Practice Exam

G1B02

1. With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

• A. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
• B. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
• C. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
• D. All these choices are correct

G5C01

2. What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

• A. Mutual capacitance
• B. Displacement current coupling
• C. Capacitive coupling
• D. Mutual inductance

G1E05

3. What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

• A. They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
• B. The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
• C. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
• D. They must be for other licensed amateurs

G3B06

4. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

• A. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
• B. They pass through the ionosphere
• C. They are attenuated before reaching the destination
• D. They are refracted back to Earth

G2E01

5. Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

• A. DSB
• B. LSB
• C. CW
• D. USB

G8A05

6. What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

• A. Power modulation
• B. Phase modulation
• C. Frequency modulation
• D. Amplitude modulation

G8C10

7. How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

• A. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
• B. By using the Varicode character set
• C. By transmitting redundant information with the data
• D. By using a parity bit with each character

G7C10

8. What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

• A. Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
• B. Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
• C. The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
• D. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing

G4D01

9. What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

• A. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
• B. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
• C. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
• D. Prevent distortion of voice signals

G4C03

10. What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

• A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
• B. Clearly audible speech
• C. On-and-off humming or clicking
• D. Distorted speech

G1C02

11. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

• A. 50 watts PEP output
• B. An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
• C. 1500 watts PEP output
• D. 200 watts PEP output

G8B10

12. What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

• A. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• B. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
• C. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
• D. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

G4A13

13. What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

• A. To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
• B. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
• C. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
• D. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier

G5B08

14. What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

• A. 240.0 volts
• B. 84.8 volts
• C. 169.7 volts
• D. 339.4 volts

G2A04

15. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

• A. Double sideband
• B. Upper sideband
• C. Suppressed sideband
• D. Lower sideband

G7B04

16. In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

• A. More than 50% but less than 100%
• B. 100%
• C. Less than 50%
• D. 50%

G3C10

17. What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

• A. Propagation near the MUF
• B. Double hop propagation near the LUF
• C. Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
• D. Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

G7A10

18. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

• A. Symbol 5
• B. Symbol 11
• C. Symbol 1
• D. Symbol 4

G6B04

19. What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

• A. 50 MHz
• B. 40 GHz
• C. 4 GHz
• D. 500 MHz

G1A06

20. Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

• A. Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
• B. Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
• C. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
• D. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

G6A02

21. What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

• A. High voltage
• B. Rapid recharge
• C. Long life
• D. High discharge current

G0A10

22. What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

• A. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
• D. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present

G5A09

23. What unit is used to measure reactance?

• A. Farad
• B. Siemens
• C. Ampere
• D. Ohm

G9B03

24. Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

• A. Bi-directional in azimuth
• B. Hemispherical
• C. Omnidirectional in azimuth
• D. Isotropic

G4B05

25. Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

• A. It improves the frequency response
• B. It improves the resolution of the readings
• C. It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
• D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

G2D09

26. Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
• C. Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
• D. Submit a log to the contest sponsor

G3A08

27. How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

• A. Improve high-latitude HF propagation
• B. Improve ground wave propagation
• C. Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
• D. Degrade ground wave propagation

G4E02

28. What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

• A. To increase the "Q" of the antenna
• B. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
• C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
• D. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting

G9A02

29. What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

• A. There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
• B. High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
• C. High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
• D. High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss

G0B07

30. Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

• A. Always hold on to the tower with one hand
• B. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
• C. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
• D. All these choices are correct

G9D01

31. Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

• A. A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
• B. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
• C. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
• D. A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

G9C07

32. What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

• A. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
• B. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
• C. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
• D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

G2C11

33. What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

• A. You are sending too fast
• B. I am quitting for the day
• C. I am ready to receive
• D. There is interference on the frequency

G1D10

34. What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

• A. 16 years
• B. 21 years
• C. 18 years
• D. There is no age limit

G2B04

35. When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• C. 3 kHz to 6 kHz
• D. 1 kHz to 3 kHz