Practice Exam

G9C11

1. What is a beta or hairpin match?

• A. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
• B. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
• C. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
• D. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

G2D04

2. Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

• A. A map that shows accurate land masses
• B. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
• C. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
• D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

G2B05

3. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• B. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• C. Approximately 6 kHz
• D. 2 kHz to 3 kHz

G7C02

4. What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

• A. Audio with equalized frequency response
• B. Double-sideband modulated RF
• C. Frequency modulated RF
• D. Audio extracted from the modulation signal

G1D07

5. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. The Federal Communications Commission
• B. The Universal Licensing System
• C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
• D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

G8B02

6. What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

• A. Mixer interference
• B. Intermediate interference
• C. Quadrature response
• D. Image response

G3A02

7. What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

• A. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
• B. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
• C. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
• D. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications

G9B07

8. How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

• A. It steadily decreases
• B. It steadily increases
• C. It is unaffected by the height above ground
• D. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

G7A06

9. What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

• A. 270 degrees
• B. 90 degrees
• C. 180 degrees
• D. 360 degrees

G2C08

10. What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

• A. AR
• B. BK
• C. SK
• D. KN

G2E01

11. Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

• A. LSB
• B. CW
• C. USB
• D. DSB

G4A04

12. What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier's TUNE control?

• A. A slow, rhythmic oscillation
• B. No change will be observed
• C. A pronounced dip
• D. A pronounced peak

G6A05

13. What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

• A. 1.0 volts
• B. 0.7 volts
• C. 0.1 volt
• D. 0.3 volts

G1C06

14. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

• A. 1500 watts PEP output
• B. 1000 watts PEP output
• C. 200 watts PEP output
• D. 1200 watts PEP output

G0B08

15. What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
• C. Unground the base of the tower
• D. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

G2A06

16. Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

• A. Very high-fidelity voice modulation
• B. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
• C. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
• D. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

G5A12

17. What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

• A. The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
• B. Resistance is cancelled
• C. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
• D. Current and voltage are equal

G7B11

18. For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

• A. AM
• B. FM
• C. SSB
• D. All these choices are correct

G8A12

19. What is QPSK modulation?

• A. Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
• B. Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
• C. Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
• D. Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth

G1B01

20. What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

• A. 200 feet
• B. 50 feet
• C. 250 feet
• D. 100 feet

G4E09

21. What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

• A. 1.38 VDC
• B. 0.02 VDC
• C. 0.2 VDC
• D. 0.5 VDC

G1E11

22. On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

• A. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
• B. Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
• C. On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
• D. Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

G3B08

23. What does MUF stand for?

• A. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• B. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• C. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• D. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

G6B07

24. Which of the following describes a type N connector?

• A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
• B. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
• C. A nickel plated version of the PL-259
• D. A low noise figure VHF connector

G0A09

25. What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

• A. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
• B. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
• C. A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
• D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

G3C11

26. Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

• A. The E region
• B. The F1 region
• C. The F2 region
• D. The D region

G4B02

27. Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

• A. An oscilloscope uses less power
• B. Complex impedances can be easily measured
• C. Greater precision
• D. Complex waveforms can be measured

G1A11

28. When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

• A. The lower frequency portion
• B. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• C. The upper frequency portion
• D. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

G8C05

29. In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

• A. Packet was received without error
• B. Entire file received correctly
• C. Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
• D. Request retransmission of the packet

G4D05

30. How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

• A. It is 20 times more powerful
• B. It is 10 times less powerful
• C. It is 100 times more powerful
• D. It is 20 times less powerful

G5C11

31. What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

• A. 70 millihenries
• B. 7 millihenries
• C. 1,000 millihenries
• D. 14.3 millihenries

G5B01

32. What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

• A. Approximately 9 dB
• B. Approximately 3 dB
• C. Approximately 2 dB
• D. Approximately 6 dB

G4C02

33. Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

• A. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
• B. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
• C. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
• D. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors

G9A05

34. How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

• A. Attenuation increases
• B. Attenuation decreases
• C. Attenuation follows Marconi's Law of Attenuation
• D. Attenuation is independent of frequency

G9D12

35. What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

• A. Inverted L
• B. Inverted V
• C. Lazy H
• D. Sloper