Practice Exam

G7B07

1. Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

• A. A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
• B. An amplifier and a divider
• C. A frequency multiplier and a mixer
• D. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

G9D04

2. What is the primary function of antenna traps?

• A. To notch spurious frequencies
• B. To prevent out-of-band operation
• C. To enable multiband operation
• D. To provide balanced feed point impedance

G4C05

3. What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

• A. The ground rod is resonant
• B. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
• C. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
• D. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

G7C01

4. What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

• A. Filter
• B. IF amplifier
• C. Carrier oscillator
• D. RF amplifier

G7A03

5. Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

• A. Synchronous
• B. Full-wave bridge
• C. Half-wave
• D. Full-wave

G4E10

6. Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

• A. To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
• B. To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
• C. To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
• D. To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

G2E15

7. Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

• A. Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
• B. Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
• C. Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
• D. Anywhere in the voice portion of the band

G6A01

8. What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

• A. 6 volts
• B. 10.5 volts
• C. 8.5 volts
• D. 12 volts

G8C14

9. Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

• A. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
• B. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
• C. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
• D. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical

G2D11

10. Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

• A. To be sure the contact will count for award programs
• B. To follow standard radiogram structure
• C. To allow each station to operate according to conditions
• D. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

G1B04

11. Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

• A. Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
• B. Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
• C. Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
• D. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations

G9B08

12. How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

• A. It steadily decreases
• B. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
• C. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
• D. It steadily increases

G0A09

13. What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

• A. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
• B. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
• C. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
• D. A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction

G3B05

14. How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

• A. They pass through the ionosphere
• B. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
• C. They are refracted back to Earth
• D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

G1A06

15. Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

• A. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
• B. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
• C. Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
• D. Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies

G3A11

16. How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 14 days
• B. 15 hours to several days
• C. 28 days
• D. 4 to 8 minutes

G5B07

17. What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

• A. The peak-to-peak value
• B. The peak value
• C. The reciprocal of the RMS value
• D. The RMS value

G1C04

18. Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

• A. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
• B. You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
• C. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
• D. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

G9A03

19. What is the nominal characteristic impedance of "window line" transmission line?

• A. 450 ohms
• B. 100 ohms
• C. 75 ohms
• D. 50 ohms

G5C11

20. What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

• A. 1,000 millihenries
• B. 70 millihenries
• C. 14.3 millihenries
• D. 7 millihenries

G1D03

21. On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

• A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
• B. Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
• C. On any General or Technician class band segment
• D. On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

G9C11

22. What is a beta or hairpin match?

• A. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
• B. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
• C. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
• D. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching

G1E04

23. Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

• A. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
• D. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

G6B02

24. What is meant by the term MMIC?

• A. Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
• B. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
• C. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
• D. Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit

G0B03

25. Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

• A. 15 amperes
• B. 30 amperes
• C. 25 amperes
• D. 20 amperes

G2B01

26. Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

• A. QSOs in progress have priority
• B. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
• C. Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
• D. Nets have priority

G4D05

27. How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

• A. It is 20 times less powerful
• B. It is 100 times more powerful
• C. It is 20 times more powerful
• D. It is 10 times less powerful

G8B07

28. What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

• A. 416.7 Hz
• B. 60 kHz
• C. 5 kHz
• D. 101.75 Hz

G4B03

29. Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

• A. An oscilloscope
• B. A wavemeter
• C. A sidetone monitor
• D. A field strength meter

G3C06

30. What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

• A. There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
• B. Scatter propagation occurs only at night
• C. Signals have a fluttering sound
• D. Phone signals have high intelligibility

G4A04

31. What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier's TUNE control?

• A. A pronounced dip
• B. No change will be observed
• C. A slow, rhythmic oscillation
• D. A pronounced peak

G2C01

32. Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

• A. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
• B. Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
• C. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign "BK"
• D. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

G5A09

33. What unit is used to measure reactance?

• A. Siemens
• B. Farad
• C. Ampere
• D. Ohm

G2A08

34. What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

• A. Say "Breaker Breaker"
• B. Say your call sign once
• C. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station
• D. Say "QRZ" several times, followed by your call sign

G8A04

35. What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

• A. Multiplex modulation
• B. Pulse modulation
• C. Phase modulation
• D. Amplitude modulation