Practice Exam

E2C02

1. Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data?

• A. NEC
• B. ARLD
• C. OCF
• D. ADIF

E4D06

2. What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

• A. Reciprocal mixing
• B. Desensitization
• C. Cross modulation interference
• D. Quieting

E9D02

3. How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

• A. Arrange two Yagis on the same axis and perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
• B. Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
• C. Stack two Yagis to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes fed in phase
• D. Stack two Yagis to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes fed 90 degrees out of phase

E7F07

4. What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform?

• A. Converting signals from the time domain to the frequency domain
• B. Converting signals from the frequency domain to the time domain
• C. Converting digital signals to analog form
• D. Converting analog signals to digital form

E7G05

5. How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp audio filter?

• A. Restrict Q but increase gain
• B. Increase both gain and Q
• C. Restrict both gain and Q
• D. Restrict gain but increase Q

E5A05

6. What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?

• A. Losses increase
• B. Matching bandwidth is decreased
• C. Harmonics increase
• D. Matching bandwidth is increased

E2A02

7. Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder?

• A. Upper sideband on the uplink becomes lower sideband on the downlink, and vice versa
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Doppler shift is reduced because the uplink and downlink shifts are in opposite directions
• D. Signal position in the band is reversed

E9G07

8. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

• A. The resistance axis
• B. The voltage axis
• C. The current axis
• D. The reactance axis

E7A06

9. What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

• A. It switches temporarily to an alternate state for a set time
• B. It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
• C. It stores one bit of data
• D. It produces a continuous square wave

E6E07

10. What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMICs?

• A. Microstrip
• B. Parallel wire
• C. Miniature coax
• D. Circular waveguide

E1C02

11. Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. All transmissions must be in English
• C. Communications must be limited to those incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
• D. Third party traffic must be limited to that intended for the exclusive use of government and non-Government Organization (NGOs) involved in emergency relief activities

E6F04

12. What is the photovoltaic effect?

• A. The effect that causes a phototransistor's beta to decrease when exposed to light
• B. The conversion of light to electrical energy
• C. The effect that causes a photodiode to emit light when a voltage is applied
• D. The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light

E6A03

13. Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

• A. Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
• B. Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
• C. Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
• D. Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current

E6D01

14. What is piezoelectricity?

• A. A characteristic of materials that have an index of refraction which depends on the polarization of the electromagnetic wave passing through it
• B. The ability of materials to generate electromagnetic waves of a certain frequency when voltage is applied
• C. A characteristic of materials that generate a voltage when stressed and that flex when a voltage is applied
• D. The ability of materials to generate voltage when an electromagnetic wave of a certain frequency is applied

E1E04

15. What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner?

• A. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
• B. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
• C. A VEC must confirm that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
• D. The prospective VE must obtain accreditation from the FCC

E7B10

16. In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

• A. Load resistors
• B. Self bias
• C. Feedback
• D. Voltage divider bias

E9C02

17. What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4- wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

• A. Cardioid
• B. Omni-directional
• C. A figure-eight end-fire along the axis of the array
• D. A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array

E1D05

18. What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the Earth's surface?

• A. A photocopy of the station license
• B. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator

E3A06

19. What should be done to continue a long-distance contact when the MUF for that path decreases due to darkness?

• A. Switch to a lower frequency HF band
• B. Change to an antenna with greater beam width
• C. Change to an antenna with a higher takeoff angle
• D. Switch to a higher frequency HF band

E4A04

20. How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed?

• A. A DC voltage standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
• B. A high frequency sine wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
• C. A frequency standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
• D. A square wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible

E2E01

21. Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz?

• A. FSK
• B. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
• C. Pulse modulation
• D. Spread spectrum

E5C08

22. What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance?

• A. Faraday grid
• B. Polar coordinates
• C. Elliptical coordinates
• D. Maidenhead grid

E8D07

23. What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

• A. Excessive transmit audio levels
• B. Bit errors in the modem
• C. Excessive numbers of retries
• D. Excessive frequency deviation

E7E08

24. What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer?

• A. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
• B. The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
• C. The square root of the product of input frequencies
• D. Two and four times the input frequency

E9E06

25. Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm transmission line?

• A. 90 ohms
• B. 62 ohms
• C. 50 ohms
• D. 75 ohms

E2B07

26. Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB-T signals?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. AM and OOK
• C. QAM and QPSK
• D. FM and FSK

E8B07

27. Orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication?

• A. Extremely low-power contacts
• B. Digital modes
• C. OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
• D. EME

E1A07

28. What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200-meter band?

• A. 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• B. 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• C. 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• D. 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)

E8C12

29. What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal?

• A. Modulation index and output power
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. IF bandwidth and Q
• D. Keying speed and shape factor (rise and fall time)

E6C02

30. What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold voltage?

• A. The reference level appears at the output
• B. The feedback loop becomes unstable
• C. The IC input can be damaged
• D. The comparator changes its output state

E9F04

31. What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. Very high impedance
• B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• C. The same as the output impedance of the RF generator
• D. Very low impedance

E4E13

32. Where should a station AC surge protector be installed?

• A. At the AC service panel
• B. On a ground rod outside the station
• C. At an AC outlet
• D. On the single point ground panel

E9H07

33. What is the function of a Beverage antenna's termination resistor?

• A. Increase the front-to-side ratio
• B. Absorb signals from the reverse direction
• C. Decrease SWR bandwidth
• D. Eliminate harmonic reception

E1F06

34. Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

• A. To provide for experimental amateur communications
• B. To allow use of a special event call sign
• C. To allow a licensee who has passed an upgrade exam to operate with upgraded privileges while waiting for posting on the FCC database
• D. To allow a VE group with less than three VEs to administer examinations in a remote, sparsely populated area

E4B03

35. Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

• A. S11
• B. S21
• C. S22
• D. S12

E8A04

36. What is "dither" with respect to analog-to-digital converters?

• A. A method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
• B. A small amount of noise added to the input signal to reduce quantization noise
• C. An abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal
• D. An error caused by irregular quantization step size

E5B04

37. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

• A. 440 seconds
• B. 55 seconds
• C. 110 seconds
• D. 220 seconds

E7D02

38. How does a switchmode voltage regulator work?

• A. By varying the conductivity of a pass element
• B. By switching between two Zener diode reference voltages
• C. By varying the duty cycle of pulses input to a filter
• D. By alternating the output between positive and negative voltages

E3C05

39. What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charged particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

• A. Eastward
• B. Southward
• C. Westward
• D. Northward

E3B02

40. What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

• A. 7,500 miles
• B. 2,500 miles
• C. 5,000 miles
• D. 1,000 miles

E9A06

41. What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

• A. 2,000 watts
• B. 126 watts
• C. 300 watts
• D. 317 watts

E9B06

42. What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 45 degrees
• B. 25 degrees
• C. 75 degrees
• D. 7.5 degrees

E5D11

43. How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

• A. 70.7 watts
• B. 200 watts
• C. 141.4 watts
• D. 100 watts

E4C13

44. What is reciprocal mixing?

• A. In-phase signals cancelling in a mixer resulting in loss of receiver sensitivity
• B. Two out-of-band signals mixing to generate an in-band spurious signal
• C. Two digital signals combining from alternate time slots
• D. Local oscillator phase noise mixing with adjacent strong signals to create interference to desired signals

E0A12

45. Where should a shock-absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground?

• A. To the next lowest set of guys
• B. Even with the climber's waist
• C. To the belt of the fall-arrest harness
• D. Above the climber's head level

E7C08

46. Which of the following is most frequently used as a band-pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers?

• A. A swinging choke filter
• B. A helical filter
• C. A Sallen-Key filter
• D. A finite impulse response filter

E2D08

47. What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

• A. Unnumbered Information
• B. Acknowledgement
• C. Burst
• D. Connect

E7H12

48. Which of the following ensures that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

• A. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
• B. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
• C. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
• D. Bias the crystal at a specified current

E6B09

49. What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

• A. As a constant voltage source
• B. As a constant current source
• C. As a high-voltage rectifier
• D. As an RF detector

E1B11

50. What does PRB-1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures?

• A. Such structures must be permitted when use for emergency communications can be demonstrated
• B. Such structures must be permitted if certified by a registered professional engineer
• C. Reasonable accommodations of amateur radio must be made
• D. No limitations may be placed on antenna size or placement