Practice Exam

G5A08

1. What is impedance?

• A. The product of current and reactance
• B. The product of current and voltage
• C. The ratio of voltage to current
• D. The ratio of current to voltage

G7C07

2. What term specifies a filter's attenuation inside its passband?

• A. Ultimate rejection
• B. Q
• C. Return loss
• D. Insertion loss

G9D12

3. What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

• A. Sloper
• B. Inverted L
• C. Lazy H
• D. Inverted V

G6B08

4. How is an LED biased when emitting light?

• A. Reverse biased
• B. In the tunnel-effect region
• C. At the Zener voltage
• D. Forward biased

G9C12

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

• A. It does not require any inductors or capacitors
• B. It is useful for matching multiband antennas
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom

G3B01

6. What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

• A. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
• B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB
• C. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
• D. A slightly delayed echo might be heard

G5C07

7. What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna's 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

• A. 24 to 1
• B. 3.5 to 1
• C. 144 to 1
• D. 12 to 1

G1B06

8. Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

• A. At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
• B. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
• C. Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
• D. Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

G5B10

9. What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

• A. 10.9 percent
• B. 20.6 percent
• C. 12.2 percent
• D. 25.9 percent

G4A03

10. How does a noise blanker work?

• A. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
• B. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
• C. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
• D. By clipping noise peaks

G2A08

11. What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

• A. Say "Breaker Breaker"
• B. Say your call sign once
• C. Say "QRZ" several times, followed by your call sign
• D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

G1D06

12. Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with "AG" after their call sign?

• A. A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
• B. Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
• C. Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
• D. Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency

G4B13

13. Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

• A. Power output from a transmitter
• B. Gain of a directional antenna
• C. Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
• D. Impedance of coaxial cable

G3C01

14. Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

• A. The E region
• B. The F1 region
• C. The D region
• D. The F2 region

G9B11

15. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

• A. 263 feet
• B. 132 feet
• C. 42 feet
• D. 84 feet

G6A09

16. Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

• A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
• B. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
• C. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
• D. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

G2D04

17. Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

• A. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
• B. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
• C. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
• D. A map that shows accurate land masses

G1C03

18. What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

• A. 1.8 kHz
• B. 5.6 kHz
• C. 3 kHz
• D. 2.8 kHz

G2E10

19. Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

• A. Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
• B. Send an email to the system control operator
• C. Send QRL in Morse code
• D. Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

G2C04

20. What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

• A. "Are you listening only for a specific station?"
• B. "Are you busy?" or "Is this frequency in use?"
• C. "Will you keep the frequency clear?"
• D. "Are you operating full break-in?" or "Can you operate full break-in?"

G9A05

21. How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

• A. Attenuation increases
• B. Attenuation is independent of frequency
• C. Attenuation decreases
• D. Attenuation follows Marconi's Law of Attenuation

G4E01

22. What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

• A. To reduce radiation resistance
• B. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
• C. To lower the radiation angle
• D. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

G2B05

23. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• B. 2 kHz to 3 kHz
• C. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• D. Approximately 6 kHz

G1A03

24. On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

• A. 20 meters
• B. 160 meters
• C. 30 meters
• D. 12 meters

G4D03

25. What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

• A. Excess intermodulation products
• B. Distorted speech
• C. Excessive background noise
• D. All these choices are correct

G7A07

26. What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

• A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
• B. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
• C. A steady DC voltage
• D. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

G1E11

27. On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

• A. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
• B. On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
• C. Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
• D. Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

G8A08

28. Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

• A. Insufficient bandwidth
• B. Excessive bandwidth
• C. Insufficient audio
• D. Frequency drift

G8B12

29. What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

• A. Heterodyning
• B. Detection
• C. Intermodulation
• D. Rolloff

G8C15

30. What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

• A. The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
• B. The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
• C. The signal is S3 (weak signals)
• D. The signal is 3 dB over S9

G4C11

31. What technique helps to minimize RF "hot spots" in an amateur station?

• A. Bonding all equipment enclosures together
• B. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
• C. Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
• D. Using surge suppressor power outlets

G0A04

32. What does "time averaging" mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

• A. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
• B. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
• C. The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
• D. The total time of the exposure

G7B03

33. Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

• A. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
• B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
• C. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
• D. Output is low only when both inputs are high

G0B09

34. Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

• A. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
• B. The generator must be insulated from ground
• C. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
• D. All these choices are correct

G3A08

35. How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

• A. Improve high-latitude HF propagation
• B. Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
• C. Degrade ground wave propagation
• D. Improve ground wave propagation