Practice Exam

G2D09

1. Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Submit a log to the contest sponsor
• C. Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
• D. Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

G5A02

2. What is reactance?

• A. Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
• B. Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
• C. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
• D. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

G4B08

3. What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

• A. Percentage of carrier phase shift
• B. Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
• C. Percentage of frequency modulation
• D. Linearity

G1B08

4. When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

• A. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
• B. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
• C. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
• D. Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

G3A01

5. How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

• A. A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
• B. A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
• C. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
• D. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

G4A13

6. What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

• A. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
• B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
• C. To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
• D. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

G1A10

7. What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

• A. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
• B. The portion above 29.5 MHz
• C. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
• D. The entire band

G7B04

8. In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

• A. 50%
• B. Less than 50%
• C. More than 50% but less than 100%
• D. 100%

G3C08

9. Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

• A. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
• B. Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
• C. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
• D. Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

G6B07

10. Which of the following describes a type N connector?

• A. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
• B. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
• C. A nickel plated version of the PL-259
• D. A low noise figure VHF connector

G4C07

11. Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

• A. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
• B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
• C. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
• D. All these choices are correct

G8C12

12. Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

• A. Binary
• B. Viterbi
• C. Volumetric
• D. Varicode

G2B07

13. Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
• C. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
• D. Follow the voluntary band plan

G2E06

14. What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

• A. 85 Hz
• B. 425 Hz
• C. 850 Hz
• D. 170 Hz

G5C06

15. What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

• A. 25.5 volts
• B. 360 volts
• C. 40 volts
• D. 120 volts

G8A10

16. What is meant by the term "flat-topping," when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

• A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
• B. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
• C. The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
• D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed

G1D03

17. On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

• A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
• B. On any General or Technician class band segment
• C. On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
• D. Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment

G7C11

18. Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

• A. Modulation
• B. Detection
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Filtering

G2A01

19. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

• A. Double sideband
• B. Upper sideband
• C. Suppressed sideband
• D. Lower sideband

G8B09

20. Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

• A. It improves impedance matching of the antenna
• B. It is required by FCC rules
• C. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
• D. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

G0A08

21. Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
• C. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
• D. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

G7A04

22. What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

• A. Only one diode is required
• B. The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
• C. The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
• D. More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

G0B03

23. Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

• A. 20 amperes
• B. 15 amperes
• C. 25 amperes
• D. 30 amperes

G4E09

24. What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

• A. 0.5 VDC
• B. 0.2 VDC
• C. 1.38 VDC
• D. 0.02 VDC

G1C06

25. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

• A. 1000 watts PEP output
• B. 1200 watts PEP output
• C. 1500 watts PEP output
• D. 200 watts PEP output

G1E08

26. What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

• A. 100 milliwatts
• B. 100 watts
• C. 1500 watts
• D. 10 watts

G9C08

27. What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

• A. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
• B. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
• C. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
• D. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

G2C05

28. What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

• A. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
• B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
• C. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
• D. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ

G9D05

29. What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

• A. It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
• B. It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
• C. It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
• D. It narrows the main lobe in elevation

G4D10

30. How close to the lower edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

• A. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
• B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
• C. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
• D. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

G6A08

31. Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

• A. High stability
• B. Tight tolerance
• C. High capacitance for given volume
• D. Comparatively low cost

G9B09

32. Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

• A. Lower ground losses
• B. Lower feed point impedance
• C. Lower radiation resistance
• D. Shorter radials

G3B09

33. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

• A. 12,000 miles
• B. 2,500 miles
• C. 180 miles
• D. 1,200 miles

G9A08

34. If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

• A. 1:1
• B. 5:1
• C. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
• D. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

G5B04

35. How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

• A. 24 watts
• B. 60 watts
• C. 6 watts
• D. 2.4 watts