Practice Exam

T5B11

1. Which decibel value represents a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?

• A. 18 dB
• B. 12 dB
• C. 28 dB
• D. 10 dB

T3C08

2. What causes tropospheric ducting?

• A. Sunspots and solar flares
• B. Temperature inversions in the atmosphere
• C. Discharges of lightning during electrical storms
• D. Updrafts from hurricanes and tornadoes

T1D04

3. Under what conditions is an amateur station authorized to transmit music using a phone emission?

• A. When transmissions are limited to less than three minutes per hour
• B. When the music produces no spurious emissions
• C. When the music is transmitted above 1280 MHz
• D. When incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications

T6D07

4. Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?

• A. FET
• B. Zener diode
• C. LED
• D. Bipolar transistor

T1B05

5. How may amateurs use the 219 to 220 MHz segment of 1.25 meter band?

• A. Fixed digital message forwarding systems only
• B. Spread spectrum only
• C. Fast-scan television only
• D. Emergency traffic only

T5C08

6. What is the formula used to calculate electrical power (P) in a DC circuit?

• A. P = E + I
• B. P = E * I
• C. P = E / I
• D. P = E - I

T8D03

7. What kind of data can be transmitted by APRS?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. GPS position data
• C. Weather data
• D. Text messages

T6C05

8. What is component 4 in figure T-1?

• A. Transistor
• B. Resistor
• C. Battery
• D. Ground symbol

T9A09

9. What is the approximate length, in inches, of a half-wavelength 6 meter dipole antenna?

• A. 50
• B. 236
• C. 6
• D. 112

T0B11

10. Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?

• A. Local electrical codes
• B. FAA tower lighting regulations
• C. FCC Part 97 rules
• D. UL recommended practices

T3A12

11. What is the effect of fog and rain on signals in the 10 meter and 6 meter bands?

• A. Deflection
• B. Range increase
• C. There is little effect
• D. Absorption

T3B01

12. What is the relationship between the electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave?

• A. They revolve in opposite directions
• B. They are in parallel
• C. They travel at different speeds
• D. They are at right angles

T5D05

13. What is the resistance of a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?

• A. 0.125 ohms
• B. 13.5 ohms
• C. 18 ohms
• D. 8 ohms

T6A12

14. What type of switch is represented by component 3 in figure T-2?

• A. Double-pole single-throw
• B. Single-pole double-throw
• C. Single-pole single-throw
• D. Double-pole double-throw

T2C08

15. Which of the following is a characteristic of good traffic handling?

• A. Ensuring that any newsworthy messages are relayed to the news media
• B. Passing messages exactly as received
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Making decisions as to whether messages are worthy of relay or delivery

T4B11

16. Which of the following must be programmed into a D-STAR digital transceiver before transmitting?

• A. The codec type being used
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Your call sign
• D. Your output power

T8A11

17. What is the approximate bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?

• A. 150 Hz
• B. 1000 Hz
• C. 2.4 kHz
• D. 15 kHz

T0A09

18. What should be done to all external ground rods or earth connections?

• A. Tune them for resonance on the lowest frequency of operation
• B. Keep them as far apart as possible
• C. Waterproof them with silicone caulk or electrical tape
• D. Bond them together with heavy wire or conductive strap

T7D11

19. Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring in-circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?

• A. Ensure that the circuit is operating at the correct frequency
• B. Ensure that the circuit is grounded
• C. Ensure that the circuit is not powered
• D. Ensure that the applied voltages are correct

T6B04

20. Which of the following components can consist of three regions of semiconductor material?

• A. Pentagrid converter
• B. Alternator
• C. Transistor
• D. Triode

T9B04

21. What is the major function of an antenna tuner (antenna coupler)?

• A. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance
• B. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive
• C. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used
• D. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations

T8C04

22. Which of the following is good procedure when contacting another station in a contest?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Sign only the last two letters of your call if there are many other stations calling
• C. Contact the station twice to be sure that you are in his log
• D. Send only the minimum information needed for proper identification and the contest exchange

T2A06

23. Which of the following is required when making on-the-air test transmissions?

• A. Notify the FCC of the transmissions
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Identify the transmitting station
• D. Conduct tests only between 10 p.m. and 6 a.m. local time

T1F02

24. How often must you identify with your FCC-assigned call sign when using tactical call signs such as "Race Headquarters"?

• A. Once during every hour
• B. At the end of each communication and every ten minutes during a communication
• C. At the end of every transmission
• D. Never, the tactical call is sufficient

T2B06

25. What type of signaling uses pairs of audio tones?

• A. CTCSS
• B. GPRS
• C. DTMF
• D. D-STAR

T8B02

26. What is the impact of using excessive effective radiated power on a satellite uplink?

• A. Possibility of rebooting the satellite control computer
• B. Overloading the satellite batteries
• C. Blocking access by other users
• D. Possibility of commanding the satellite to an improper mode

T5A01

27. Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?

• A. Volts
• B. Ohms
• C. Amperes
• D. Watts

T7C08

28. Which instrument can be used to determine SWR?

• A. Iambic pentameter
• B. Ohmmeter
• C. Voltmeter
• D. Directional wattmeter

T1A05

29. What proves that the FCC has issued an operator/primary license grant?

• A. A printed copy of the certificate of successful completion of examination
• B. The license appears in the FCC ULS database
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. An email notification from the NCVEC granting the license

T1E05

30. What is an amateur station's control point?

• A. The location at which the control operator function is performed
• B. The location of the station's transmitting antenna
• C. The mailing address of the station licensee
• D. The location of the station's transmitting apparatus

T0C05

31. Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?

• A. Lower frequency RF fields have more energy than higher frequency fields
• B. Higher frequency RF fields are transient in nature
• C. The human body absorbs more RF energy at some frequencies than at others
• D. Lower frequency RF fields do not penetrate the human body

T7A08

32. Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?

• A. Impedance matching
• B. Modulation
• C. Oscillation
• D. Low-pass filtering

T7B07

33. Which of the following can reduce overload of a VHF transceiver by a nearby commercial FM station?

• A. Installing bypass capacitors on the microphone cable
• B. Using double-shielded coaxial cable
• C. Installing an RF preamplifier
• D. Installing a band-reject filter

T1C02

34. Who may select a desired call sign under the vanity call sign rules?

• A. Only a licensed amateur with an Amateur Extra Class license
• B. Only a licensed amateur with a General or Amateur Extra Class license
• C. Any licensed amateur
• D. Only a licensed amateur who has been licensed continuously for more than 10 years

T4A01

35. Which of the following is an appropriate power supply rating for a typical 50 watt output mobile FM transceiver?

• A. 24.0 volts at 12 amperes
• B. 24.0 volts at 4 amperes
• C. 13.8 volts at 4 amperes
• D. 13.8 volts at 12 amperes