Practice Exam

E9G05

1. Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?

• A. Determine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials
• B. Determine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions
• C. Determine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters
• D. Determine the length and position of an impedance matching stub

E6C05

2. Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption?

• A. Schottky TTL
• B. ECL
• C. NMOS
• D. CMOS

E4D09

3. What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

• A. To store frequencies that are often used
• B. To increase the rejection of signals outside the band being received
• C. To provide broadband attenuation before the first RF stage to prevent intermodulation
• D. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device

E9H06

4. What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna?

• A. Minimum variation in SWR over the desired frequency range
• B. Minimum low-angle front-to-back ratio at the design frequency
• C. Maximum DC current in the terminating resistor
• D. Maximum feed point DC resistance at the center of the desired frequency range

E8D11

5. What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?

• A. It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters
• B. It includes built-in error correction features
• C. It is possible to transmit both uppercase and lowercase text
• D. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code

E6A03

6. Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

• A. Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
• B. Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
• C. Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
• D. Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region

E7C03

7. What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi-network to create a Pi-L-network?

• A. Greater harmonic suppression
• B. Higher efficiency
• C. Greater transformation range
• D. To eliminate one capacitor

E1A03

8. What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20-meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal?

• A. 14.1472 MHz
• B. 14.0708 MHz
• C. 14.3490 MHz
• D. 14.1002 MHz

E9B01

9. What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

• A. 50 degrees
• B. 75 degrees
• C. 25 degrees
• D. 30 degrees

E7G10

10. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

• A. 38
• B. 0.03
• C. 76
• D. 1

E7F12

11. Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters?

• A. FIR filters can respond faster to impulses
• B. FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. FIR filters can delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount

E7E05

12. What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies?

• A. A de-emphasis network
• B. A pre-emphasis network
• C. A harmonic enhancer
• D. A heterodyne enhancer

E9F07

13. How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric?

• A. Higher SWR
• B. Lower velocity factor
• C. Lower loss
• D. Smaller reflection coefficient

E2B01

14. In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

• A. Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
• B. 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data
• C. 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval
• D. Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel

E6F02

15. What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it?

• A. Resistance decreases
• B. Resistance increases
• C. Reflectivity decreases
• D. Reflectivity increases

E9A04

16. Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

• A. Transmission line length
• B. Antenna height
• C. The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
• D. The input power level

E1F08

17. Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

• A. Communications that have political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
• B. Communications that have religious content
• C. Communications in a language other than English
• D. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules

E5D05

18. What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF?

• A. Shunt capacitance
• B. Dielectric leakage
• C. Skin effect
• D. Inductance

E5C03

19. Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

• A. A positive 90 degree phase angle
• B. A positive 45 degree phase angle
• C. A negative 90 degree phase angle
• D. A negative 45 degree phase angle

E7D10

20. Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and lighter than an equivalent linear power supply?

• A. The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
• B. The control circuitry uses less current, therefore smaller heat sinks are required
• C. It recovers power from the unused portion of the AC cycle, thus using fewer components
• D. The inverter design does not require an output filter circuit

E8C07

21. What is the bandwidth of a 4,800-Hz frequency shift, 9,600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

• A. 15.36 kHz
• B. 4.8 kHz
• C. 5.76 kHz
• D. 9.6 kHz

E7B07

22. Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

• A. Reduced intermodulation products
• B. Increased overall intelligibility
• C. Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
• D. Reduced third-order intermodulation

E4A01

23. Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?

• A. Sampling rate of the analog-to-digital converter
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Q of the circuit
• D. Analog-to-digital converter reference frequency

E5B07

24. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

• A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• B. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• D. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E0A02

25. When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

• A. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
• B. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
• C. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
• D. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits

E1C09

26. What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

• A. 2.0
• B. 0.5
• C. 3.0
• D. 1.0

E3B05

27. Which of the following paths is most likely to support long-distance propagation on 160 meters?

• A. A path entirely in sunlight
• B. A path entirely in darkness
• C. Paths at high latitudes
• D. A direct north-south path

E7A10

28. What is a truth table?

• A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp
• B. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
• C. A diagram showing logic states when the digital gate output is true
• D. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for an op-amp

E3A02

29. What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

• A. A fluttery, irregular fading
• B. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
• C. The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
• D. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal

E9D12

30. What is the purpose of making a Yagi's parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance?

• A. Mechanical balance
• B. Wind torque cancellation
• C. Control of phase shift
• D. Minimize losses

E5A12

31. What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

• A. 15.7 kHz
• B. 218.3 kHz
• C. 31.4 kHz
• D. 436.6 kHz

E1B02

32. Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow-scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

• A. 15 kHz
• B. 20 kHz
• C. 10 kHz
• D. 3 kHz

E1D04

33. Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. The output power of the balloon transmitter
• C. Call sign
• D. The station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator

E6E09

34. Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range?

• A. TO-220
• B. Axial lead
• C. Radial lead
• D. Surface mount

E9E02

35. What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna and the conductor a fraction of a wavelength to one side?

• A. Gamma match
• B. Delta match
• C. T-match
• D. Stub match

E1E04

36. What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner?

• A. A VEC must confirm that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
• B. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
• C. The prospective VE must obtain accreditation from the FCC
• D. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

E8B07

37. Orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication?

• A. OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
• B. Digital modes
• C. EME
• D. Extremely low-power contacts

E2D11

38. How do APRS stations relay data?

• A. By packet digipeaters
• B. By DMR repeaters
• C. By C4FM repeaters
• D. By packet ACK/NAK relay

E3C04

39. What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent?

• A. North-south strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
• B. Duration of long-delayed echoes
• C. Geomagnetic field stability
• D. Critical frequency for vertical transmissions

E7H12

40. Which of the following ensures that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

• A. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
• B. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
• C. Bias the crystal at a specified current
• D. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance

E2E02

41. Which of the following synchronizes WSJT-X digital mode transmit/receive timing?

• A. Sync-field transmission
• B. Synchronization of computer clocks
• C. Alignment of frequency shifts
• D. Sync-pulse timing

E4C02

42. Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals?

• A. A properly adjusted product detector
• B. A narrow IF filter
• C. A front-end filter or preselector
• D. A notch filter

E4E10

43. Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
• C. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
• D. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device

E6B08

44. Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?

• A. Thermionic emission diode
• B. Electrolytic rectifier
• C. PIN junction
• D. Metal-semiconductor junction

E9C10

45. Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

• A. An end-fed half-wavelength dipole
• B. A horizontal array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
• C. An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
• D. A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines

E2C09

46. What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network?

• A. A computer running EchoLink to provide interface from the radio to the internet
• B. A 2-meter VHF transceiver with a 1,200-baud modem
• C. A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9,600-baud modem
• D. A wireless router running custom firmware

E2A06

47. What are Keplerian elements?

• A. High-emission heater filaments used in magnetron tubes
• B. Parameters that define the orbit of a satellite
• C. Encrypting codes used for spread spectrum modulation
• D. Phase reversing elements in a Yagi antenna

E6D12

48. What causes inductor saturation?

• A. Operation at excessive magnetic flux
• B. Selecting a core with low permeability
• C. Operation at too high a frequency
• D. Selecting a core with excessive permittivity

E8A02

49. Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion?

• A. Successive approximation
• B. Phase reversal
• C. Harmonic regeneration
• D. Level shifting

E4B05

50. What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

• A. Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
• B. 50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
• C. 50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
• D. Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms