Practice Exam

G8B12

1. What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

• A. Detection
• B. Heterodyning
• C. Rolloff
• D. Intermodulation

G1A11

2. When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

• A. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• B. The lower frequency portion
• C. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• D. The upper frequency portion

G4E06

3. What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

• A. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
• B. Q of the antenna will be very low
• C. Harmonic radiation may increase
• D. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals

G2C04

4. What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

• A. "Are you busy?" or "Is this frequency in use?"
• B. "Are you listening only for a specific station?"
• C. "Are you operating full break-in?" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
• D. "Will you keep the frequency clear?"

G2A02

5. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

• A. Upper sideband
• B. Double sideband
• C. Suppressed sideband
• D. Lower sideband

G7A03

6. Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

• A. Full-wave
• B. Synchronous
• C. Full-wave bridge
• D. Half-wave

G2D01

7. What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

• A. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
• B. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
• C. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
• D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

G2B10

8. Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

• A. Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
• B. Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

G7C07

9. What term specifies a filter's attenuation inside its passband?

• A. Insertion loss
• B. Ultimate rejection
• C. Return loss
• D. Q

G6A01

10. What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

• A. 10.5 volts
• B. 6 volts
• C. 8.5 volts
• D. 12 volts

G1C09

11. What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

• A. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
• B. 10 watts RMS
• C. 1500 watts PEP
• D. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

G8A07

12. Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

• A. Vestigial sideband
• B. Single sideband
• C. Phase modulation
• D. Frequency modulation

G3A11

13. How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 15 hours to several days
• B. 28 days
• C. 4 to 8 minutes
• D. 14 days

G4B13

14. Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

• A. Power output from a transmitter
• B. Impedance of coaxial cable
• C. Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
• D. Gain of a directional antenna

G9B10

15. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

• A. 16 feet
• B. 33 feet
• C. 8 feet
• D. 24 feet

G1B10

16. What is the power limit for beacon stations?

• A. 200 watts PEP output
• B. 20 watts PEP output
• C. 10 watts PEP output
• D. 100 watts PEP output

G3C02

17. What is meant by the term "critical frequency" at a given incidence angle?

• A. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
• B. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
• C. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
• D. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

G4A10

18. What is the function of an electronic keyer?

• A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
• B. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
• C. To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
• D. Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation

G5C04

19. What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

• A. 300 ohms
• B. 75 ohms
• C. 67 ohms
• D. 150 ohms

G0B12

20. What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

• A. To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
• B. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
• C. To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
• D. To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

G9D10

21. In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

• A. Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
• B. Broadside and in the plane of the loop
• C. In the plane of the loop
• D. Broadside to the loop

G2E08

22. In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

• A. Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
• B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
• C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
• D. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

G0A08

23. Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

• A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
• D. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas

G9C11

24. What is a beta or hairpin match?

• A. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
• B. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
• C. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
• D. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

G6B01

25. What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

• A. Its conductivity
• B. The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
• C. The composition, or "mix," of materials used
• D. Its thickness

G7B08

26. How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

• A. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
• B. Add the RF input power to the DC output power
• C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
• D. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

G3B04

27. Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

• A. Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
• B. Check the A-index
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Send a series of dots and listen for echoes

G8C06

28. What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

• A. Encoding reverts to the default character set
• B. The connection is dropped
• C. The checksum overflows
• D. Packets will be routed incorrectly

G4D01

29. What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

• A. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
• B. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
• C. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
• D. Prevent distortion of voice signals

G5A02

30. What is reactance?

• A. Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
• B. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
• C. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
• D. Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance

G5B02

31. How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

• A. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
• B. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
• C. It equals the average of the branch currents
• D. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch

G4C12

32. Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

• A. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
• B. It prevents signal overload
• C. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
• D. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded

G1E05

33. What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

• A. They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
• B. They must be for other licensed amateurs
• C. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
• D. The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log

G9A02

34. What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

• A. High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
• B. High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
• C. High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
• D. There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR

G1D07

35. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. The Federal Communications Commission
• B. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
• C. The Universal Licensing System
• D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau