Practice Exam

G1E10

1. Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

• A. A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
• B. These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
• C. These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
• D. A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies

G4E03

2. Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

• A. To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
• B. To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
• C. To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
• D. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

G6A09

3. Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

• A. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
• B. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
• C. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
• D. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer

G5A11

4. What letter is used to represent reactance?

• A. Y
• B. Z
• C. B
• D. X

G2B05

5. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• B. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• C. Approximately 6 kHz
• D. 2 kHz to 3 kHz

G3C02

6. What is meant by the term "critical frequency" at a given incidence angle?

• A. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
• B. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
• C. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
• D. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

G7A10

7. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

• A. Symbol 11
• B. Symbol 5
• C. Symbol 1
• D. Symbol 4

G8B13

8. Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

• A. 3F1-F2
• B. 5F1-3F2
• C. 2F1-F2
• D. All these choices are correct

G1A07

9. On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

• A. The entire band
• B. 28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
• C. 28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
• D. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only

G0A03

10. How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
• C. By calculation based on computer modeling
• D. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

G2A06

11. Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

• A. Very high-fidelity voice modulation
• B. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
• C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
• D. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

G4A04

12. What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier's TUNE control?

• A. A slow, rhythmic oscillation
• B. A pronounced dip
• C. No change will be observed
• D. A pronounced peak

G2E06

13. What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

• A. 170 Hz
• B. 85 Hz
• C. 850 Hz
• D. 425 Hz

G7B01

14. What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

• A. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
• B. To limit the modulation index
• C. To eliminate self-oscillations
• D. To keep the carrier on frequency

G5B07

15. What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

• A. The reciprocal of the RMS value
• B. The peak value
• C. The peak-to-peak value
• D. The RMS value

G4D11

16. How close to the upper edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

• A. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
• B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
• C. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
• D. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

G3B02

17. What factors affect the MUF?

• A. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Time of day and season
• D. Path distance and location

G4B08

18. What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

• A. Linearity
• B. Percentage of frequency modulation
• C. Percentage of carrier phase shift
• D. Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB

G2D01

19. What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

• A. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
• B. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
• C. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
• D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

G9C07

20. What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

• A. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
• B. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
• C. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
• D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

G7C08

21. Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

• A. Demodulator stage bandwidth
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Input amplifier gain
• D. Input amplifier noise figure

G9B11

22. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

• A. 42 feet
• B. 263 feet
• C. 132 feet
• D. 84 feet

G3A13

23. What does the A-index measure?

• A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
• B. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
• C. The long-term stability of Earth's geomagnetic field
• D. The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field

G0B06

24. Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

• A. RF exposure limits of the human body
• B. Acceptable modulation limits
• C. Electrical safety of the station
• D. Acceptable bandwidth limits

G4C11

25. What technique helps to minimize RF "hot spots" in an amateur station?

• A. Bonding all equipment enclosures together
• B. Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
• C. Using surge suppressor power outlets
• D. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure

G5C07

26. What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna's 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

• A. 12 to 1
• B. 144 to 1
• C. 3.5 to 1
• D. 24 to 1

G1B10

27. What is the power limit for beacon stations?

• A. 100 watts PEP output
• B. 200 watts PEP output
• C. 20 watts PEP output
• D. 10 watts PEP output

G2C03

28. What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

• A. Listening only for a specific station or stations
• B. Operating full break-in
• C. Closing station now
• D. No US stations should call

G8A02

29. What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

• A. Phase convolution
• B. Phase inversion
• C. Phase modulation
• D. Phase transformation

G1C09

30. What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

• A. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
• B. 1500 watts PEP
• C. 10 watts RMS
• D. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

G6B07

31. Which of the following describes a type N connector?

• A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
• B. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
• C. A nickel plated version of the PL-259
• D. A low noise figure VHF connector

G8C06

32. What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

• A. Encoding reverts to the default character set
• B. The checksum overflows
• C. Packets will be routed incorrectly
• D. The connection is dropped

G9D10

33. In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

• A. In the plane of the loop
• B. Broadside to the loop
• C. Broadside and in the plane of the loop
• D. Electrically small loops are omnidirectional

G9A05

34. How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

• A. Attenuation follows Marconi's Law of Attenuation
• B. Attenuation is independent of frequency
• C. Attenuation decreases
• D. Attenuation increases

G1D01

35. Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

• A. Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
• B. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
• C. Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
• D. Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license