Practice Exam

G4C12

1. Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

• A. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
• B. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
• C. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
• D. It prevents signal overload

G1C03

2. What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

• A. 5.6 kHz
• B. 3 kHz
• C. 2.8 kHz
• D. 1.8 kHz

G8C08

3. Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

• A. Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
• B. Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
• C. Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
• D. Upper case letters are sent with more power

G4E03

4. Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

• A. To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
• B. To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
• C. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
• D. To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

G6B02

5. What is meant by the term MMIC?

• A. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
• B. Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
• C. Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
• D. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

G1A04

6. Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

• A. 12 meters
• B. 60 meters
• C. 30 meters
• D. 11 meters

G5C02

7. What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

• A. The input voltage is divided by 4
• B. Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
• C. Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
• D. The input voltage is multiplied by 4

G7A13

8. Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

• A. Symbol 6
• B. Symbol 7
• C. Symbol 11
• D. Symbol 1

G4D06

9. How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

• A. 6 dB
• B. 15 dB
• C. 12 dB
• D. 18 dB

G2E09

10. How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

• A. Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
• B. Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
• C. Send a NAK code
• D. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

G5B04

11. How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

• A. 24 watts
• B. 6 watts
• C. 2.4 watts
• D. 60 watts

G9D06

12. Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

• A. Wide bandwidth
• B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
• C. Harmonic suppression
• D. Polarization diversity

G4B12

13. What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

• A. Received power that interferes with SWR readings
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
• D. Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings

G7C11

14. Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

• A. Filtering
• B. Detection
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Modulation

G6A06

15. Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

• A. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit
• B. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate
• C. The resistor could overheat
• D. The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable

G0B04

16. Where should the station's lightning protection ground system be located?

• A. Outside the building
• B. As close to the station equipment as possible
• C. Parallel to the water supply line
• D. Next to the closest power pole

G9A04

17. What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

• A. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
• B. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
• C. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
• D. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

G5A08

18. What is impedance?

• A. The ratio of current to voltage
• B. The product of current and voltage
• C. The ratio of voltage to current
• D. The product of current and reactance

G3A05

19. What is the solar flux index?

• A. A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
• B. A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
• C. A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
• D. Another name for the American sunspot number

G2D01

20. What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

• A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
• B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
• C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
• D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

G8B04

21. What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

• A. Multiplier
• B. Mixer
• C. Reactance modulator
• D. Balanced converter

G0A03

22. How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

• A. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
• B. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. By calculation based on computer modeling

G2A08

23. What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

• A. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station
• B. Say your call sign once
• C. Say "QRZ" several times, followed by your call sign
• D. Say "Breaker Breaker"

G1D09

24. How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

• A. 365 days
• B. 180 days
• C. For as long as your current license is valid
• D. 30 days

G1B05

25. Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

• A. Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
• B. Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

G9B02

26. Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

• A. Coil the radials
• B. Slope the radials downward
• C. Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
• D. Slope the radials upward

G9C08

27. What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

• A. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
• B. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
• C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
• D. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

G3B06

28. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

• A. They pass through the ionosphere
• B. They are refracted back to Earth
• C. They are attenuated before reaching the destination
• D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

G7B07

29. Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

• A. A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
• B. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
• C. An amplifier and a divider
• D. A frequency multiplier and a mixer

G3C07

30. What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

• A. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
• B. The E region is not present
• C. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
• D. The ionospheric region involved is unstable

G2B09

31. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

• A. Only a RACES net control operator
• B. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
• C. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
• D. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

G1E10

32. Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

• A. A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
• B. These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
• C. These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
• D. A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

G8A03

33. What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

• A. Frequency modulation
• B. Frequency convolution
• C. Frequency transformation
• D. Frequency conversion

G4A12

34. Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

• A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
• B. To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
• C. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
• D. To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

G2C06

35. What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

• A. Sending without error
• B. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
• C. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
• D. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency