Practice Exam

G9C12

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
• C. It does not require any inductors or capacitors
• D. It is useful for matching multiband antennas

G8B10

2. What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

• A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
• B. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• C. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
• D. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

G7B10

3. Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

• A. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
• B. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
• C. A Class C high efficiency amplifier
• D. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver

G6B11

4. What is an SMA connector?

• A. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
• B. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
• C. A type-S to type-M adaptor
• D. A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications

G2D11

5. Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

• A. To be sure the contact will count for award programs
• B. To allow each station to operate according to conditions
• C. To follow standard radiogram structure
• D. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

G7A10

6. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

• A. Symbol 11
• B. Symbol 1
• C. Symbol 4
• D. Symbol 5

G1A10

7. What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

• A. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
• B. The portion above 29.5 MHz
• C. The entire band
• D. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz

G3A01

8. How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

• A. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
• B. A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
• C. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
• D. A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band

G8A13

9. What is a link budget?

• A. The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
• B. The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
• C. The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
• D. The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity

G1C04

10. Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

• A. You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
• B. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
• C. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
• D. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

G1D11

11. What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

• A. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
• B. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
• C. Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
• D. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

G5A09

12. What unit is used to measure reactance?

• A. Ampere
• B. Ohm
• C. Farad
• D. Siemens

G1E05

13. What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

• A. They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
• B. The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
• C. They must be for other licensed amateurs
• D. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief

G8C16

14. Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

• A. Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
• B. DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
• C. WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
• D. FT8, FT4, and FST4

G5C13

15. Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

• A. An inductor in parallel
• B. A capacitor in parallel
• C. A capacitor in series
• D. An inductor in series

G2C01

16. Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

• A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign "BK"
• B. Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
• C. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
• D. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

G0B01

17. Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

• A. Only the neutral wire
• B. All wires
• C. Only the ground wire
• D. Only the hot wires

G4B08

18. What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

• A. Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
• B. Linearity
• C. Percentage of carrier phase shift
• D. Percentage of frequency modulation

G0A06

19. What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

• A. Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
• B. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
• C. Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
• D. Contact the FCC for permission to transmit

G4A10

20. What is the function of an electronic keyer?

• A. Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
• B. Automatic transmit/receive switching
• C. To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
• D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

G9A08

21. If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

• A. 1:1
• B. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
• C. 5:1
• D. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

G2A11

22. Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling "CQ DX"?

• A. Only stations in Germany
• B. Only contest stations
• C. Any caller is welcome to respond
• D. Any stations outside the lower 48 states

G6A11

23. What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

• A. Its reactance increases
• B. Catastrophic failure is likely
• C. Harmonics are generated
• D. It becomes capacitive

G3C05

24. Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

• A. The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
• B. The E region is unstable during daylight hours
• C. The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
• D. The F region is unstable during daylight hours

G4C04

25. What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

• A. On-and-off humming or clicking
• B. A chirpy CW signal
• C. Severely distorted audio
• D. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency

G2B09

26. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

• A. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
• B. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
• C. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
• D. Only a RACES net control operator

G2E01

27. Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

• A. DSB
• B. USB
• C. CW
• D. LSB

G4D04

28. What does an S meter measure?

• A. Carrier suppression
• B. Impedance
• C. Received signal strength
• D. Transmitter power output

G9D04

29. What is the primary function of antenna traps?

• A. To provide balanced feed point impedance
• B. To enable multiband operation
• C. To notch spurious frequencies
• D. To prevent out-of-band operation

G7C05

30. Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

• A. Relatively high-power output
• B. Pure sine wave output
• C. Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
• D. Extremely narrow tuning range

G4E04

31. Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

• A. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
• B. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
• C. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
• D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

G3B11

32. What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

• A. Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
• B. Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
• C. HF communications over the path are enhanced
• D. Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

G1B10

33. What is the power limit for beacon stations?

• A. 20 watts PEP output
• B. 100 watts PEP output
• C. 200 watts PEP output
• D. 10 watts PEP output

G9B07

34. How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

• A. It is unaffected by the height above ground
• B. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
• C. It steadily increases
• D. It steadily decreases

G5B09

35. What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

• A. 34 volts
• B. 24 volts
• C. 12 volts
• D. 8.5 volts