Practice Exam

E1F02

1. What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?

• A. Full privileges of the General class license on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands
• B. Full privileges, up to and including those of the Amateur Extra class license, on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands
• C. None, they must obtain a US license
• D. The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed US Amateur Extra class license privileges

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2. What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

• A. Inductance and capacitance
• B. Voltage and impedance
• C. Reactance and voltage
• D. Resistance and reactance

E9H07

3. What is the function of a Beverage antenna's termination resistor?

• A. Absorb signals from the reverse direction
• B. Eliminate harmonic reception
• C. Decrease SWR bandwidth
• D. Increase the front-to-side ratio

E1D08

4. Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

• A. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
• B. 6 meters and 2 meters
• C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters
• D. 2 meters

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5. What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF?

• A. Dielectric loss
• B. Inductance
• C. Skin effect
• D. Self-discharge

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6. May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone?

• A. Yes, the entire signal will be inside the SSB allocation for Extra class operators
• B. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 75-meter phone band segment
• C. No, US stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
• D. No, the sideband components will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment

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7. What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

• A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
• B. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
• C. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session
• D. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination

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8. On which of the following amateur bands is long-path propagation most frequent?

• A. 40 meters and 20 meters
• B. 10 meters and 6 meters
• C. 6 meters and 2 meters
• D. 160 meters and 80 meters

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9. What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire half-wave folded dipole antenna?

• A. 72 ohms
• B. 300 ohms
• C. 50 ohms
• D. 450 ohms

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10. How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder?

• A. The signal is passed through a nonlinear filter
• B. The signal is reduced to I and Q components, and the Q component is filtered out
• C. The signal is mixed with a local oscillator signal and the difference product is transmitted
• D. The signal is detected and remodulated on the reverse sideband

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11. What does the term "ground gain" mean?

• A. An increase in signal strength from ground reflections in the environment of the antenna
• B. The change in signal strength caused by grounding the antenna
• C. To force net gain to 0 dB by grounding part of the antenna
• D. The gain of the antenna with respect to a dipole at ground level

E7C01

12. How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

• A. A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between the input and output
• B. Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
• C. Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
• D. An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output

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13. What does SAR measure?

• A. The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
• B. Signal attenuation ratio
• C. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
• D. Signal amplification rating

E1C03

14. How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200-meter or 630-meter band?

• A. Operators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 kilometer of PLC systems using those frequencies
• B. Operators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company
• C. Operations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC
• D. Operators must not operate until approval is received

E3A02

15. What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

• A. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
• B. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
• C. The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
• D. A fluttery, irregular fading

E7F13

16. What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

• A. Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
• B. To reduce excess signal pressure levels
• C. Provide access for debugging software
• D. Select the point at which baseband signals are generated

E2E12

17. How do ALE stations establish contact?

• A. ALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter
• B. ALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use
• C. ALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on
• D. ALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received

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18. What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70-centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?

• A. Reduce the repeater antenna HAAT (Height Above Average Terrain)
• B. Cease operation or make changes to the repeater that mitigate the interference
• C. File an FAA NOTAM (Notice to Air Missions) with the repeater system's ERP, call sign, and six-character grid locator
• D. All these choices are correct

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19. What transmitter frequencies would create an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

• A. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
• B. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
• C. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
• D. 146.30 MHz and 146.90 MHz

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20. What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. Very low impedance
• B. The same as the generator output impedance
• C. Very high impedance
• D. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

E7A10

21. What is a truth table?

• A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp
• B. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
• C. A diagram showing logic states when the digital gate output is true
• D. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for an op-amp

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22. How is color information sent in analog SSTV?

• A. Color lines are sent sequentially
• B. Color information is sent on a 2.8 kHz subcarrier
• C. Color is amplitude modulated on the frequency modulated intensity signal
• D. Color is sent in a color burst at the end of each line

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23. What device is used as a stable voltage reference?

• A. An analog-to-digital converter
• B. An SCR
• C. A digital-to-analog converter
• D. A Zener diode

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24. What is piezoelectricity?

• A. A characteristic of materials that have an index of refraction which depends on the polarization of the electromagnetic wave passing through it
• B. A characteristic of materials that generate a voltage when stressed and that flex when a voltage is applied
• C. The ability of materials to generate voltage when an electromagnetic wave of a certain frequency is applied
• D. The ability of materials to generate electromagnetic waves of a certain frequency when voltage is applied

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25. What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna and the conductor a fraction of a wavelength to one side?

• A. Delta match
• B. T-match
• C. Gamma match
• D. Stub match

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26. How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed?

• A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the alternator leads
• B. By installing ferrite chokes on the charging system leads
• C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the antenna feed line
• D. By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor at the battery

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27. Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

• A. Bandwidth is very limited
• B. The input switching threshold is about twice the power supply voltage
• C. The input switching threshold is about half the power supply voltage
• D. Large bypass capacitance is inherent

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28. Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

• A. A coronal mass ejection impact or a solar flare has occurred
• B. A temperature inversion has occurred
• C. Long-path propagation on the higher HF bands is likely
• D. Transequatorial propagation on 6 meters is likely

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29. What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

• A. As a constant voltage source
• B. As an RF detector
• C. As a high-voltage rectifier
• D. As a constant current source

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30. What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

• A. B
• B. Y
• C. G
• D. X

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31. Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

• A. Use a GPS signal reference
• B. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator

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32. What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

• A. Excessive numbers of retries
• B. Excessive frequency deviation
• C. Excessive transmit audio levels
• D. Bit errors in the modem

E5C06

33. What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent?

• A. 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
• B. 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
• C. 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance
• D. 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance

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34. What technique shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics?

• A. Vector analysis
• B. Numerical analysis
• C. Differential analysis
• D. Fourier analysis

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35. What is the photovoltaic effect?

• A. The conversion of light to electrical energy
• B. The effect that causes a phototransistor's beta to decrease when exposed to light
• C. The effect that causes a photodiode to emit light when a voltage is applied
• D. The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light

E6E03

36. Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

• A. Gallium nitride
• B. Silicon nitride
• C. Silicon dioxide
• D. Silicon

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37. What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes between a MOSFET gate and its source or drain?

• A. To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
• B. To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
• C. To protect the gate from static damage
• D. To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating

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38. What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?

• A. 104 Hz
• B. 52 Hz
• C. 26 Hz
• D. 13 Hz

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39. What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the highest modulating frequency is 2 kHz?

• A. 6
• B. 0.6
• C. 3
• D. 0.3

E7E02

40. What is the function of a reactance modulator?

• A. Produce AM signals by varying an inductance
• B. Produce PM or FM signals by varying a resistance
• C. Produce PM or FM signals by varying a capacitance
• D. Produce AM signals by varying a resistance

E7G06

41. What is the gain-bandwidth of an operational amplifier?

• A. The frequency at which the open-loop gain of the amplifier equals one
• B. The maximum frequency for a filter circuit using that type of amplifier
• C. The frequency at which the amplifier's offset voltage is zero
• D. The gain of the amplifier at a filter's cutoff frequency

E5A02

42. What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 40 picofarads?

• A. 44.72 MHz
• B. 22.36 MHz
• C. 1.78 MHz
• D. 3.56 MHz

E4A04

43. How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed?

• A. A DC voltage standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
• B. A high frequency sine wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
• C. A square wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
• D. A frequency standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate

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44. What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

• A. The minimum discernible signal
• B. The maximum detectable spectrum
• C. The meter display sensitivity
• D. The modulation distortion specification

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45. Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

• A. S22
• B. S12
• C. S11
• D. S21

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46. What digital protocol is used by APRS?

• A. PACTOR
• B. QAM
• C. AX.25
• D. AMTOR

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47. Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks?

• A. The 60-meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
• B. Cable TV channels 41-43
• C. Frequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services
• D. HF frequencies where digital communications are permitted

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48. What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

• A. Use a phase inverter in the output filter
• B. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
• C. Tune both the input and output for maximum power
• D. Tune the stage for minimum loading

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49. What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?

• A. A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
• B. A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave voltage source
• C. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
• D. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it

E9D08

50. What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

• A. Gain is reduced
• B. SWR bandwidth decreases
• C. More common-mode current is present on the feed line
• D. SWR bandwidth increases