Practice Exam

G1D11

1. What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

• A. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
• B. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
• C. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
• D. Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated

G0B04

2. Where should the station's lightning protection ground system be located?

• A. Next to the closest power pole
• B. Parallel to the water supply line
• C. Outside the building
• D. As close to the station equipment as possible

G2C01

3. Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

• A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign "BK"
• B. Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
• C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
• D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

G6B08

4. How is an LED biased when emitting light?

• A. In the tunnel-effect region
• B. Forward biased
• C. Reverse biased
• D. At the Zener voltage

G9A04

5. What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

• A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
• B. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
• C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
• D. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

G8B09

6. Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

• A. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
• B. It is required by FCC rules
• C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna
• D. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver

G1C11

7. What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

• A. PEP output from the transmitter
• B. RMS input to the antenna
• C. PEP input to the antenna
• D. RMS output from the transmitter

G9C12

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
• C. It is useful for matching multiband antennas
• D. It does not require any inductors or capacitors

G7B02

9. Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

• A. Class A
• B. Class AB
• C. Class B
• D. Class C

G4B02

10. Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

• A. An oscilloscope uses less power
• B. Complex waveforms can be measured
• C. Greater precision
• D. Complex impedances can be easily measured

G8A01

11. How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

• A. By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
• B. By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
• C. By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
• D. By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone

G6A07

12. What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

• A. The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
• B. Peak and valley current points
• C. Enhancement and depletion modes
• D. Saturation and cutoff

G5C01

13. What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

• A. Displacement current coupling
• B. Capacitive coupling
• C. Mutual inductance
• D. Mutual capacitance

G9B04

14. What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

• A. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
• B. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
• C. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
• D. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

G9D03

15. In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF "halo" antenna?

• A. On the same side as the feed point
• B. Opposite the feed point
• C. Broadside to the plane of the halo
• D. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo

G5A05

16. How does an inductor react to AC?

• A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• C. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G7C11

17. Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

• A. Filtering
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Modulation
• D. Detection

G0A09

18. What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

• A. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
• B. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
• C. A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
• D. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna

G4C05

19. What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

• A. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
• B. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
• C. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
• D. The ground rod is resonant

G5B14

20. What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

• A. 5000 watts
• B. 8.75 watts
• C. 625 watts
• D. 2500 watts

G2D10

21. What is QRP operation?

• A. Traffic relay procedure net operation
• B. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
• C. Low-power transmit operation
• D. Remote piloted model control

G4A05

22. Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

• A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
• B. To increase overall efficiency
• C. To prevent excessive drive
• D. To reduce harmonic radiation

G7A09

23. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

• A. Symbol 4
• B. Symbol 2
• C. Symbol 5
• D. Symbol 1

G3B04

24. Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

• A. Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
• B. Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Check the A-index

G4E08

25. In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

• A. Full-wave bridge
• B. Bypass
• C. Series-parallel
• D. Shunt

G2B07

26. Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Follow the voluntary band plan
• C. Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
• D. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

G4D04

27. What does an S meter measure?

• A. Transmitter power output
• B. Received signal strength
• C. Impedance
• D. Carrier suppression

G1B09

28. On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

• A. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
• B. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
• C. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
• D. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

G1E06

29. The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

• A. Region 1
• B. Region 4
• C. Region 3
• D. Region 2

G1A05

30. On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

• A. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
• B. All of the above
• C. 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
• D. 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz

G2A08

31. What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

• A. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station
• B. Say "Breaker Breaker"
• C. Say your call sign once
• D. Say "QRZ" several times, followed by your call sign

G3A01

32. How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

• A. A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
• B. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
• C. A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
• D. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

G8C08

33. Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

• A. Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
• B. Upper case letters are sent with more power
• C. Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
• D. Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission

G2E08

34. In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

• A. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
• B. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
• C. Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
• D. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

G3C07

35. What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

• A. The ionospheric region involved is unstable
• B. The E region is not present
• C. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
• D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths