Practice Exam

G4B12

1. What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

• A. Received power that interferes with SWR readings
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
• D. Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings

G7B01

2. What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

• A. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
• B. To limit the modulation index
• C. To keep the carrier on frequency
• D. To eliminate self-oscillations

G1E12

3. When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

• A. Under no circumstances except for emergencies
• B. Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
• C. Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
• D. Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs

G4D05

4. How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

• A. It is 20 times more powerful
• B. It is 20 times less powerful
• C. It is 10 times less powerful
• D. It is 100 times more powerful

G9A06

5. In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

• A. Decibels per 1,000 feet
• B. Ohms per 1,000 feet
• C. Decibels per 100 feet
• D. Ohms per 100 feet

G8C14

6. Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

• A. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
• B. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
• C. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
• D. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

G9B02

7. Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

• A. Slope the radials upward
• B. Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
• C. Coil the radials
• D. Slope the radials downward

G0A06

8. What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

• A. Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
• B. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
• C. Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
• D. Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

G5B06

9. What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

• A. 100 watts
• B. 1.4 watts
• C. 353.5 watts
• D. 400 watts

G4C09

10. How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

• A. Connect all ground conductors in series
• B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
• C. Bond equipment enclosures together
• D. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

G0B09

11. Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
• C. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
• D. The generator must be insulated from ground

G1C06

12. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

• A. 1500 watts PEP output
• B. 1000 watts PEP output
• C. 1200 watts PEP output
• D. 200 watts PEP output

G9D09

13. What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

• A. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
• B. Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
• C. Directional transmitting for low HF bands
• D. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies

G4E06

14. What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

• A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
• B. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
• C. Q of the antenna will be very low
• D. Harmonic radiation may increase

G2C05

15. What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

• A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
• B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
• C. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
• D. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

G4A04

16. What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier's TUNE control?

• A. A pronounced dip
• B. A slow, rhythmic oscillation
• C. No change will be observed
• D. A pronounced peak

G1B06

17. Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

• A. Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
• B. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
• C. At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
• D. Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

G8B07

18. What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

• A. 416.7 Hz
• B. 60 kHz
• C. 5 kHz
• D. 101.75 Hz

G3C06

19. What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

• A. There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
• B. Signals have a fluttering sound
• C. Phone signals have high intelligibility
• D. Scatter propagation occurs only at night

G6B05

20. What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

• A. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
• B. Large values of inductance may be obtained
• C. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
• D. All these choices are correct

G7A05

21. What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

• A. 360 degrees
• B. 180 degrees
• C. 90 degrees
• D. 270 degrees

G5C03

22. What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

• A. 5.9 ohms
• B. 17 ohms
• C. 0.17 ohms
• D. 80 ohms

G7C01

23. What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

• A. Carrier oscillator
• B. RF amplifier
• C. IF amplifier
• D. Filter

G5A12

24. What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

• A. Resistance is cancelled
• B. Current and voltage are equal
• C. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
• D. The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves

G1A10

25. What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

• A. The entire band
• B. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
• C. The portion above 29.5 MHz
• D. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

G6A11

26. What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

• A. Catastrophic failure is likely
• B. Harmonics are generated
• C. Its reactance increases
• D. It becomes capacitive

G3A07

27. At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

• A. Only at the maximum point
• B. At any point
• C. At the summer solstice
• D. Only at the minimum point

G2A07

28. Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

• A. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
• B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
• C. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
• D. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands

G8A06

29. Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Its encoding provides error correction
• C. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
• D. It is sideband sensitive

G2E09

30. How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

• A. Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
• B. Send a NAK code
• C. Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
• D. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

G9C10

31. Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

• A. The spacing of each element along the boom
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The number of elements on the boom
• D. The physical length of the boom

G1D11

32. What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

• A. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
• B. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
• C. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
• D. Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated

G2B07

33. Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

• A. Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
• B. Follow the voluntary band plan
• C. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
• D. All these choices are correct

G3B06

34. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

• A. They are attenuated before reaching the destination
• B. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
• C. They pass through the ionosphere
• D. They are refracted back to Earth

G2D05

35. Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

• A. Say "QTC" followed by "this is" and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
• B. Repeat "CQ" a few times, followed by "this is," then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
• C. Sign your call sign once, followed by the words "listening for a call" -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
• D. Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by "this is" and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary