Practice Exam

G5B11

1. What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

• A. 0.707
• B. 1.00
• C. 2.00
• D. 1.414

G2E12

2. Which of the following describes Winlink?

• A. A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
• B. A form of Packet Radio
• C. An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
• D. All of the above

G9A02

3. What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

• A. High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
• B. High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
• C. High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
• D. There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR

G4C06

4. What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

• A. Overheating of ground straps
• B. A ground loop
• C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
• D. Corrosion of the ground rod

G7C07

5. What term specifies a filter's attenuation inside its passband?

• A. Q
• B. Return loss
• C. Ultimate rejection
• D. Insertion loss

G3C07

6. What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

• A. The ionospheric region involved is unstable
• B. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
• C. The E region is not present
• D. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal

G4A03

7. How does a noise blanker work?

• A. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
• B. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
• C. By clipping noise peaks
• D. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth

G7B03

8. Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

• A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
• B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
• C. Output is low only when both inputs are high
• D. Output is low when either or both inputs are high

G1E06

9. The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

• A. Region 4
• B. Region 3
• C. Region 1
• D. Region 2

G6B06

10. What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

• A. Analog
• B. MMIC
• C. Digital
• D. Programmable Logic

G2A10

11. Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

• A. It allows "hands free" operation
• B. The received signal is more natural sounding
• C. It provides more power output
• D. It occupies less bandwidth

G5C04

12. What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

• A. 67 ohms
• B. 300 ohms
• C. 75 ohms
• D. 150 ohms

G5A07

13. What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

• A. Conductance
• B. Admittance
• C. Susceptance
• D. Reluctance

G4E06

14. What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

• A. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
• B. Q of the antenna will be very low
• C. Harmonic radiation may increase
• D. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

G0A05

15. What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

• A. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
• B. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
• C. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
• D. All these choices are correct

G2D11

16. Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

• A. To be sure the contact will count for award programs
• B. To follow standard radiogram structure
• C. To allow each station to operate according to conditions
• D. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

G1B10

17. What is the power limit for beacon stations?

• A. 20 watts PEP output
• B. 200 watts PEP output
• C. 10 watts PEP output
• D. 100 watts PEP output

G0B05

18. Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
• C. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
• D. Overvoltage on the hot wires

G7A13

19. Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

• A. Symbol 7
• B. Symbol 6
• C. Symbol 11
• D. Symbol 1

G3B12

20. Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

• A. High levels of atmospheric noise or static
• B. Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
• C. Poor propagation at any time of day
• D. World-wide propagation during daylight hours

G1C03

21. What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

• A. 1.8 kHz
• B. 5.6 kHz
• C. 3 kHz
• D. 2.8 kHz

G3A07

22. At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

• A. Only at the minimum point
• B. At any point
• C. At the summer solstice
• D. Only at the maximum point

G9D02

23. What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

• A. Approximately 50 ohms
• B. Approximately 300 ohms
• C. Very low
• D. Very high

G2C09

24. What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

• A. I have received and understood
• B. We have already confirmed the contact
• C. We have worked before
• D. Send slower

G8A11

25. What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

• A. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
• B. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
• C. The bandwidth of the modulated signal
• D. The carrier frequency that contains the signal

G9C03

26. How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

• A. They are all the same length
• B. The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
• C. Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
• D. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

G2B04

27. When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 1 kHz to 3 kHz
• B. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• C. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• D. 3 kHz to 6 kHz

G4B08

28. What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

• A. Linearity
• B. Percentage of frequency modulation
• C. Percentage of carrier phase shift
• D. Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB

G6A01

29. What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

• A. 12 volts
• B. 8.5 volts
• C. 10.5 volts
• D. 6 volts

G8B05

30. Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

• A. Even-order
• B. Second harmonics
• C. Intercept point
• D. Odd-order

G8C10

31. How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

• A. By using a parity bit with each character
• B. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
• C. By transmitting redundant information with the data
• D. By using the Varicode character set

G1A09

32. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

• A. 21300 kHz
• B. 14250 kHz
• C. 24900 kHz
• D. 18155 kHz

G9B06

33. Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

• A. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
• B. Parallel to the antenna element
• C. At the center of the antenna
• D. As high as possible above the ground

G4D06

34. How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

• A. 18 dB
• B. 15 dB
• C. 12 dB
• D. 6 dB

G1D01

35. Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

• A. Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
• B. Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
• C. Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
• D. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC