Practice Exam

T8C08

1. What is the Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP)?

• A. A system for informing amateurs in real time of the frequency of active DX stations
• B. A technique to connect amateur radio systems, such as repeaters, via the internet using Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)
• C. A technique for measuring signal strength of an amateur transmitter via the internet
• D. A system for providing access to websites via amateur radio

T7C05

2. Why do most solid-state transmitters reduce output power as SWR increases beyond a certain level?

• A. To protect the output amplifier transistors
• B. Because power supplies cannot supply enough current at high SWR
• C. To lower the SWR on the transmission line
• D. To comply with FCC rules on spectral purity

T8D06

3. What does the abbreviation "PSK" mean?

• A. Phased Slide Keying
• B. Pulse Shift Keying
• C. Packet Short Keying
• D. Phase Shift Keying

T7D07

4. Which of the following measurements are made using a multimeter?

• A. Impedance and reactance
• B. Signal strength and noise
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Voltage and resistance

T6D04

5. Which of the following displays an electrical quantity as a numeric value?

• A. Potentiometer
• B. Meter
• C. Relay
• D. Transistor

T3C10

6. Which of the following bands may provide long-distance communications via the ionosphere's F region during the peak of the sunspot cycle?

• A. 6 and 10 meters
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. 70 centimeters and 1.25 meters
• D. 23 centimeters

T1C08

7. What is the normal term for an FCC-issued amateur radio license?

• A. Eight years
• B. Five years
• C. Life
• D. Ten years

T4B11

8. Which of the following must be programmed into a D-STAR digital transceiver before transmitting?

• A. Your output power
• B. Your call sign
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. The codec type being used

T8A11

9. What is the approximate bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?

• A. 2.4 kHz
• B. 1000 Hz
• C. 15 kHz
• D. 150 Hz

T1F09

10. What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?

• A. Beacon station
• B. Message forwarding station
• C. Repeater station
• D. Earth station

T6B01

11. Which is true about forward voltage drop in a diode?

• A. It is lower in some diode types than in others
• B. It is proportional to peak inverse voltage
• C. It has no impact on the voltage delivered to the load
• D. It indicates that the diode is defective

T7B02

12. What would cause a broadcast AM or FM radio to receive an amateur radio transmission unintentionally?

• A. The microphone gain of the transmitter is turned up too high
• B. The receiver is unable to reject strong signals outside the AM or FM band
• C. The deviation of an FM transmitter is set too low
• D. The audio amplifier of the transmitter is overloaded

T0C07

13. What hazard is created by touching an antenna during a transmission?

• A. Radiation poisoning
• B. Electrocution
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. RF burn to skin

T5B13

14. Which is equal to 2425 MHz?

• A. 0.002425 GHz
• B. 2425 GHz
• C. 24.25 GHz
• D. 2.425 GHz

T1E01

15. When may an amateur station transmit without a control operator?

• A. When the station licensee is away and another licensed amateur is using the station
• B. Never
• C. When using automatic control, such as in the case of a repeater
• D. When the transmitting station is an auxiliary station

T9B04

16. What is the major function of an antenna tuner (antenna coupler)?

• A. It helps a receiver automatically tune in weak stations
• B. It allows an antenna to be used on both transmit and receive
• C. It automatically selects the proper antenna for the frequency band being used
• D. It matches the antenna system impedance to the transceiver's output impedance

T2A09

17. Which of the following indicates that a station is listening on a repeater and looking for a contact?

• A. The repeater call sign followed by the station's call sign
• B. "CQ CQ" followed by the repeater's call sign
• C. The station's call sign followed by the word "monitoring"
• D. "QSY" followed by your call sign

T6A12

18. What type of switch is represented by component 3 in figure T-2?

• A. Double-pole single-throw
• B. Single-pole single-throw
• C. Double-pole double-throw
• D. Single-pole double-throw

T1B09

19. Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?

• A. To allow for transmitter frequency drift
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display
• D. So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge

T9A03

20. Which of the following describes a simple dipole oriented parallel to Earth's surface?

• A. A horizontally polarized antenna
• B. A travelling-wave antenna
• C. A ground-wave antenna
• D. A vertically polarized antenna

T3B08

21. What frequency range is referred to as VHF?

• A. 30 kHz to 300 kHz
• B. 300 MHz to 3000 MHz
• C. 300 kHz to 3000 kHz
• D. 30 MHz to 300 MHz

T5D04

22. What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows when connected to 90 volts?

• A. 3 ohms
• B. 93 ohms
• C. 270 ohms
• D. 30 ohms

T2C10

23. What information is contained in the preamble of a formal traffic message?

• A. The email address of the originating station
• B. The address of the intended recipient
• C. Information needed to track the message
• D. The telephone number of the addressee

T5A08

24. Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?

• A. Mercury
• B. Aluminum
• C. Copper
• D. Glass

T1A03

25. What do the FCC rules state regarding the use of a phonetic alphabet for station identification in the Amateur Radio Service?

• A. It is required when in contact with foreign stations
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. It is required when transmitting emergency messages
• D. It is encouraged

T4A03

26. Why are short, heavy-gauge wires used for a transceiver's DC power connection?

• A. To minimize voltage drop when transmitting
• B. To avoid RF interference
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. To provide a good counterpoise for the antenna

T0A03

27. In the United States, what circuit does black wire insulation indicate in a three-wire 120 V cable?

• A. Hot
• B. Equipment ground
• C. Black insulation is never used
• D. Neutral

T6C05

28. What is component 4 in figure T-1?

• A. Battery
• B. Resistor
• C. Ground symbol
• D. Transistor

T5C04

29. What is the unit of inductance?

• A. The ohm
• B. The coulomb
• C. The henry
• D. The farad

T8B04

30. What mode of transmission is commonly used by amateur radio satellites?

• A. SSB
• B. CW/data
• C. FM
• D. All these choices are correct

T2B08

31. Which of the following applies when two stations transmitting on the same frequency interfere with each other?

• A. Both stations should choose another frequency to avoid conflict
• B. Use subaudible tones so both stations can share the frequency
• C. The stations should negotiate continued use of the frequency
• D. Interference is inevitable, so no action is required

T3A08

32. What is a likely cause of irregular fading of signals propagated by the ionosphere?

• A. Random combining of signals arriving via different paths
• B. Frequency shift due to Faraday rotation
• C. Intermodulation distortion
• D. Interference from thunderstorms

T0B09

33. Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?

• A. The 60 Hz radiations from the feed line may increase the SWR
• B. The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. The antenna could contact high-voltage power lines

T1D11

34. When may an amateur station transmit without identifying on the air?

• A. When transmitting signals to control model craft
• B. When the transmissions are of a brief nature to make station adjustments
• C. When the transmitted power level is below 1 watt
• D. When the transmissions are unmodulated

T7A04

35. Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?

• A. Sensitivity
• B. Harmonic distortion
• C. Selectivity
• D. Discrimination ratio