Practice Exam

G3A01

1. How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

• A. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
• B. A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
• C. A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
• D. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies

G9B11

2. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

• A. 132 feet
• B. 263 feet
• C. 42 feet
• D. 84 feet

G8C07

3. Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

• A. MFSK32
• B. FT8
• C. MSK144
• D. AMTOR

G9D10

4. In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

• A. Broadside to the loop
• B. Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
• C. In the plane of the loop
• D. Broadside and in the plane of the loop

G1C01

5. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 1500 watts PEP output
• B. 200 watts PEP output
• C. 1000 watts PEP output
• D. 2000 watts PEP output

G2D03

6. What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

• A. Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
• B. Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors

G7C11

7. Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Detection
• C. Filtering
• D. Modulation

G7B04

8. In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

• A. Less than 50%
• B. 100%
• C. 50%
• D. More than 50% but less than 100%

G6A05

9. What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

• A. 0.1 volt
• B. 1.0 volts
• C. 0.3 volts
• D. 0.7 volts

G1E04

10. Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
• C. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
• D. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions

G1A05

11. On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

• A. All of the above
• B. 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
• C. 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
• D. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz

G4D05

12. How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

• A. It is 100 times more powerful
• B. It is 10 times less powerful
• C. It is 20 times more powerful
• D. It is 20 times less powerful

G2B08

13. What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

• A. Only SSTV contacts
• B. Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
• C. Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
• D. Only digital contacts

G1D07

14. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. The Universal Licensing System
• B. The Federal Communications Commission
• C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
• D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

G2A02

15. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

• A. Lower sideband
• B. Upper sideband
• C. Suppressed sideband
• D. Double sideband

G3C03

16. Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

• A. Because of temperature inversions
• B. Because it is the highest
• C. Because of the Doppler effect
• D. Because it is the densest

G2E11

17. What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

• A. To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
• B. To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
• C. To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
• D. To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide

G0B07

18. Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

• A. Always hold on to the tower with one hand
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
• D. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

G4E08

19. In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

• A. Series-parallel
• B. Shunt
• C. Bypass
• D. Full-wave bridge

G4A09

20. What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter's keying line to an external amplifier?

• A. To prevent key clicks on CW
• B. To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
• C. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
• D. To prevent transient overmodulation

G5C02

21. What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

• A. Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
• B. Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
• C. The input voltage is multiplied by 4
• D. The input voltage is divided by 4

G2C01

22. Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

• A. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
• B. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign "BK"
• C. Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
• D. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

G9A08

23. If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

• A. 5:1
• B. 1:1
• C. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
• D. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line

G3B05

24. How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

• A. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
• B. They pass through the ionosphere
• C. They are refracted back to Earth
• D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

G8B05

25. Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

• A. Even-order
• B. Intercept point
• C. Odd-order
• D. Second harmonics

G6B02

26. What is meant by the term MMIC?

• A. Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
• B. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
• C. Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
• D. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

G0A02

27. Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

• A. Its duty cycle
• B. Its power density
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Its frequency

G5A05

28. How does an inductor react to AC?

• A. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• C. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G9C11

29. What is a beta or hairpin match?

• A. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
• B. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
• C. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
• D. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching

G7A01

30. What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

• A. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
• B. It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
• C. It eliminates ground loop current
• D. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

G5B01

31. What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

• A. Approximately 2 dB
• B. Approximately 9 dB
• C. Approximately 3 dB
• D. Approximately 6 dB

G4C04

32. What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

• A. A chirpy CW signal
• B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
• C. On-and-off humming or clicking
• D. Severely distorted audio

G8A04

33. What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

• A. Phase modulation
• B. Pulse modulation
• C. Multiplex modulation
• D. Amplitude modulation

G1B02

34. With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

• A. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
• B. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
• C. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
• D. All these choices are correct

G4B04

35. What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

• A. The transmitter balanced mixer output
• B. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
• C. An external RF oscillator
• D. The local oscillator of the transmitter