Practice Exam

E8C14

1. What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network?

• A. Talk group
• B. Trust server
• C. Email
• D. Internet Protocol (IP)

E3A02

2. What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

• A. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
• B. A fluttery, irregular fading
• C. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
• D. The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal

E8A07

3. What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

• A. The degree of carrier suppression
• B. The frequency of the modulating signal
• C. Amplifier gain
• D. Speech characteristics

E5A13

4. What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

• A. Fewer components are needed for the same performance
• B. Parasitic effects are minimized
• C. Phase shift can become uncontrolled
• D. Internal voltages increase

E8D10

5. What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

• A. Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
• B. Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
• C. Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
• D. Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code

E7D13

6. Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator?

• A. Input voltage divided by output current
• B. Output voltage multiplied by output current
• C. Input voltage multiplied by input current
• D. Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current

E5B07

7. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

• A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• B. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• D. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E7F10

8. What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct-sampling software defined radio (SDR)?

• A. Sample width in bits
• B. Sample rate
• C. Integral non-linearity
• D. Differential non-linearity

E8B08

9. What describes orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)?

• A. A digital mode for narrow-band, slow-speed transmissions
• B. A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
• C. A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
• D. A frequency modulation technique that uses non-harmonically related frequencies

E4A06

10. What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform?

• A. Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
• B. The waveform DC offset will be inaccurate
• C. Excessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the waveform
• D. A false, jittery low-frequency version of the waveform is displayed

E1E03

11. What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

• A. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate, prepare, and administer amateur operator license examinations
• B. An organization paid by the volunteer examiner team to publicize and schedule examinations
• C. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
• D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

E2C05

12. What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

• A. Run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
• B. Communicate to a DXpedition about propagation, band openings, pileup conditions, etc.
• C. Allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
• D. Handle the receiving and sending of confirmations for a DX station

E4E06

13. What type of electrical interference can be caused by computer network equipment?

• A. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
• B. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station's receiver
• C. A whining-type noise that continually pulses off and on
• D. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies

E9D12

14. What is the purpose of making a Yagi's parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance?

• A. Mechanical balance
• B. Minimize losses
• C. Control of phase shift
• D. Wind torque cancellation

E1B08

15. What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

• A. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
• B. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
• C. The amateur station must cease operation
• D. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

E4D09

16. What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

• A. To increase the rejection of signals outside the band being received
• B. To provide broadband attenuation before the first RF stage to prevent intermodulation
• C. To store frequencies that are often used
• D. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device

E3B06

17. On which of the following amateur bands is long-path propagation most frequent?

• A. 160 meters and 80 meters
• B. 6 meters and 2 meters
• C. 10 meters and 6 meters
• D. 40 meters and 20 meters

E1A05

18. Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

• A. Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
• B. Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio license grant
• C. Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
• D. Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E6D01

19. What is piezoelectricity?

• A. A characteristic of materials that generate a voltage when stressed and that flex when a voltage is applied
• B. The ability of materials to generate voltage when an electromagnetic wave of a certain frequency is applied
• C. The ability of materials to generate electromagnetic waves of a certain frequency when voltage is applied
• D. A characteristic of materials that have an index of refraction which depends on the polarization of the electromagnetic wave passing through it

E2A12

20. What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?

• A. To relay messages between satellites
• B. To hold digital messages in the satellite for later download
• C. To upload operational software for the transponder
• D. To delay download of telemetry between satellites

E1D08

21. Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

• A. 2 meters and 1.25 meters
• B. 2 meters
• C. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
• D. 6 meters and 2 meters

E9C01

22. What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2- wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

• A. A figure-eight oriented along the axis of the array
• B. Omni-directional
• C. A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array
• D. Cardioid

E7A02

23. What is the function of a decade counter?

• A. It produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
• B. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
• C. It produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse
• D. It decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display

E6A05

24. How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor?

• A. An FET has higher input impedance
• B. They are both high impedance
• C. They are both low impedance
• D. An FET has lower input impedance

E9A07

25. What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?

• A. 63.2 watts
• B. 252 watts
• C. 632 watts
• D. 159 watts

E9H04

26. What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small-loop direction-finding antenna?

• A. It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
• B. It eliminates unbalanced capacitive coupling to the antenna's surroundings, improving the depth of its nulls
• C. It adds capacitive loading, increasing the bandwidth of the antenna
• D. It increases signal strength by providing a better match to the feed line

E6E03

27. Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

• A. Silicon dioxide
• B. Gallium nitride
• C. Silicon
• D. Silicon nitride

E6F01

28. What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

• A. Electrons
• B. Holes
• C. Photons
• D. Protons

E2E08

29. Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

• A. PACTOR
• B. AMTOR
• C. PSK31
• D. RTTY

E4C05

30. What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

• A. The receiver noise is 3 dB above theoretical minimum
• B. The theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
• C. The receiver noise is 6 dB above the theoretical minimum
• D. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver

E0A02

31. When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

• A. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
• B. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
• C. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
• D. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits

E9G09

32. What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks?

• A. Coaxial-length circles
• B. Transmission line length circles
• C. Radiation-pattern circles
• D. Constant-SWR circles

E7G01

33. What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?

• A. 10,000 ohms
• B. Very low
• C. 100 ohms
• D. Very high

E4B05

34. What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

• A. 50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
• B. Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
• C. 50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
• D. Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms

E5D12

35. What is reactive power?

• A. Wattless, nonproductive power
• B. The power consumed in inductors and capacitors
• C. Power consumed by an inductor's wire resistance
• D. Power consumed in circuit Q

E1F01

36. On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

• A. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
• B. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
• C. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
• D. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz

E7H04

37. How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

• A. Through a neutralizing capacitor
• B. Through a capacitive divider
• C. Through link coupling
• D. Through a tapped coil

E6B07

38. What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current?

• A. Excessive junction temperature
• B. Excessive inverse voltage
• C. Insufficient forward voltage
• D. Charge carrier depletion

E9E02

39. What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna and the conductor a fraction of a wavelength to one side?

• A. Gamma match
• B. Stub match
• C. Delta match
• D. T-match

E3C07

40. Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

• A. Class M
• B. Class X
• C. Class Z
• D. Class A

E7E10

41. How does a diode envelope detector function?

• A. By breakdown of the Zener voltage
• B. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
• C. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
• D. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode

E9F07

42. How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric?

• A. Smaller reflection coefficient
• B. Lower loss
• C. Higher SWR
• D. Lower velocity factor

E1C07

43. What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630- or 2200-meter bands?

• A. Operators must inform the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of their call sign and coordinates of the station
• B. A special endorsement must be requested from the FCC
• C. An environmental impact statement must be filed with the Department of the Interior
• D. Operators must inform the FAA of their intent to operate, giving their call sign and distance to the nearest runway

E7C10

44. Which of the following filters is used in a 2-meter band repeater duplexer?

• A. An L-C filter
• B. A crystal filter
• C. A DSP filter
• D. A cavity filter

E2D08

45. What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

• A. Connect
• B. Burst
• C. Acknowledgement
• D. Unnumbered Information

E2B12

46. What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?

• A. Specific tone amplitudes
• B. Specific tone frequencies
• C. A two-tone signal
• D. Elapsed time

E6C08

47. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

• A. 3
• B. 4
• C. 1
• D. 2

E9B03

48. What is the front-to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

• A. 12 dB
• B. 18 dB
• C. 24 dB
• D. 14 dB

E7B08

49. Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

• A. Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
• B. Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
• C. Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits
• D. The switching device is at saturation or cutoff most of the time

E5C04

50. What type of Y-axis scale is most often used for graphs of circuit frequency response?

• A. Linear
• B. Random
• C. Logarithmic
• D. Scatter