Practice Exam

E6E08

1. How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

• A. Directly to the bias voltage (Vcc) lead
• B. MMICs require no operating bias
• C. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
• D. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead

E2B01

2. In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

• A. 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval
• B. Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
• C. Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel
• D. 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data

E5C12

3. Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

• A. Point 8
• B. Point 7
• C. Point 1
• D. Point 3

E8D06

4. What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

• A. Signal-to-noise ratio is improved
• B. Some types of errors can be detected
• C. A larger character set is available
• D. Faster transmission rate

E9C10

5. Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

• A. An end-fed half-wavelength dipole
• B. An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
• C. A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
• D. A horizontal array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines

E5B02

6. What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

• A. G
• B. Y
• C. X
• D. B

E7H04

7. How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

• A. Through a neutralizing capacitor
• B. Through link coupling
• C. Through a capacitive divider
• D. Through a tapped coil

E7B05

8. What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

• A. Use a phase inverter in the output filter
• B. Tune the stage for minimum loading
• C. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
• D. Tune both the input and output for maximum power

E1C03

9. How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200-meter or 630-meter band?

• A. Operators must not operate until approval is received
• B. Operators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company
• C. Operators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 kilometer of PLC systems using those frequencies
• D. Operations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC

E4D08

10. What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

• A. Negative feedback
• B. Nonlinear circuits or devices
• C. Positive feedback
• D. Lack of neutralization

E1F01

11. On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

• A. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
• B. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
• C. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
• D. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz

E4E01

12. What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

• A. Excessive ringing
• B. Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal

E6D02

13. What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

• A. Parallel RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
• B. Parallel RLC, where C is the series combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
• C. Series RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
• D. Series RLC in parallel with a shunt C representing electrode and stray capacitance

E6F10

14. What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells?

• A. Silicon
• B. Indium arsenide
• C. Cadmium sulfide
• D. Selenium

E1A10

15. If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

• A. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
• B. The amateur station must operate only in specific segments of the amateur service HF and VHF bands
• C. The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
• D. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft

E4A01

16. Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Sampling rate of the analog-to-digital converter
• C. Q of the circuit
• D. Analog-to-digital converter reference frequency

E5A01

17. What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire circuit?

• A. Resonance
• B. Low quality factor (Q)
• C. Resistance
• D. Capacitance

E7E11

18. Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?

• A. Phase comparator
• B. Phase detector
• C. Product detector
• D. Discriminator

E6C10

19. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

• A. 4
• B. 1
• C. 2
• D. 3

E7F13

20. What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

• A. To reduce excess signal pressure levels
• B. Select the point at which baseband signals are generated
• C. Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
• D. Provide access for debugging software

E0A08

21. What does SAR measure?

• A. The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
• B. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
• C. Signal attenuation ratio
• D. Signal amplification rating

E5D03

22. What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power?

• A. They are in phase
• B. They are 45 degrees out of phase
• C. They are 90 degrees out of phase
• D. They are out of phase

E2A09

23. What do the terms "L band" and "S band" specify?

• A. The 23- and 13-centimeter bands
• B. The 2-meter and 70-centimeter bands
• C. FM and digital store-and-forward systems
• D. Which sideband to use

E7A03

24. Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

• A. A multiplexer
• B. An XOR gate
• C. An OR gate
• D. A flip-flop

E2E13

25. Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

• A. FT8
• B. MFSK16
• C. 170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
• D. PACTOR IV

E1D10

26. Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
• C. Any amateur station approved by AMSAT
• D. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee

E1B07

27. To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

• A. FAA tower height limits
• B. Homeowners associations
• C. State and local zoning
• D. Use of wireless devices in vehicles

E7G08

28. How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

• A. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
• B. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
• C. It does not vary with frequency
• D. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency

E8A11

29. Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter?

• A. Power factor
• B. Total harmonic distortion
• C. Reciprocal mixing
• D. Peak envelope power

E8C01

30. What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM?

• A. A technique for analog modulation of television video signals using phase modulation and compression
• B. A method of performing single sideband modulation by shifting the phase of the carrier and modulation components of the signal
• C. Transmission of data by modulating the amplitude of two carriers of the same frequency but 90 degrees out of phase
• D. A technique for digital data compression used in digital television which removes redundancy in the data by comparing bit amplitudes

E4C07

31. What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

• A. The meter display sensitivity
• B. The maximum detectable spectrum
• C. The modulation distortion specification
• D. The minimum discernible signal

E1E04

32. What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner?

• A. A VEC must confirm that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
• B. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
• C. The prospective VE must obtain accreditation from the FCC
• D. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

E8B04

33. What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the highest modulating frequency is 2 kHz?

• A. 0.6
• B. 3
• C. 6
• D. 0.3

E3B07

34. What effect does lowering a signal's transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propagation?

• A. Faraday rotation becomes stronger
• B. The critical frequency increases
• C. The distance covered by each hop increases
• D. The MUF decreases

E2D03

35. Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications?

• A. Q65
• B. WSPR
• C. PACTOR III
• D. MSK144

E7D08

36. What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?

• A. Switching voltage regulator
• B. Common emitter amplifier
• C. Common base amplifier
• D. Linear voltage regulator

E9D06

37. What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?

• A. It is decreased
• B. It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at a voltage maximum point
• C. It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at the feed point
• D. It is increased

E9A04

38. Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

• A. Transmission line length
• B. Antenna height
• C. The input power level
• D. The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter

E2C10

39. Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies?

• A. To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
• D. To separate the calling stations from the DX station

E6A08

40. What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

• A. Beta cutoff frequency
• B. Corner frequency
• C. Alpha rejection frequency
• D. Alpha cutoff frequency

E9H10

41. How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

• A. By increasing the number of turns and/or the area enclosed by the loop
• B. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
• C. By utilizing high impedance wire for the coupling loop
• D. All these choices are correct

E7C06

42. What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter?

• A. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop-band ripple
• B. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
• C. Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop-band corners
• D. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop-band ripple

E3C08

43. Which of the following is the space-weather term for an extreme geomagnetic storm?

• A. X5
• B. M9
• C. G5
• D. B9

E3A07

44. Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

• A. Stratocumulus clouds
• B. Mountain ranges
• C. Large bodies of water
• D. Nimbus clouds

E9G10

45. What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

• A. SWR
• B. Frequency
• C. Points with constant resistance
• D. Points with constant reactance

E4B01

46. Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

• A. Input attenuator accuracy
• B. Time base accuracy
• C. Decade divider accuracy
• D. Temperature coefficient of the logic

E9B03

47. What is the front-to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

• A. 24 dB
• B. 18 dB
• C. 12 dB
• D. 14 dB

E9F01

48. What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

• A. The ratio of its characteristic impedance to its termination impedance
• B. The velocity of a wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
• C. The velocity of a wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
• D. The ratio of its termination impedance to its characteristic impedance

E6B07

49. What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current?

• A. Insufficient forward voltage
• B. Excessive junction temperature
• C. Excessive inverse voltage
• D. Charge carrier depletion

E9E08

50. What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?

• A. To divide the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
• B. To divide the frequency of the input to a counter to increase its frequency range
• C. To feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
• D. To divide power equally between two 50-ohm loads while maintaining 50-ohm input impedance