Practice Exam

G8B07

1. What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

• A. 5 kHz
• B. 416.7 Hz
• C. 60 kHz
• D. 101.75 Hz

G9B08

2. How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

• A. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
• B. It steadily increases
• C. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
• D. It steadily decreases

G2E12

3. Which of the following describes Winlink?

• A. All of the above
• B. A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
• C. A form of Packet Radio
• D. An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet

G8C04

4. Which of the following describes Baudot code?

• A. A code using error detection and correction
• B. A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
• C. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
• D. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

G2C07

5. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

• A. Chirpy or unstable signal
• B. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
• C. 100 percent copy
• D. Key clicks

G7B04

6. In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

• A. 100%
• B. Less than 50%
• C. More than 50% but less than 100%
• D. 50%

G3A01

7. How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

• A. A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
• B. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
• C. A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
• D. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

G4B11

8. Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

• A. Receiver
• B. Antenna and feed line
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Transmitter

G7C12

9. What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter's output power is less than half the input power?

• A. Rolloff frequency
• B. Notch frequency
• C. Cutoff frequency
• D. Neper frequency

G9A08

10. If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

• A. 5:1
• B. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
• C. 1:1
• D. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

G5B06

11. What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

• A. 353.5 watts
• B. 100 watts
• C. 400 watts
• D. 1.4 watts

G2B04

12. When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• B. 3 kHz to 6 kHz
• C. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• D. 1 kHz to 3 kHz

G1B04

13. Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

• A. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
• B. Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
• C. Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
• D. Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

G1E07

14. In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

• A. Channels 42 through 45
• B. Anywhere in the band
• C. Channels 1 through 4
• D. No part

G0B04

15. Where should the station's lightning protection ground system be located?

• A. Parallel to the water supply line
• B. Outside the building
• C. As close to the station equipment as possible
• D. Next to the closest power pole

G3B06

16. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

• A. They pass through the ionosphere
• B. They are refracted back to Earth
• C. They are attenuated before reaching the destination
• D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

G2A07

17. Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

• A. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
• B. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
• C. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
• D. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

G3C02

18. What is meant by the term "critical frequency" at a given incidence angle?

• A. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
• B. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
• C. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
• D. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

G4D07

19. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

• A. Approximately 2 times
• B. Approximately 4 times
• C. Approximately 1.5 times
• D. Approximately 8 times

G5A06

20. How does a capacitor react to AC?

• A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G7A12

21. Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

• A. Symbol 7
• B. Symbol 4
• C. Symbol 1
• D. Symbol 6

G1C09

22. What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

• A. 10 watts RMS
• B. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
• C. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
• D. 1500 watts PEP

G0A01

23. What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

• A. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
• B. It cools body tissue
• C. It causes radiation poisoning
• D. It heats body tissue

G5C07

24. What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna's 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

• A. 3.5 to 1
• B. 24 to 1
• C. 12 to 1
• D. 144 to 1

G6B12

25. Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

• A. BNC
• B. Type N
• C. RCA Phono
• D. PL-259

G4C11

26. What technique helps to minimize RF "hot spots" in an amateur station?

• A. Using surge suppressor power outlets
• B. Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
• C. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
• D. Bonding all equipment enclosures together

G4A07

27. What happens as a receiver's noise reduction control level is increased?

• A. Received frequency may become unstable
• B. Received frequency may shift several kHz
• C. CW signals may become severely attenuated
• D. Received signals may become distorted

G8A11

28. What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

• A. The carrier frequency that contains the signal
• B. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
• C. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
• D. The bandwidth of the modulated signal

G1D01

29. Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

• A. Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
• B. Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
• C. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
• D. Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

G9D05

30. What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

• A. It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
• B. It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
• C. It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
• D. It narrows the main lobe in elevation

G9C08

31. What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

• A. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
• B. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
• C. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
• D. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

G2D08

32. Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

• A. The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
• B. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
• C. The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
• D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station

G1A10

33. What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

• A. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
• B. The portion above 29.5 MHz
• C. The entire band
• D. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz

G6A09

34. Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

• A. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
• B. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
• C. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
• D. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

G4E10

35. Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

• A. To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
• B. To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
• C. To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
• D. To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage