Practice Exam

E2E11

1. What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

• A. Direct FSK can transmit higher baud rates
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Direct FSK modulates the transmitter VFO
• D. Direct FSK occupies less bandwidth

E1D01

2. What is the definition of telemetry?

• A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
• B. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
• C. Two-way transmissions of data
• D. Two-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet

E6C03

3. What is tri-state logic?

• A. Logic devices with 0, 1, and high-impedance output states
• B. Logic devices that utilize ternary math
• C. A counter with eight states
• D. Logic with three output impedances which can be selected to better match the load impedance

E8B09

4. What is deviation ratio?

• A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
• B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
• C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
• D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency

E7G04

5. What is meant by the term "op-amp input offset voltage"?

• A. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
• B. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
• C. The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
• D. The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero

E1C12

6. In what portion of the 630-meter band are phone emissions permitted?

• A. None
• B. The entire band
• C. Only the bottom 3 kHz
• D. Only the top 3 kHz

E4D11

7. Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

• A. Odd-order products are more likely to overload the IF filters
• B. Odd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
• C. Odd-order products of two signals in the band being received are also likely to be within the band
• D. Odd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection

E2A03

8. How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder?

• A. The signal is reduced to I and Q components, and the Q component is filtered out
• B. The signal is mixed with a local oscillator signal and the difference product is transmitted
• C. The signal is passed through a nonlinear filter
• D. The signal is detected and remodulated on the reverse sideband

E1B05

9. What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

• A. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
• B. An area surrounding the FCC monitoring station in Laurel, Maryland
• C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
• D. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area

E1F08

10. Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

• A. Communications that have religious content
• B. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
• C. Communications in a language other than English
• D. Communications that have political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine

E7B07

11. Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

• A. Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
• B. Increased overall intelligibility
• C. Reduced intermodulation products
• D. Reduced third-order intermodulation

E6D09

12. What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?

• A. Electrolytic capacitors
• B. Steel-core toroids
• C. Butterworth filters
• D. Ferrite beads

E9E09

13. Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base?

• A. Gamma match
• B. Double-bazooka match
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Beta or hairpin match

E6A02

14. Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

• A. Insulated gate
• B. N-type
• C. Bipolar
• D. P-type

E0A10

15. When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters?

• A. When the ERP of the station is less than 10 watts
• B. When the output power from the transmitter is less than 100 watts
• C. An evaluation must always be performed
• D. When the station's operating mode is CW

E3B08

16. How does the maximum range of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

• A. It increases
• B. It stays the same
• C. It decreases
• D. It peaks at roughly 8 MHz

E8C12

17. What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. IF bandwidth and Q
• C. Modulation index and output power
• D. Keying speed and shape factor (rise and fall time)

E9D11

18. Why do most two-element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director?

• A. Higher gain
• B. Lower SWR
• C. Greater front-to-side
• D. Higher receiving directivity factor

E5C02

19. How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

• A. By Y and G values
• B. By magnitude and phase angle
• C. By real and imaginary parts
• D. By X and R values

E2C01

20. What indicator is required to be used by US-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the US?

• A. /R# where # is the district of the remote station
• B. No additional indicator is required
• C. / followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station
• D. / followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located

E6E03

21. Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

• A. Gallium nitride
• B. Silicon
• C. Silicon nitride
• D. Silicon dioxide

E4E09

22. What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker?

• A. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
• B. Strong signals may be distorted and appear to cause spurious emissions
• C. FM signals can no longer be demodulated
• D. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed

E7F14

23. Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

• A. More taps
• B. Double-precision math routines
• C. Lower Q
• D. Higher data rate

E5D07

24. What combines to create the self-resonance of a component?

• A. The component's electrical length and impedance
• B. The component's nominal and parasitic reactance
• C. The component's resistance and reactance
• D. The component's inductance and capacitance

E7A11

25. What does "positive logic" mean in reference to logic devices?

• A. The logic circuit is in the "true" condition
• B. 1s and 0s are defined as different positive voltage levels
• C. High voltage represents a 1, low voltage a 0
• D. The logic devices have high noise immunity

E7D03

26. What device is used as a stable voltage reference?

• A. An analog-to-digital converter
• B. A digital-to-analog converter
• C. An SCR
• D. A Zener diode

E4A05

27. What is the purpose of using a prescaler with a frequency counter?

• A. Reduce the signal frequency to within the counter's operating range
• B. Amplify low-level signals for more accurate counting
• C. Prevent oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
• D. Multiply a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency

E6F05

28. Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

• A. An optical computing device in which light is coupled between devices by fiber optics
• B. A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog-to-digital conversion
• C. A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
• D. A device that detects rotation by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel

E2B08

29. What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70- centimeter band?

• A. Transmitting on channels shared with cable TV
• B. Using converted satellite TV dishes
• C. Transmitting on the abandoned TV channel 2
• D. Using USB and demodulating the signal with a computer sound card

E9G07

30. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

• A. The current axis
• B. The reactance axis
• C. The voltage axis
• D. The resistance axis

E5B03

31. How is impedance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance?

• A. Take the square root of the magnitude and add 180 degrees to the angle
• B. Take the reciprocal of the angle and change the sign of the magnitude
• C. Take the reciprocal of the magnitude and change the sign of the angle
• D. Square the magnitude and subtract 90 degrees from the angle

E9A11

32. Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating on HF?

• A. Take-off angle
• B. The standing wave ratio
• C. Distance from the transmitter
• D. Soil conductivity

E3A01

33. What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by EME?

• A. 2,000 miles, if the moon is at apogee
• B. 5,000 miles, if the moon is at perigee
• C. 2,000 miles, if the moon is at perigee
• D. 12,000 miles, if the moon is "visible" by both stations

E8A02

34. Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion?

• A. Successive approximation
• B. Level shifting
• C. Harmonic regeneration
• D. Phase reversal

E8D05

35. What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

• A. Insert high-pass filters at the transmitter output
• B. Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
• C. Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
• D. Insert low-pass filters at the transmitter output

E7C10

36. Which of the following filters is used in a 2-meter band repeater duplexer?

• A. A cavity filter
• B. A crystal filter
• C. A DSP filter
• D. An L-C filter

E7H12

37. Which of the following ensures that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

• A. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
• B. Bias the crystal at a specified current
• C. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
• D. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage

E1A04

38. May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone?

• A. No, the sideband components will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
• B. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 75-meter phone band segment
• C. Yes, the entire signal will be inside the SSB allocation for Extra class operators
• D. No, US stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz

E9B06

39. What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 75 degrees
• B. 25 degrees
• C. 45 degrees
• D. 7.5 degrees

E9H05

40. What challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

• A. It has a bidirectional null pattern
• B. It does not have a clearly defined null
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands

E2D11

41. How do APRS stations relay data?

• A. By C4FM repeaters
• B. By DMR repeaters
• C. By packet ACK/NAK relay
• D. By packet digipeaters

E7E07

42. What is meant by the term "baseband" in radio communications?

• A. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
• B. The frequency range occupied by a message signal prior to modulation
• C. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
• D. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal

E9F08

43. Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

• A. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower safe maximum operating voltage
• B. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower loss per unit of length
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has higher velocity factor

E3C06

44. How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon?

• A. It is approximately 20 percent nearer
• B. It is approximately 50 percent farther
• C. It is approximately 15 percent farther
• D. They are approximately the same

E6B09

45. What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

• A. As an RF detector
• B. As a constant current source
• C. As a constant voltage source
• D. As a high-voltage rectifier

E5A10

46. What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 10 picofarads?

• A. 7.12 MHz
• B. 23.5 MHz
• C. 23.5 kHz
• D. 7.12 kHz

E4C11

47. Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?

• A. The attenuator has a low-pass filter to increase the strength of lower frequency signals
• B. Signals are attenuated separately from the noise
• C. Atmospheric noise is generally greater than internally generated noise even after attenuation
• D. The attenuator has a noise filter to suppress interference

E9C06

48. What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long-wire antenna?

• A. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
• B. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
• C. It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
• D. It decreases the ground loss

E4B06

49. How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

• A. 75 watts
• B. 100 watts
• C. 112.5 watts
• D. 125 watts

E1E06

50. Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

• A. Each administering VE
• B. Only the VE session manager
• C. The designated monitoring VE
• D. The VEC coordinating the session