Practice Exam

G9A04

1. What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

• A. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
• B. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
• C. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
• D. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle

G2B06

2. How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

• A. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
• B. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
• C. Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use," then give your call sign and listen for a response
• D. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say "test" several times and listen for a response

G0B11

3. Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

• A. They must be bonded together with all other grounds
• B. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
• C. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
• D. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

G7B01

4. What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

• A. To limit the modulation index
• B. To keep the carrier on frequency
• C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
• D. To eliminate self-oscillations

G2E04

5. Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

• A. Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station's frequency
• B. Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
• C. Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
• D. Always call on the station's frequency

G3B10

6. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

• A. 1,200 miles
• B. 180 miles
• C. 2,500 miles
• D. 12,000 miles

G1C04

7. Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

• A. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
• B. You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
• C. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
• D. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

G2C01

8. Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

• A. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
• B. Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
• C. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign "BK"
• D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

G5C09

9. What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

• A. 3.0 microfarads
• B. 300 microfarads
• C. 0.33 microfarads
• D. 33.3 microfarads

G3C02

10. What is meant by the term "critical frequency" at a given incidence angle?

• A. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
• B. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
• C. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
• D. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

G4B10

11. Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

• A. Antenna front-to-back ratio
• B. RF interference
• C. Radio wave propagation
• D. Standing wave ratio

G7A10

12. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

• A. Symbol 1
• B. Symbol 4
• C. Symbol 5
• D. Symbol 11

G0A05

13. What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

• A. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
• D. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

G3A14

14. How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

• A. HF communication is improved
• B. HF communication is disturbed
• C. VHF/UHF ducting is improved
• D. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

G9C07

15. What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

• A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
• B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
• C. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
• D. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

G1B02

16. With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

• A. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
• B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
• C. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
• D. All these choices are correct

G4D01

17. What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

• A. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
• B. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
• C. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
• D. Prevent distortion of voice signals

G4E01

18. What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

• A. To lower the radiation angle
• B. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
• C. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
• D. To reduce radiation resistance

G5A12

19. What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

• A. Current and voltage are equal
• B. The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
• C. Resistance is cancelled
• D. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

G6A06

20. Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

• A. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate
• B. The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
• C. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit
• D. The resistor could overheat

G7C13

21. What term specifies a filter's maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

• A. Ultimate rejection
• B. Notch depth
• C. Rolloff
• D. Insertion loss

G9D11

22. Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

• A. They must be fed with open wire line
• B. They must be used with an antenna tuner
• C. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
• D. They have poor harmonic rejection

G1A01

23. On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

• A. 80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
• B. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
• C. 160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
• D. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

G8C15

24. What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

• A. The signal is 3 dB over S9
• B. The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
• C. The signal is S3 (weak signals)
• D. The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth

G1E08

25. What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

• A. 10 watts
• B. 1500 watts
• C. 100 milliwatts
• D. 100 watts

G4C02

26. Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

• A. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
• B. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
• C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
• D. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

G1D12

27. When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

• A. Only those of the FCC
• B. Those of both the remote station's country and the FCC
• C. Those of the remote station's country and the FCC's third-party regulations
• D. Only those of the remote station's country

G4A05

28. Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

• A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
• B. To increase overall efficiency
• C. To prevent excessive drive
• D. To reduce harmonic radiation

G2A12

29. What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

• A. RF clipping level
• B. Transmit audio or microphone gain
• C. Antenna inductance or capacitance
• D. Attenuator level

G2D11

30. Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

• A. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
• B. To follow standard radiogram structure
• C. To allow each station to operate according to conditions
• D. To be sure the contact will count for award programs

G8B02

31. What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

• A. Mixer interference
• B. Image response
• C. Quadrature response
• D. Intermediate interference

G8A06

32. Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

• A. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
• B. It is sideband sensitive
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Its encoding provides error correction

G6B03

33. Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

• A. High power handling capability
• B. Better suited for power supply regulation
• C. Better suited for RF amplification
• D. Low power consumption

G9B11

34. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

• A. 263 feet
• B. 42 feet
• C. 132 feet
• D. 84 feet

G5B13

35. What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

• A. 2120 watts
• B. 1500 watts
• C. 530 watts
• D. 1060 watts