Practice Exam

G4C03

1. What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

• A. On-and-off humming or clicking
• B. Distorted speech
• C. Clearly audible speech
• D. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air

G8C13

2. What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

• A. Overmodulation
• B. Insufficient modulation
• C. Long path propagation
• D. Backscatter propagation

G9B05

3. How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

• A. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
• B. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
• C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
• D. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

G8B06

4. What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

• A. 8 kHz
• B. 3 kHz
• C. 16 kHz
• D. 5 kHz

G0B05

5. Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

• A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
• D. Overvoltage on the hot wires

G7A04

6. What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

• A. Only one diode is required
• B. The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
• C. The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
• D. More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

G2A10

7. Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

• A. It occupies less bandwidth
• B. It provides more power output
• C. The received signal is more natural sounding
• D. It allows "hands free" operation

G3A09

8. How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

• A. Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
• B. Reduce long delayed echoes
• C. Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
• D. Improve HF long path propagation

G0A02

9. Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

• A. Its duty cycle
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Its power density
• D. Its frequency

G1A06

10. Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

• A. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
• B. Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
• C. Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
• D. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

G7B06

11. What is a shift register?

• A. A digital mixer
• B. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
• C. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
• D. An analog mixer

G9A08

12. If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

• A. 5:1
• B. 1:1
• C. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
• D. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

G1E07

13. In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

• A. Channels 42 through 45
• B. Channels 1 through 4
• C. No part
• D. Anywhere in the band

G9D04

14. What is the primary function of antenna traps?

• A. To provide balanced feed point impedance
• B. To notch spurious frequencies
• C. To enable multiband operation
• D. To prevent out-of-band operation

G2D07

15. Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

• A. Adam, Boy, Charles, David
• B. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
• C. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
• D. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

G4E02

16. What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

• A. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
• B. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
• C. To increase the "Q" of the antenna
• D. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

G5C09

17. What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

• A. 33.3 microfarads
• B. 300 microfarads
• C. 0.33 microfarads
• D. 3.0 microfarads

G3C11

18. Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

• A. The F1 region
• B. The D region
• C. The E region
• D. The F2 region

G8A06

19. Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

• A. It is sideband sensitive
• B. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
• C. Its encoding provides error correction
• D. All these choices are correct

G1C07

20. What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

• A. Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
• B. Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
• C. Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
• D. Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

G4B06

21. What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

• A. Better for measuring computer circuits
• B. Higher precision
• C. Less prone to overload
• D. Faster response

G1B03

22. Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

• A. Observation of propagation and reception
• B. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Automatic identification of repeaters

G3B08

23. What does MUF stand for?

• A. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• D. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

G5A10

24. Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

• A. A transformer
• B. A length of transmission line
• C. A Pi-network
• D. All these choices are correct

G7C03

25. What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

• A. To minimize radiation resistance
• B. To reduce power supply ripple
• C. To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
• D. To minimize transmitter power output

G2C09

26. What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

• A. I have received and understood
• B. We have already confirmed the contact
• C. We have worked before
• D. Send slower

G5B14

27. What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

• A. 5000 watts
• B. 625 watts
• C. 2500 watts
• D. 8.75 watts

G2B01

28. Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

• A. QSOs in progress have priority
• B. Nets have priority
• C. Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
• D. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency

G6A03

29. What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

• A. 0.7 volts
• B. 0.3 volts
• C. 1.0 volts
• D. 0.1 volt

G1D03

30. On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

• A. On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
• B. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
• C. Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
• D. On any General or Technician class band segment

G9C09

31. In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

• A. Approximately 3 dB higher
• B. Approximately 1.5 dB higher
• C. Approximately 9 dB higher
• D. Approximately 6 dB higher

G2E01

32. Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

• A. LSB
• B. DSB
• C. CW
• D. USB

G6B10

33. How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

• A. By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
• B. By creating an impedance in the current's path
• C. Ferrites expel magnetic fields
• D. It converts common-mode current to differential mode current

G4D06

34. How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

• A. 18 dB
• B. 12 dB
• C. 6 dB
• D. 15 dB

G4A03

35. How does a noise blanker work?

• A. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
• B. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
• C. By clipping noise peaks
• D. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth