

43. What is a truth table?

• A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp
• B. A diagram showing logic states when the digital gate output is true
• C. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
• D. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for an op-amp

E9A01

44. What is an isotropic radiator?

• A. A calibrated, unidirectional antenna used to make precise antenna gain measurements
• B. An omnidirectional, horizontally polarized, precisely calibrated antenna used to make field measurements of antenna gain
• C. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward Earth
• D. A hypothetical, lossless antenna having equal radiation intensity in all directions used as a reference for antenna gain

E7D04

45. Which of the following describes a three-terminal voltage regulator?

• A. A shunt current source
• B. A series current source
• C. A series regulator
• D. A shunt regulator

E4D14

46. What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of -100 dBm represent?

• A. 0.1 picowatts
• B. 100 microwatts
• C. 0.1 microwatt
• D. 0.001 microwatts

E2E05

47. Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

• A. WSPR
• B. RTTY
• C. MFSK16
• D. PSK31

E1C03

48. How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200-meter or 630-meter band?

• A. Operations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC
• B. Operators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 kilometer of PLC systems using those frequencies
• C. Operators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company
• D. Operators must not operate until approval is received

E9C03

49. What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2- wavelength apart and fed in phase?

• A. Cardioid
• B. Omni-directional
• C. A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array
• D. A figure-eight end-fire along the axis of the array

E6E02

50. Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

• A. SOT
• B. DIP
• C. BGA
• D. PLCC