Practice Exam

G0A09

1. What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

• A. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
• B. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
• C. A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
• D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

G1D07

2. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
• B. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
• C. The Universal Licensing System
• D. The Federal Communications Commission

G2B10

3. Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

• A. Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
• B. Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions

G9A04

4. What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

• A. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
• B. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
• C. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
• D. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

G3C04

5. What does the term "critical angle" mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

• A. The long path azimuth of a distant station
• B. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
• C. The short path azimuth of a distant station
• D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

G9D04

6. What is the primary function of antenna traps?

• A. To provide balanced feed point impedance
• B. To notch spurious frequencies
• C. To enable multiband operation
• D. To prevent out-of-band operation

G2C07

7. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

• A. 100 percent copy
• B. Chirpy or unstable signal
• C. Key clicks
• D. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated

G5A05

8. How does an inductor react to AC?

• A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G7B04

9. In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

• A. More than 50% but less than 100%
• B. 50%
• C. 100%
• D. Less than 50%

G7A03

10. Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

• A. Full-wave
• B. Half-wave
• C. Synchronous
• D. Full-wave bridge

G9C05

11. What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

• A. Gain increases
• B. Beamwidth increases
• C. Resonant frequency is lower
• D. Front-to-back ratio decreases

G1C06

12. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

• A. 1200 watts PEP output
• B. 200 watts PEP output
• C. 1000 watts PEP output
• D. 1500 watts PEP output

G1E04

13. Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
• C. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
• D. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary

G1B05

14. Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

• A. Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
• D. Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration

G5C02

15. What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

• A. The input voltage is multiplied by 4
• B. Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
• C. Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
• D. The input voltage is divided by 4

G4C02

16. Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

• A. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
• B. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
• C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
• D. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

G5B14

17. What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

• A. 2500 watts
• B. 5000 watts
• C. 8.75 watts
• D. 625 watts

G8C03

18. What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

• A. Directory
• B. Trailer
• C. Preamble
• D. Header

G6A09

19. Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

• A. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
• B. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
• C. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
• D. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

G3A14

20. How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

• A. VHF/UHF ducting is improved
• B. HF communication is disturbed
• C. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
• D. HF communication is improved

G2A10

21. Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

• A. It provides more power output
• B. The received signal is more natural sounding
• C. It allows "hands free" operation
• D. It occupies less bandwidth

G4D02

22. How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

• A. It reduces harmonic distortion
• B. It increases average power
• C. It increases peak power
• D. It reduces intermodulation distortion

G1A04

23. Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

• A. 60 meters
• B. 11 meters
• C. 30 meters
• D. 12 meters

G7C01

24. What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

• A. Carrier oscillator
• B. Filter
• C. IF amplifier
• D. RF amplifier

G3B12

25. Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

• A. Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
• B. Poor propagation at any time of day
• C. World-wide propagation during daylight hours
• D. High levels of atmospheric noise or static

G4B02

26. Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

• A. Complex waveforms can be measured
• B. Complex impedances can be easily measured
• C. Greater precision
• D. An oscilloscope uses less power

G2D02

27. Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

• A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
• B. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
• C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
• D. To provide emergency and public safety communications

G4E05

28. Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

• A. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
• B. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
• C. "Picket fencing"
• D. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

G2E03

29. What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Failure to establish a connection between stations
• C. Long pauses in message transmission
• D. Frequent retries or timeouts

G0B01

30. Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

• A. Only the neutral wire
• B. All wires
• C. Only the hot wires
• D. Only the ground wire

G6B08

31. How is an LED biased when emitting light?

• A. Forward biased
• B. Reverse biased
• C. At the Zener voltage
• D. In the tunnel-effect region

G9B03

32. Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

• A. Isotropic
• B. Hemispherical
• C. Omnidirectional in azimuth
• D. Bi-directional in azimuth

G4A07

33. What happens as a receiver's noise reduction control level is increased?

• A. Received frequency may shift several kHz
• B. Received signals may become distorted
• C. Received frequency may become unstable
• D. CW signals may become severely attenuated

G8B09

34. Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

• A. It is required by FCC rules
• B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
• C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna
• D. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

G8A06

35. Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

• A. It is sideband sensitive
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
• D. Its encoding provides error correction