Practice Exam

G5B10

1. What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

• A. 20.6 percent
• B. 25.9 percent
• C. 12.2 percent
• D. 10.9 percent

G5C08

2. What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

• A. 10.750 nanofarads
• B. 3,583 picofarads
• C. 1,733 picofarads
• D. 576.9 nanofarads

G1A11

3. When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

• A. The lower frequency portion
• B. The upper frequency portion
• C. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• D. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

G1B01

4. What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

• A. 200 feet
• B. 250 feet
• C. 50 feet
• D. 100 feet

G1D06

5. Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with "AG" after their call sign?

• A. Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
• B. A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
• C. Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
• D. Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency

G4B13

6. Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

• A. Power output from a transmitter
• B. Gain of a directional antenna
• C. Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
• D. Impedance of coaxial cable

G2E01

7. Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

• A. LSB
• B. CW
• C. DSB
• D. USB

G1C03

8. What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

• A. 1.8 kHz
• B. 3 kHz
• C. 2.8 kHz
• D. 5.6 kHz

G3B01

9. What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

• A. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
• B. A slightly delayed echo might be heard
• C. Signal strength increased by 3 dB
• D. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

G3C09

10. What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?

• A. Scatter
• B. Chordal hop
• C. Short-path
• D. Faraday rotation

G4D04

11. What does an S meter measure?

• A. Impedance
• B. Transmitter power output
• C. Carrier suppression
• D. Received signal strength

G9B07

12. How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

• A. It steadily increases
• B. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
• C. It is unaffected by the height above ground
• D. It steadily decreases

G1E12

13. When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

• A. Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
• B. Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
• C. Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
• D. Under no circumstances except for emergencies

G2A01

14. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

• A. Upper sideband
• B. Double sideband
• C. Lower sideband
• D. Suppressed sideband

G3A14

15. How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

• A. HF communication is disturbed
• B. VHF/UHF ducting is improved
• C. HF communication is improved
• D. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

G6B11

16. What is an SMA connector?

• A. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
• B. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
• C. A type-S to type-M adaptor
• D. A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications

G2C10

17. What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

• A. Zero beat my signal
• B. I am troubled by static
• C. Send more slowly
• D. Stop sending

G4E09

18. What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

• A. 0.02 VDC
• B. 0.5 VDC
• C. 1.38 VDC
• D. 0.2 VDC

G0A07

19. What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

• A. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
• B. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
• C. A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
• D. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements

G8B13

20. Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

• A. 2F1-F2
• B. 5F1-3F2
• C. 3F1-F2
• D. All these choices are correct

G2D07

21. Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

• A. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
• B. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
• C. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
• D. Adam, Boy, Charles, David

G6A01

22. What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

• A. 12 volts
• B. 8.5 volts
• C. 6 volts
• D. 10.5 volts

G2B05

23. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• B. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• C. Approximately 6 kHz
• D. 2 kHz to 3 kHz

G9D01

24. Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

• A. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
• B. A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
• C. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
• D. A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

G7A07

25. What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

• A. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
• B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
• C. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
• D. A steady DC voltage

G4A07

26. What happens as a receiver's noise reduction control level is increased?

• A. Received frequency may become unstable
• B. CW signals may become severely attenuated
• C. Received signals may become distorted
• D. Received frequency may shift several kHz

G9A11

27. What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

• A. Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
• B. Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
• C. Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
• D. Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line

G5A11

28. What letter is used to represent reactance?

• A. B
• B. X
• C. Y
• D. Z

G9C01

29. Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

• A. Closer element spacing
• B. Larger-diameter elements
• C. Loading coils in series with the element
• D. Tapered-diameter elements

G0B01

30. Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

• A. Only the hot wires
• B. Only the neutral wire
• C. Only the ground wire
• D. All wires

G8C10

31. How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

• A. By using the Varicode character set
• B. By transmitting redundant information with the data
• C. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
• D. By using a parity bit with each character

G7C04

32. How is a product detector used?

• A. Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
• B. Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
• C. Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
• D. Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands

G7B08

33. How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

• A. Add the RF input power to the DC output power
• B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
• C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
• D. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

G4C09

34. How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

• A. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
• B. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
• C. Bond equipment enclosures together
• D. Connect all ground conductors in series

G8A11

35. What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

• A. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
• B. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
• C. The bandwidth of the modulated signal
• D. The carrier frequency that contains the signal