Practice Exam

E1D05

1. What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the Earth's surface?

• A. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
• B. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
• C. A photocopy of the station license
• D. All these choices are correct

E3C09

2. What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks?

• A. Magnetic declination
• B. Solar flux
• C. Digital-mode and CW signals
• D. Electric field intensity

E9C14

3. How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally-polarized antenna mounted above a long slope compare with the same antenna mounted above flat ground?

• A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
• B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
• C. The horizontal beamwidth decreases in the downhill direction
• D. The horizontal beamwidth increases in the uphill direction

E8A05

4. What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true-RMS calculating meter?

• A. RMS is measured for both sinusoidal and non-sinusoidal signals
• B. The signal's RMS noise factor is also calculated
• C. The calculated RMS value can be converted directly into phasor form
• D. An inverse Fourier transform can be used

E5D05

5. What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF?

• A. Inductance
• B. Shunt capacitance
• C. Skin effect
• D. Dielectric leakage

E9D10

6. How does radiation resistance of a base-fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency?

• A. Radiation resistance increases
• B. Radiation resistance becomes imaginary
• C. Radiation resistance does not depend on frequency
• D. Radiation resistance decreases

E7G01

7. What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?

• A. 100 ohms
• B. 10,000 ohms
• C. Very low
• D. Very high

E6A10

8. In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

• A. 5
• B. 2
• C. 4
• D. 6

E9F05

9. What is microstrip?

• A. Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
• B. Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies
• C. Miniature coax used for low power applications
• D. Special shielding material designed for microwave frequencies

E6C11

10. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inversion)?

• A. 5
• B. 2
• C. 6
• D. 4

E6B06

11. Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

• A. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
• B. In power supplies as a constant voltage reference
• C. In oscillator circuits as the negative resistance element
• D. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector

E1B07

12. To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

• A. Use of wireless devices in vehicles
• B. State and local zoning
• C. Homeowners associations
• D. FAA tower height limits

E6E02

13. Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

• A. SOT
• B. PLCC
• C. DIP
• D. BGA

E7E03

14. What is a frequency discriminator?

• A. An FM generator circuit
• B. A circuit for detecting FM signals
• C. A circuit for filtering closely adjacent signals
• D. An automatic band-switching circuit

E8B10

15. What is frequency division multiplexing (FDM)?

• A. The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
• B. The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
• C. Dividing the transmitted signal into separate frequency bands that each carry a different data stream
• D. Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter

E9E05

16. What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?

• A. Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)
• B. Purely reactive
• C. Purely resistive
• D. Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)

E2E10

17. Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

• A. MFSK16
• B. 170 Hz shift, 45-baud RTTY
• C. PACTOR IV
• D. FT8

E0A12

18. Where should a shock-absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground?

• A. To the belt of the fall-arrest harness
• B. Even with the climber's waist
• C. To the next lowest set of guys
• D. Above the climber's head level

E4D14

19. What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of -100 dBm represent?

• A. 0.1 microwatt
• B. 100 microwatts
• C. 0.1 picowatts
• D. 0.001 microwatts

E1E05

20. What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

• A. Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
• B. Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
• C. Return the application document to the examinee
• D. Destroy the application form

E4C11

21. Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?

• A. Atmospheric noise is generally greater than internally generated noise even after attenuation
• B. The attenuator has a low-pass filter to increase the strength of lower frequency signals
• C. Signals are attenuated separately from the noise
• D. The attenuator has a noise filter to suppress interference

E9A02

22. What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

• A. 420 watts
• B. 469 watts
• C. 78.7 watts
• D. 286 watts

E5C03

23. Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

• A. A negative 45 degree phase angle
• B. A negative 90 degree phase angle
• C. A positive 90 degree phase angle
• D. A positive 45 degree phase angle

E3B06

24. On which of the following amateur bands is long-path propagation most frequent?

• A. 6 meters and 2 meters
• B. 160 meters and 80 meters
• C. 40 meters and 20 meters
• D. 10 meters and 6 meters

E7F09

25. Why is an anti-aliasing filter required in a decimator?

• A. It removes high-frequency signal components that would otherwise be reproduced as lower frequency components
• B. It peaks the response of the decimator, improving bandwidth
• C. It notches out the sampling frequency to avoid sampling errors
• D. It removes low-frequency signal components to eliminate the need for DC restoration

E2A09

26. What do the terms "L band" and "S band" specify?

• A. Which sideband to use
• B. The 2-meter and 70-centimeter bands
• C. The 23- and 13-centimeter bands
• D. FM and digital store-and-forward systems

E4A10

27. Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply's output ripple?

• A. Line
• B. Edge
• C. Single-shot
• D. Level

E4B10

28. Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

• A. Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
• B. Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
• C. Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
• D. Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer

E2D09

29. What type of modulation is used by JT65?

• A. RTTY
• B. PSK
• C. QAM
• D. Multitone AFSK

E1C07

30. What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630- or 2200-meter bands?

• A. An environmental impact statement must be filed with the Department of the Interior
• B. Operators must inform the FAA of their intent to operate, giving their call sign and distance to the nearest runway
• C. A special endorsement must be requested from the FCC
• D. Operators must inform the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of their call sign and coordinates of the station

E7H03

31. What is a phase-locked loop?

• A. An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
• B. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
• C. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential phase input
• D. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator

E2B10

32. What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

• A. Tone amplitude
• B. Sync amplitude
• C. Sync frequency
• D. Tone frequency

E9G11

33. In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

• A. In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
• B. In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
• C. In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
• D. In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

E6D10

34. What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

• A. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
• B. Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
• C. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
• D. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components

E2C04

35. Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks?

• A. HF frequencies where digital communications are permitted
• B. Cable TV channels 41-43
• C. The 60-meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
• D. Frequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services

E7C05

36. Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

• A. A Butterworth filter
• B. A passive op-amp filter
• C. A Chebyshev filter
• D. An active LC filter

E7B12

37. What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

• A. Common collector
• B. Emitter follower
• C. Common emitter
• D. Common base

E1A04

38. May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone?

• A. No, the sideband components will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
• B. Yes, the entire signal will be inside the SSB allocation for Extra class operators
• C. No, US stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
• D. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 75-meter phone band segment

E9H10

39. How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

• A. By utilizing high impedance wire for the coupling loop
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
• D. By increasing the number of turns and/or the area enclosed by the loop

E7D04

40. Which of the following describes a three-terminal voltage regulator?

• A. A shunt current source
• B. A shunt regulator
• C. A series regulator
• D. A series current source

E1F09

41. Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network?

• A. Third party traffic
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Email
• D. Messages encoded to obscure their meaning

E7A09

42. What logical operation is performed by a two-input exclusive NOR gate?

• A. It produces a 1 at its output if one and only one input is 1
• B. It produces a 1 at its output only if all inputs are 1
• C. It produces a 0 at its output if one and only one of its inputs is 1
• D. It produces a 0 at its output only if all inputs are 0

E4E04

43. How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed?

• A. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the antenna feed line
• B. By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor at the battery
• C. By installing filter capacitors in series with the alternator leads
• D. By installing ferrite chokes on the charging system leads

E8D11

44. What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?

• A. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
• B. It is possible to transmit both uppercase and lowercase text
• C. It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters
• D. It includes built-in error correction features

E8C07

45. What is the bandwidth of a 4,800-Hz frequency shift, 9,600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

• A. 15.36 kHz
• B. 9.6 kHz
• C. 4.8 kHz
• D. 5.76 kHz

E9B11

46. What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?

• A. The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
• B. The antenna will become mechanically unstable
• C. The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
• D. Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled

E6F06

47. Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Crystalline semiconductor
• C. Polyphenol acetate
• D. Argon

E5B08

48. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms?

• A. 27 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• B. 63 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• C. 27 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• D. 63 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E3A13

49. Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

• A. CW
• B. SSB
• C. RTTY
• D. FM

E5A11

50. What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

• A. 315.6 Hz
• B. 23.67 kHz
• C. 157.8 Hz
• D. 47.3 kHz