Practice Exam

G6B03

1. Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

• A. Low power consumption
• B. Better suited for RF amplification
• C. High power handling capability
• D. Better suited for power supply regulation

G9C04

2. How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

• A. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
• B. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
• C. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
• D. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower

G4A11

3. Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

• A. The ALC action distorts the signal
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
• D. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

G4E03

4. Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

• A. To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
• B. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
• C. To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
• D. To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

G5A04

5. Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

• A. Reluctance
• B. Admittance
• C. Conductance
• D. Reactance

G2B04

6. When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• C. 3 kHz to 6 kHz
• D. 1 kHz to 3 kHz

G1D11

7. What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

• A. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
• B. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
• C. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
• D. Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated

G2A06

8. Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

• A. Very high-fidelity voice modulation
• B. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
• C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
• D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

G3B01

9. What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

• A. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
• B. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
• C. A slightly delayed echo might be heard
• D. Signal strength increased by 3 dB

G9D11

10. Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

• A. They must be used with an antenna tuner
• B. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
• C. They have poor harmonic rejection
• D. They must be fed with open wire line

G2C09

11. What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

• A. I have received and understood
• B. We have worked before
• C. We have already confirmed the contact
• D. Send slower

G1A09

12. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

• A. 18155 kHz
• B. 24900 kHz
• C. 21300 kHz
• D. 14250 kHz

G0A07

13. What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

• A. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
• B. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
• C. A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
• D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

G3A02

14. What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

• A. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
• B. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
• C. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
• D. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

G4D06

15. How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

• A. 15 dB
• B. 18 dB
• C. 12 dB
• D. 6 dB

G1B02

16. With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

• A. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
• D. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical

G7A13

17. Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

• A. Symbol 7
• B. Symbol 6
• C. Symbol 1
• D. Symbol 11

G2D05

18. Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

• A. Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by "this is" and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
• B. Sign your call sign once, followed by the words "listening for a call" -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
• C. Repeat "CQ" a few times, followed by "this is," then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
• D. Say "QTC" followed by "this is" and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

G2E08

19. In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

• A. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
• B. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
• C. Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
• D. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz

G8C04

20. Which of the following describes Baudot code?

• A. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
• B. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
• C. A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
• D. A code using error detection and correction

G8B10

21. What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

• A. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• B. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
• C. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• D. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

G4C01

22. Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

• A. Forward-biased diode
• B. Bypass capacitor
• C. Reverse-biased diode
• D. Bypass inductor

G9A07

23. What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

• A. The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
• B. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
• C. The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
• D. The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

G6A12

24. What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

• A. To decrease plate resistance
• B. To increase efficiency
• C. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
• D. To increase the control grid resistance

G5B08

25. What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

• A. 84.8 volts
• B. 169.7 volts
• C. 240.0 volts
• D. 339.4 volts

G7C06

26. Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

• A. Mixing products are greatly reduced
• B. Fewer digital components are required
• C. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
• D. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

G8A08

27. Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

• A. Insufficient audio
• B. Excessive bandwidth
• C. Insufficient bandwidth
• D. Frequency drift

G3C04

28. What does the term "critical angle" mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

• A. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
• B. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
• C. The long path azimuth of a distant station
• D. The short path azimuth of a distant station

G5C07

29. What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna's 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

• A. 144 to 1
• B. 3.5 to 1
• C. 12 to 1
• D. 24 to 1

G0B07

30. Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

• A. Always hold on to the tower with one hand
• B. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
• C. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
• D. All these choices are correct

G9B11

31. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

• A. 263 feet
• B. 132 feet
• C. 84 feet
• D. 42 feet

G7B01

32. What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

• A. To keep the carrier on frequency
• B. To limit the modulation index
• C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
• D. To eliminate self-oscillations

G4B10

33. Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

• A. Standing wave ratio
• B. RF interference
• C. Antenna front-to-back ratio
• D. Radio wave propagation

G1C02

34. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

• A. 1500 watts PEP output
• B. An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
• C. 50 watts PEP output
• D. 200 watts PEP output

G1E12

35. When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

• A. Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
• B. Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
• C. Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
• D. Under no circumstances except for emergencies