Practice Exam

G7B11

1. For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

• A. FM
• B. AM
• C. SSB
• D. All these choices are correct

G2C04

2. What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

• A. "Are you busy?" or "Is this frequency in use?"
• B. "Are you listening only for a specific station?"
• C. "Will you keep the frequency clear?"
• D. "Are you operating full break-in?" or "Can you operate full break-in?"

G1C02

3. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

• A. An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
• B. 200 watts PEP output
• C. 50 watts PEP output
• D. 1500 watts PEP output

G4C01

4. Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

• A. Forward-biased diode
• B. Bypass inductor
• C. Bypass capacitor
• D. Reverse-biased diode

G1B01

5. What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

• A. 250 feet
• B. 50 feet
• C. 200 feet
• D. 100 feet

G3A04

6. Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

• A. 60 meters and 40 meters
• B. 80 meters and 160 meters
• C. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
• D. 30 meters and 20 meters

G2A08

7. What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

• A. Say "QRZ" several times, followed by your call sign
• B. Say "Breaker Breaker"
• C. Say your call sign once
• D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

G3B06

8. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

• A. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
• B. They pass through the ionosphere
• C. They are refracted back to Earth
• D. They are attenuated before reaching the destination

G7C08

9. Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

• A. Demodulator stage bandwidth
• B. Input amplifier gain
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Input amplifier noise figure

G5B10

10. What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

• A. 20.6 percent
• B. 25.9 percent
• C. 10.9 percent
• D. 12.2 percent

G2D09

11. Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

• A. Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
• B. Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Submit a log to the contest sponsor

G9D05

12. What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

• A. It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
• B. It narrows the main lobe in elevation
• C. It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
• D. It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization

G6A07

13. What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

• A. Saturation and cutoff
• B. Enhancement and depletion modes
• C. Peak and valley current points
• D. The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

G4D10

14. How close to the lower edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

• A. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
• B. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
• C. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
• D. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

G1E08

15. What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

• A. 100 watts
• B. 1500 watts
• C. 10 watts
• D. 100 milliwatts

G1A11

16. When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

• A. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• B. The lower frequency portion
• C. The upper frequency portion
• D. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

G4B08

17. What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

• A. Linearity
• B. Percentage of frequency modulation
• C. Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
• D. Percentage of carrier phase shift

G1D08

18. Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

• A. The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
• B. The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
• C. None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
• D. The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years

G8A10

19. What is meant by the term "flat-topping," when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

• A. The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
• B. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
• C. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
• D. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels

G9C05

20. What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

• A. Gain increases
• B. Beamwidth increases
• C. Resonant frequency is lower
• D. Front-to-back ratio decreases

G9B10

21. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

• A. 16 feet
• B. 8 feet
• C. 33 feet
• D. 24 feet

G8B01

22. Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

• A. Local oscillator
• B. RF input
• C. Beat frequency oscillator
• D. Image frequency

G8C10

23. How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

• A. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
• B. By using a parity bit with each character
• C. By using the Varicode character set
• D. By transmitting redundant information with the data

G0B09

24. Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

• A. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
• D. The generator must be insulated from ground

G5A01

25. What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

• A. Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
• B. Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
• C. Resonance causes impedance to be very low
• D. Resonance causes impedance to be very high

G4A11

26. Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

• A. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
• D. The ALC action distorts the signal

G9A08

27. If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

• A. 5:1
• B. 1:1
• C. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
• D. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

G3C11

28. Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

• A. The D region
• B. The F2 region
• C. The E region
• D. The F1 region

G2E02

29. What is VARA?

• A. A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
• B. A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
• C. A digital protocol used with Winlink
• D. A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

G5C04

30. What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

• A. 75 ohms
• B. 300 ohms
• C. 67 ohms
• D. 150 ohms

G7A09

31. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

• A. Symbol 2
• B. Symbol 4
• C. Symbol 5
• D. Symbol 1

G0A07

32. What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

• A. A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
• B. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
• C. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
• D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

G6B04

33. What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

• A. 50 MHz
• B. 4 GHz
• C. 500 MHz
• D. 40 GHz

G4E01

34. What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

• A. To reduce radiation resistance
• B. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
• C. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
• D. To lower the radiation angle

G2B11

35. How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

• A. No more than 2 hours per week
• B. No more than 1 hour per week
• C. No more than 1 hour per month
• D. No more than 2 hours per month