Practice Exam

E3C08

1. Which of the following is the space-weather term for an extreme geomagnetic storm?

• A. M9
• B. G5
• C. X5
• D. B9

E9B11

2. What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?

• A. Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
• B. The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
• C. The antenna will become mechanically unstable
• D. The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect

E4A07

3. Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge?

• A. Antenna analyzers compute SWR and impedance automatically
• B. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
• C. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
• D. All these choices are correct

E7C05

4. Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

• A. A Butterworth filter
• B. A Chebyshev filter
• C. A passive op-amp filter
• D. An active LC filter

E6B04

5. What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

• A. Tunnel diode
• B. Silicon-controlled rectifier
• C. Varactor diode
• D. Zener diode

E2A04

6. What is meant by the "mode" of an amateur radio satellite?

• A. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
• B. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
• C. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
• D. Whether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit

E7H10

7. What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

• A. Amplitude values that represent the desired waveform
• B. The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
• C. The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
• D. Frequently used receiver and transmitter frequencies

E1E01

8. For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

• A. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
• B. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
• C. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
• D. Preparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license

E8D08

9. What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?

• A. Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
• B. Signal-to-noise ratio
• C. Baud error rate
• D. Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)

E6F02

10. What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it?

• A. Reflectivity increases
• B. Resistance decreases
• C. Resistance increases
• D. Reflectivity decreases

E7E03

11. What is a frequency discriminator?

• A. An FM generator circuit
• B. An automatic band-switching circuit
• C. A circuit for detecting FM signals
• D. A circuit for filtering closely adjacent signals

E8A10

12. What is the purpose of a low-pass filter used at the output of a digital-to-analog converter?

• A. Remove spurious sampling artifacts from the output signal
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Lower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution
• D. Improve accuracy by removing out-of-sequence codes from the input

E8C07

13. What is the bandwidth of a 4,800-Hz frequency shift, 9,600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

• A. 4.8 kHz
• B. 5.76 kHz
• C. 15.36 kHz
• D. 9.6 kHz

E2B01

14. In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

• A. 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data
• B. Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
• C. Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel
• D. 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval

E9D07

15. What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna?

• A. Greater structural strength
• B. Higher losses
• C. Lower Q
• D. Improved radiation efficiency

E3B02

16. What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

• A. 5,000 miles
• B. 7,500 miles
• C. 2,500 miles
• D. 1,000 miles

E8B03

17. What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency if the highest modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

• A. 0.3
• B. 6
• C. 0.6
• D. 3

E2C11

18. How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

• A. Send your full call sign once or twice
• B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
• C. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is," then your call sign three times
• D. Send your full call sign and grid square

E6D04

19. Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers?

• A. To increase the cutoff frequency by reducing capacitance
• B. To simplify assembly during manufacturing
• C. To save cost by reducing the amount of magnetic material
• D. To reduce power loss from eddy currents in the core

E4C10

20. What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select?

• A. The noise figure of the RF amplifier can be adjusted to match the modulation type, thus increasing receiver sensitivity
• B. Multiple frequencies can be received simultaneously if desired
• C. Receiver power consumption can be reduced when wider bandwidth is not required
• D. Receive bandwidth can be set to match the modulation bandwidth, maximizing signal-to-noise ratio and minimizing interference

E1F07

21. When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

• A. When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $50
• B. When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $25
• C. When neither the amateur nor their employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
• D. At no time

E1D05

22. What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the Earth's surface?

• A. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
• B. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. A photocopy of the station license

E7D03

23. What device is used as a stable voltage reference?

• A. A digital-to-analog converter
• B. An SCR
• C. An analog-to-digital converter
• D. A Zener diode

E2E11

24. What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

• A. Direct FSK modulates the transmitter VFO
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Direct FSK occupies less bandwidth
• D. Direct FSK can transmit higher baud rates

E5C06

25. What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent?

• A. 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
• B. 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
• C. 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
• D. 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance

E5D12

26. What is reactive power?

• A. Wattless, nonproductive power
• B. The power consumed in inductors and capacitors
• C. Power consumed in circuit Q
• D. Power consumed by an inductor's wire resistance

E2D05

27. What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode?

• A. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
• B. Decodes signals with a very low signal-to-noise ratio
• C. Symbol rate is 65 baud
• D. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth

E9F10

28. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. A capacitive reactance
• B. Zero
• C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• D. An inductive reactance

E7G11

29. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

• A. 14
• B. 7
• C. 0.07
• D. 28

E4D07

30. Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

• A. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
• B. Insert attenuation before the first RF stage
• C. Increase the receiver's front-end gain
• D. Raise the receiver's IF frequency

E9A12

31. How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half-wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?

• A. 3.85 dB
• B. 2.79 dB
• C. 6.0 dB
• D. 8.15 dB

E5B11

32. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

• A. 63 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• B. 63 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• C. 27 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• D. 27 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E9C03

33. What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2- wavelength apart and fed in phase?

• A. Cardioid
• B. Omni-directional
• C. A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array
• D. A figure-eight end-fire along the axis of the array

E6E05

34. Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

• A. -20 dBm
• B. -10 dB
• C. 44 dBm
• D. 0.5 dB

E1A08

35. If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

• A. The control operators of all the stations in the system
• B. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
• C. The control operator of the originating station
• D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications

E3A12

36. What is most likely to result in auroral propagation?

• A. Meteor showers
• B. Extreme low-pressure areas in polar regions
• C. Quiet geomagnetic conditions
• D. Severe geomagnetic storms

E1B01

37. Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

• A. Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station and whose levels exceed 40 dB below the fundamental power level
• B. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
• C. An amateur station transmission made without the proper call sign identification
• D. An emission outside the signal's necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted

E5A13

38. What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

• A. Parasitic effects are minimized
• B. Phase shift can become uncontrolled
• C. Internal voltages increase
• D. Fewer components are needed for the same performance

E7A08

39. What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

• A. It produces a 1 at its output if all inputs are 0
• B. It produces a 1 at its output if any input is 1
• C. It produces a 0 at its output if all inputs are 1
• D. It produces a 0 at its output if some but not all inputs are 1

E4E04

40. How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed?

• A. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the antenna feed line
• B. By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor at the battery
• C. By installing filter capacitors in series with the alternator leads
• D. By installing ferrite chokes on the charging system leads

E7B01

41. For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull, Class AB amplifier conduct?

• A. The entire cycle
• B. Exactly 180 degrees
• C. Less than 180 degrees
• D. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees

E9H09

42. What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?

• A. Hyperbolic
• B. Bidirectional
• C. Cardioid
• D. Omnidirectional

E0A04

43. When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

• A. Each transmitter that produces 20 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
• B. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
• C. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 25 percent
• D. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded

E1C01

44. What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

• A. 2.8 kHz
• B. 170 Hz
• C. 1.5 kHz
• D. 60 Hz

E9E11

45. What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines?

• A. To control the antenna's radiation pattern
• B. To allow single-band antennas to operate on other bands
• C. To create a low-angle radiation pattern
• D. To prevent harmonic radiation from the transmitter

E6A12

46. What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes between a MOSFET gate and its source or drain?

• A. To protect the gate from static damage
• B. To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
• C. To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
• D. To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage

E6C05

47. Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption?

• A. NMOS
• B. Schottky TTL
• C. ECL
• D. CMOS

E7F04

48. Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing?

• A. A frequency synthesizer removes unwanted sidebands
• B. Signals are combined in quadrature phase relationship
• C. Varying quartz crystal characteristics are emulated in digital form
• D. Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits

E9G01

49. Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

• A. Radiation resistance
• B. Impedance along transmission lines
• C. Antenna radiation pattern
• D. Radio propagation

E4B07

50. What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

• A. The relative time between measurements
• B. The port or ports at which measurements are made
• C. Relative quality of the data
• D. Frequency order of the measurements