Practice Exam

G2C07

1. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

• A. Chirpy or unstable signal
• B. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
• C. Key clicks
• D. 100 percent copy

G5B09

2. What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

• A. 34 volts
• B. 24 volts
• C. 12 volts
• D. 8.5 volts

G6B02

3. What is meant by the term MMIC?

• A. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
• B. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
• C. Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
• D. Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit

G9B02

4. Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

• A. Slope the radials downward
• B. Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
• C. Slope the radials upward
• D. Coil the radials

G3B11

5. What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

• A. Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
• B. Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
• C. HF communications over the path are enhanced
• D. Double-hop propagation along the path is more common

G5A03

6. Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

• A. Conductance
• B. Admittance
• C. Reactance
• D. Reluctance

G5C06

7. What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

• A. 360 volts
• B. 40 volts
• C. 120 volts
• D. 25.5 volts

G3C10

8. What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

• A. Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
• B. Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
• C. Propagation near the MUF
• D. Double hop propagation near the LUF

G4D04

9. What does an S meter measure?

• A. Carrier suppression
• B. Transmitter power output
• C. Impedance
• D. Received signal strength

G1E03

10. What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

• A. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
• B. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
• C. No third-party traffic may be transmitted
• D. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

G2D01

11. What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

• A. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
• B. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
• C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
• D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

G4B12

12. What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

• A. Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
• B. Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Received power that interferes with SWR readings

G4A13

13. What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

• A. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
• B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
• C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
• D. To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

G8A09

14. What type of modulation is used by FT8?

• A. Vestigial sideband
• B. 8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
• C. Amplitude compressed AM
• D. 8-tone frequency shift keying

G0B01

15. Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

• A. Only the hot wires
• B. All wires
• C. Only the ground wire
• D. Only the neutral wire

G2A12

16. What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

• A. RF clipping level
• B. Attenuator level
• C. Transmit audio or microphone gain
• D. Antenna inductance or capacitance

G6A06

17. Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

• A. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate
• B. The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
• C. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit
• D. The resistor could overheat

G7A10

18. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

• A. Symbol 11
• B. Symbol 1
• C. Symbol 4
• D. Symbol 5

G9D04

19. What is the primary function of antenna traps?

• A. To prevent out-of-band operation
• B. To notch spurious frequencies
• C. To provide balanced feed point impedance
• D. To enable multiband operation

G4C11

20. What technique helps to minimize RF "hot spots" in an amateur station?

• A. Using surge suppressor power outlets
• B. Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
• C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together
• D. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure

G7C06

21. Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

• A. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
• B. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
• C. Mixing products are greatly reduced
• D. Fewer digital components are required

G1C11

22. What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

• A. PEP input to the antenna
• B. RMS output from the transmitter
• C. PEP output from the transmitter
• D. RMS input to the antenna

G3A02

23. What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

• A. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
• B. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
• C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
• D. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

G4E01

24. What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

• A. To reduce radiation resistance
• B. To lower the radiation angle
• C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
• D. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

G7B05

25. How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

• A. 8
• B. 16
• C. 3
• D. 6

G2E11

26. What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

• A. To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
• B. To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
• C. To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
• D. To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide

G9C11

27. What is a beta or hairpin match?

• A. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
• B. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
• C. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
• D. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

G1B04

28. Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

• A. Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
• B. Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
• C. Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
• D. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations

G1D12

29. When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

• A. Those of both the remote station's country and the FCC
• B. Only those of the remote station's country
• C. Only those of the FCC
• D. Those of the remote station's country and the FCC's third-party regulations

G8B08

30. Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

• A. Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter's average power rating
• B. To prevent overmodulation
• C. To aid in tuning your transmitter
• D. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

G0A08

31. Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

• A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
• D. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas

G9A03

32. What is the nominal characteristic impedance of "window line" transmission line?

• A. 450 ohms
• B. 100 ohms
• C. 75 ohms
• D. 50 ohms

G8C11

33. How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

• A. On and off
• B. High and low
• C. Dot and dash
• D. Mark and space

G1A09

34. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

• A. 14250 kHz
• B. 18155 kHz
• C. 21300 kHz
• D. 24900 kHz

G2B03

35. What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

• A. Switch to the opposite sideband
• B. Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
• C. Decrease power and continue to transmit
• D. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner