Practice Exam

G4E11

1. What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

• A. A series resistor must be in place
• B. Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
• C. Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
• D. The solar panel must have a charge controller

G9D05

2. What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

• A. It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
• B. It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
• C. It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
• D. It narrows the main lobe in elevation

G3C10

3. What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

• A. Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
• B. Propagation near the MUF
• C. Double hop propagation near the LUF
• D. Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles

G9C04

4. How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

• A. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
• B. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
• C. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
• D. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower

G5A11

5. What letter is used to represent reactance?

• A. X
• B. Z
• C. Y
• D. B

G9B05

6. How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

• A. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
• B. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
• C. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
• D. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

G5C07

7. What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna's 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

• A. 24 to 1
• B. 3.5 to 1
• C. 12 to 1
• D. 144 to 1

G5B04

8. How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

• A. 24 watts
• B. 60 watts
• C. 2.4 watts
• D. 6 watts

G7C14

9. The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

• A. Image and harmonic
• B. Upper and lower half-power
• C. Pole and zero
• D. Cutoff and rolloff

G1D11

10. What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

• A. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
• B. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
• C. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
• D. Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated

G8B01

11. Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

• A. RF input
• B. Beat frequency oscillator
• C. Local oscillator
• D. Image frequency

G4C03

12. What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

• A. Clearly audible speech
• B. Distorted speech
• C. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
• D. On-and-off humming or clicking

G3B07

13. What does LUF stand for?

• A. Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
• B. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• C. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
• D. Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius

G7A01

14. What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

• A. It eliminates ground loop current
• B. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
• C. It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
• D. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils

G0B07

15. Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

• A. Always hold on to the tower with one hand
• B. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness

G6B03

16. Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

• A. Low power consumption
• B. Better suited for RF amplification
• C. High power handling capability
• D. Better suited for power supply regulation

G3A02

17. What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

• A. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
• B. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
• C. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
• D. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies

G4A13

18. What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

• A. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
• B. To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
• C. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
• D. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

G2B10

19. Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

• A. Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
• B. Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in

G7B04

20. In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

• A. More than 50% but less than 100%
• B. 50%
• C. 100%
• D. Less than 50%

G8C02

21. Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

• A. WSPR
• B. PSK31
• C. SSB-SC
• D. MFSK16

G8A06

22. Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

• A. It is sideband sensitive
• B. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Its encoding provides error correction

G1A01

23. On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

• A. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
• B. 80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
• C. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
• D. 160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters

G9A07

24. What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

• A. The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
• B. The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
• C. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
• D. The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

G2E15

25. Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

• A. Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
• B. Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
• C. Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
• D. Anywhere in the CW portion of the band

G2A11

26. Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling "CQ DX"?

• A. Only stations in Germany
• B. Any stations outside the lower 48 states
• C. Only contest stations
• D. Any caller is welcome to respond

G1E05

27. What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

• A. The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
• B. They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
• C. They must be for other licensed amateurs
• D. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

G2C04

28. What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

• A. "Are you busy?" or "Is this frequency in use?"
• B. "Are you listening only for a specific station?"
• C. "Will you keep the frequency clear?"
• D. "Are you operating full break-in?" or "Can you operate full break-in?"

G2D10

29. What is QRP operation?

• A. Low-power transmit operation
• B. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
• C. Traffic relay procedure net operation
• D. Remote piloted model control

G1B01

30. What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

• A. 200 feet
• B. 50 feet
• C. 250 feet
• D. 100 feet

G6A03

31. What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

• A. 1.0 volts
• B. 0.7 volts
• C. 0.3 volts
• D. 0.1 volt

G0A04

32. What does "time averaging" mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

• A. The total time of the exposure
• B. The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
• C. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
• D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

G4D11

33. How close to the upper edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

• A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
• B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
• C. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
• D. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

G4B09

34. When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

• A. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
• B. When testing logic circuits
• C. When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
• D. When high precision is desired

G1C05

35. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

• A. 1500 watts PEP output
• B. 2000 watts PEP output
• C. 100 watts PEP output
• D. 1000 watts PEP output