Practice Exam

G4D08

1. What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

• A. 7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
• B. 7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
• C. 7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
• D. 7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz

G5A06

2. How does a capacitor react to AC?

• A. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• C. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

G0A04

3. What does "time averaging" mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

• A. The total time of the exposure
• B. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
• C. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
• D. The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period

G6B12

4. Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

• A. Type N
• B. PL-259
• C. RCA Phono
• D. BNC

G0B10

5. Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

• A. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
• B. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
• C. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
• D. Tin in the solder can "cold flow," causing shorts in the circuit

G8B07

6. What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

• A. 60 kHz
• B. 5 kHz
• C. 101.75 Hz
• D. 416.7 Hz

G7B11

7. For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

• A. FM
• B. AM
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. SSB

G4E04

8. Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

• A. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
• B. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
• C. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
• D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

G4B13

9. Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

• A. Gain of a directional antenna
• B. Power output from a transmitter
• C. Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
• D. Impedance of coaxial cable

G1E11

10. On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

• A. Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
• B. Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
• C. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
• D. On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

G2A04

11. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

• A. Upper sideband
• B. Suppressed sideband
• C. Double sideband
• D. Lower sideband

G4A13

12. What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

• A. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
• B. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
• C. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
• D. To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

G2C08

13. What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

• A. BK
• B. SK
• C. AR
• D. KN

G3A05

14. What is the solar flux index?

• A. A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
• B. A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
• C. Another name for the American sunspot number
• D. A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth

G8C13

15. What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

• A. Insufficient modulation
• B. Overmodulation
• C. Long path propagation
• D. Backscatter propagation

G9D02

16. What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

• A. Approximately 300 ohms
• B. Very high
• C. Approximately 50 ohms
• D. Very low

G9A04

17. What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

• A. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
• B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
• C. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
• D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

G2D04

18. Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

• A. A map that shows accurate land masses
• B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
• C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
• D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

G9C04

19. How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

• A. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
• B. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
• C. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
• D. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower

G9B09

20. Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

• A. Lower feed point impedance
• B. Lower radiation resistance
• C. Lower ground losses
• D. Shorter radials

G5C01

21. What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

• A. Mutual capacitance
• B. Mutual inductance
• C. Displacement current coupling
• D. Capacitive coupling

G1A04

22. Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

• A. 12 meters
• B. 30 meters
• C. 60 meters
• D. 11 meters

G8A01

23. How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

• A. By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
• B. By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
• C. By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
• D. By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

G4C08

24. Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

• A. Place a ferrite choke on the cable
• B. Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
• C. Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
• D. Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal

G2B11

25. How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

• A. No more than 1 hour per week
• B. No more than 2 hours per month
• C. No more than 1 hour per month
• D. No more than 2 hours per week

G1C04

26. Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

• A. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
• B. You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
• C. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
• D. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

G6A08

27. Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

• A. Comparatively low cost
• B. High capacitance for given volume
• C. High stability
• D. Tight tolerance

G7C12

28. What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter's output power is less than half the input power?

• A. Notch frequency
• B. Neper frequency
• C. Cutoff frequency
• D. Rolloff frequency

G3B08

29. What does MUF stand for?

• A. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• B. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• C. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• D. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

G1B10

30. What is the power limit for beacon stations?

• A. 100 watts PEP output
• B. 200 watts PEP output
• C. 20 watts PEP output
• D. 10 watts PEP output

G2E11

31. What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

• A. To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
• B. To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
• C. To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
• D. To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas

G7A10

32. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

• A. Symbol 1
• B. Symbol 11
• C. Symbol 5
• D. Symbol 4

G3C09

33. What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?

• A. Scatter
• B. Faraday rotation
• C. Short-path
• D. Chordal hop

G1D02

34. What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

• A. Technician only
• B. None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
• C. Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
• D. General and Technician

G5B08

35. What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

• A. 169.7 volts
• B. 84.8 volts
• C. 339.4 volts
• D. 240.0 volts