Practice Exam

G3B04

1. Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

• A. Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
• D. Check the A-index

G5C03

2. What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

• A. 0.17 ohms
• B. 5.9 ohms
• C. 17 ohms
• D. 80 ohms

G5A10

3. Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. A length of transmission line
• C. A Pi-network
• D. A transformer

G9A03

4. What is the nominal characteristic impedance of "window line" transmission line?

• A. 100 ohms
• B. 75 ohms
• C. 450 ohms
• D. 50 ohms

G0B10

5. Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

• A. Tin in the solder can "cold flow," causing shorts in the circuit
• B. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
• C. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
• D. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly

G5B07

6. What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

• A. The peak value
• B. The reciprocal of the RMS value
• C. The peak-to-peak value
• D. The RMS value

G1C05

7. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

• A. 1000 watts PEP output
• B. 100 watts PEP output
• C. 2000 watts PEP output
• D. 1500 watts PEP output

G3C05

8. Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

• A. The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
• B. The F region is unstable during daylight hours
• C. The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
• D. The E region is unstable during daylight hours

G9B06

9. Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

• A. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
• B. Parallel to the antenna element
• C. As high as possible above the ground
• D. At the center of the antenna

G4C07

10. Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

• A. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
• D. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

G4B04

11. What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

• A. An external RF oscillator
• B. The transmitter balanced mixer output
• C. The local oscillator of the transmitter
• D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

G1B07

12. What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

• A. They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
• B. They are not permitted
• C. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
• D. Only "Q" signals are permitted

G7C06

13. Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

• A. Fewer digital components are required
• B. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
• C. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
• D. Mixing products are greatly reduced

G4E05

14. Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

• A. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
• B. "Picket fencing"
• C. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
• D. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

G9D01

15. Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

• A. A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
• B. A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
• C. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
• D. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

G0A05

16. What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

• A. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
• D. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC

G1D08

17. Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

• A. The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
• B. None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
• C. The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
• D. The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years

G8B13

18. Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

• A. 2F1-F2
• B. 3F1-F2
• C. 5F1-3F2
• D. All these choices are correct

G8C14

19. Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

• A. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
• B. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
• C. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
• D. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity

G2A03

20. Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

• A. Suppressed sideband
• B. Upper sideband
• C. Lower sideband
• D. Double sideband

G8A02

21. What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

• A. Phase convolution
• B. Phase modulation
• C. Phase inversion
• D. Phase transformation

G2D11

22. Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

• A. To allow each station to operate according to conditions
• B. To follow standard radiogram structure
• C. To be sure the contact will count for award programs
• D. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

G7B03

23. Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

• A. Output is low only when both inputs are high
• B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
• C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
• D. Output is high when either or both inputs are low

G2E14

24. What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. You may have selected the wrong baud rate
• C. You may be listening on the wrong sideband
• D. The mark and space frequencies may be reversed

G4A03

25. How does a noise blanker work?

• A. By clipping noise peaks
• B. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
• C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
• D. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

G3A13

26. What does the A-index measure?

• A. The long-term stability of Earth's geomagnetic field
• B. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
• C. The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
• D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

G2C06

27. What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

• A. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
• B. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
• C. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
• D. Sending without error

G1E06

28. The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

• A. Region 2
• B. Region 4
• C. Region 1
• D. Region 3

G4D11

29. How close to the upper edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

• A. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
• B. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
• C. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
• D. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

G6A11

30. What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

• A. Catastrophic failure is likely
• B. It becomes capacitive
• C. Its reactance increases
• D. Harmonics are generated

G7A03

31. Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

• A. Full-wave
• B. Full-wave bridge
• C. Half-wave
• D. Synchronous

G1A09

32. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

• A. 24900 kHz
• B. 14250 kHz
• C. 21300 kHz
• D. 18155 kHz

G9C10

33. Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

• A. The physical length of the boom
• B. The spacing of each element along the boom
• C. The number of elements on the boom
• D. All these choices are correct

G6B03

34. Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

• A. Better suited for RF amplification
• B. Low power consumption
• C. Better suited for power supply regulation
• D. High power handling capability

G2B11

35. How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

• A. No more than 2 hours per month
• B. No more than 1 hour per week
• C. No more than 2 hours per week
• D. No more than 1 hour per month