Practice Exam

G9D04

1. What is the primary function of antenna traps?

• A. To notch spurious frequencies
• B. To prevent out-of-band operation
• C. To enable multiband operation
• D. To provide balanced feed point impedance

G5B14

2. What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

• A. 8.75 watts
• B. 625 watts
• C. 2500 watts
• D. 5000 watts

G5C03

3. What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

• A. 0.17 ohms
• B. 80 ohms
• C. 5.9 ohms
• D. 17 ohms

G6B04

4. What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

• A. 50 MHz
• B. 40 GHz
• C. 500 MHz
• D. 4 GHz

G3A04

5. Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

• A. 30 meters and 20 meters
• B. 80 meters and 160 meters
• C. 60 meters and 40 meters
• D. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

G8A10

6. What is meant by the term "flat-topping," when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

• A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
• B. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
• C. The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
• D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed

G9C08

7. What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

• A. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
• B. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
• C. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
• D. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element

G7C04

8. How is a product detector used?

• A. Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
• B. Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
• C. Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
• D. Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

G2A11

9. Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling "CQ DX"?

• A. Only contest stations
• B. Only stations in Germany
• C. Any stations outside the lower 48 states
• D. Any caller is welcome to respond

G1C01

10. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 2000 watts PEP output
• B. 1000 watts PEP output
• C. 1500 watts PEP output
• D. 200 watts PEP output

G4A07

11. What happens as a receiver's noise reduction control level is increased?

• A. Received frequency may become unstable
• B. CW signals may become severely attenuated
• C. Received frequency may shift several kHz
• D. Received signals may become distorted

G4C06

12. What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

• A. A ground loop
• B. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
• C. Corrosion of the ground rod
• D. Overheating of ground straps

G9B07

13. How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

• A. It steadily decreases
• B. It is unaffected by the height above ground
• C. It steadily increases
• D. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

G9A10

14. What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

• A. 1:5
• B. 5:1
• C. 1:2
• D. 2:1

G1B01

15. What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

• A. 50 feet
• B. 100 feet
• C. 250 feet
• D. 200 feet

G0A05

16. What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

• A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
• B. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
• C. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
• D. All these choices are correct

G2D03

17. What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

• A. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
• D. Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

G2C08

18. What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

• A. BK
• B. SK
• C. KN
• D. AR

G4B01

19. What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

• A. An ohmmeter
• B. An oscilloscope
• C. A signal generator
• D. An ammeter

G4E11

20. What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

• A. Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
• B. The solar panel must have a charge controller
• C. A series resistor must be in place
• D. Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

G0B05

21. Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

• A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
• B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
• C. Overvoltage on the hot wires
• D. All these choices are correct

G4D03

22. What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Excessive background noise
• C. Excess intermodulation products
• D. Distorted speech

G1E11

23. On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

• A. Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
• B. On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
• C. Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
• D. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

G5A09

24. What unit is used to measure reactance?

• A. Ohm
• B. Siemens
• C. Farad
• D. Ampere

G8B13

25. Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

• A. 2F1-F2
• B. 5F1-3F2
• C. 3F1-F2
• D. All these choices are correct

G2E11

26. What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

• A. To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
• B. To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
• C. To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
• D. To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event

G6A06

27. Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

• A. The resistor could overheat
• B. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit
• C. The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
• D. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate

G7A02

28. Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Diodes
• C. Capacitors and inductors
• D. Transformers and transducers

G2B02

29. What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

• A. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
• B. Inform your local emergency coordinator
• C. Immediately cease all transmissions
• D. Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

G1D10

30. What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

• A. 16 years
• B. There is no age limit
• C. 18 years
• D. 21 years

G3B02

31. What factors affect the MUF?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Time of day and season
• C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
• D. Path distance and location

G8C06

32. What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

• A. The connection is dropped
• B. The checksum overflows
• C. Encoding reverts to the default character set
• D. Packets will be routed incorrectly

G1A10

33. What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

• A. The entire band
• B. The portion above 29.5 MHz
• C. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
• D. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

G3C09

34. What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?

• A. Chordal hop
• B. Faraday rotation
• C. Scatter
• D. Short-path

G7B10

35. Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

• A. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
• B. A Class C high efficiency amplifier
• C. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
• D. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver