Practice Exam

T0A08

1. Where should a fuse or circuit breaker be installed in a 120V AC power circuit?

• A. In series with the hot and neutral conductors
• B. In parallel with the hot conductor only
• C. In parallel with the hot and neutral conductors
• D. In series with the hot conductor only

T1A04

2. How many operator/primary station license grants may be held by any one person?

• A. One for each band on which the person plans to operate
• B. One for each permanent station location from which the person plans to operate
• C. No more than two
• D. One

T8D08

3. Which of the following is included in packet radio transmissions?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Automatic repeat request in case of error
• C. A check sum that permits error detection
• D. A header that contains the call sign of the station to which the information is being sent

T0C11

4. What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?

• A. The difference between the PEP and average power output of a transmitter
• B. The percentage of time that a transmitter is not transmitting
• C. The percentage of time that a transmitter is transmitting
• D. The difference between the lowest power output and the highest power output of a transmitter

T3B01

5. What is the relationship between the electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave?

• A. They are at right angles
• B. They revolve in opposite directions
• C. They travel at different speeds
• D. They are in parallel

T8A06

6. Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF, and UHF single-sideband communications?

• A. Upper sideband
• B. Inverted sideband
• C. Suppressed sideband
• D. Lower sideband

T4B10

7. Which of the following receiver filter bandwidths provides the best signal-to-noise ratio for SSB reception?

• A. 500 Hz
• B. 1000 Hz
• C. 5000 Hz
• D. 2400 Hz

T1C05

8. Which of the following is a valid Technician class call sign format?

• A. W1XX
• B. KA1X
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. KF1XXX

T3C04

9. Which of the following types of propagation is most commonly associated with occasional strong signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands from beyond the radio horizon?

• A. Backscatter
• B. Gray-line propagation
• C. D region absorption
• D. Sporadic E

T6D10

10. What is the function of component 2 in figure T-1?

• A. Give off light when current flows through it
• B. Supply electrical energy
• C. Control the flow of current
• D. Convert electrical energy into radio waves

T1F05

11. What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?

• A. Send the call sign using a CW or phone emission
• B. Send the call sign followed by the indicator RPT
• C. Send the call sign followed by the indicator R
• D. Send the call sign using only a phone emission

T1B09

12. Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?

• A. To allow for calibration error in the transmitter frequency display
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. So that modulation sidebands do not extend beyond the band edge
• D. To allow for transmitter frequency drift

T9A03

13. Which of the following describes a simple dipole oriented parallel to Earth's surface?

• A. A horizontally polarized antenna
• B. A travelling-wave antenna
• C. A vertically polarized antenna
• D. A ground-wave antenna

T3A05

14. When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to communicate with a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?

• A. Try the long path
• B. Increase the antenna SWR
• C. Change from vertical to horizontal polarization
• D. Try to find a path that reflects signals to the repeater

T8C05

15. What is a grid locator?

• A. A letter-number designator assigned to an azimuth and elevation
• B. An instrument for radio direction finding
• C. An instrument for neutralizing a final amplifier
• D. A letter-number designator assigned to a geographic location

T7C11

16. What is a disadvantage of air core coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?

• A. It cannot be used for VHF or UHF antennas
• B. It cannot be used at below freezing temperatures
• C. It has more loss per foot
• D. It requires special techniques to prevent moisture in the cable

T6B11

17. What is the term that describes a device's ability to amplify a signal?

• A. Forward voltage drop
• B. On resistance
• C. Forward resistance
• D. Gain

T2B10

18. Which Q signal indicates that you are receiving interference from other stations?

• A. QRN
• B. QTH
• C. QRM
• D. QSB

T5C10

19. How much power is delivered by a voltage of 12 volts DC and a current of 2.5 amperes?

• A. 30 watts
• B. 0.208 watts
• C. 4.8 watts
• D. 14.5 watts

T1E07

20. When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station?

• A. Only the station licensee
• B. All licensed amateurs who are present at the operation
• C. Only the control operator
• D. The control operator and the station licensee

T9B06

21. Which of the following RF connector types is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz?

• A. DB-25
• B. UHF (PL-259/SO-239)
• C. Type N
• D. RS-213

T5A01

22. Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?

• A. Ohms
• B. Watts
• C. Amperes
• D. Volts

T0B09

23. Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?

• A. The antenna could contact high-voltage power lines
• B. The antenna will not work properly because of induced voltages
• C. The 60 Hz radiations from the feed line may increase the SWR
• D. All these choices are correct

T2C01

24. When do FCC rules NOT apply to the operation of an amateur station?

• A. When operating under special FEMA rules
• B. When operating under special ARES rules
• C. FCC rules always apply
• D. When operating a RACES station

T5D01

25. What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?

• A. I = E / R
• B. I = E - R
• C. I = E + R
• D. I = E * R

T2A07

26. What is meant by "repeater offset"?

• A. The difference between a repeater's transmit and receive frequencies
• B. The repeater has a time delay to prevent interference
• C. The number of simultaneous transmit frequencies used by a repeater
• D. The repeater station identification is done on a separate frequency

T6A03

27. What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?

• A. Capacitance
• B. Field strength
• C. Resistance
• D. Inductance

T7B05

28. How can fundamental overload of a non-amateur radio or TV receiver by an amateur signal be reduced or eliminated?

• A. Switch the transmitter from FM to SSB
• B. Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver
• C. Block the interfering signal with a filter on the amateur transmitter
• D. Switch the transmitter to a narrow-band mode

T7D01

29. Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential?

• A. A wavemeter
• B. An ammeter
• C. An ohmmeter
• D. A voltmeter

T7A04

30. Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?

• A. Discrimination ratio
• B. Sensitivity
• C. Selectivity
• D. Harmonic distortion

T4A07

31. Which of the following connections is made between a computer and a transceiver to use computer software when operating digital modes?

• A. Computer "line out" to transceiver push-to-talk
• B. Computer "line out" to transceiver speaker connector
• C. Computer "line in" to transceiver push-to-talk
• D. Computer "line in" to transceiver speaker connector

T1D04

32. Under what conditions is an amateur station authorized to transmit music using a phone emission?

• A. When incidental to an authorized retransmission of manned spacecraft communications
• B. When transmissions are limited to less than three minutes per hour
• C. When the music produces no spurious emissions
• D. When the music is transmitted above 1280 MHz

T8B01

33. What telemetry information is typically transmitted by satellite beacons?

• A. Time of day accurate to plus or minus 1/10 second
• B. Health and status of the satellite
• C. The signal strength of received signals
• D. All these choices are correct

T6C07

34. What is component 8 in figure T-2?

• A. Light emitting diode
• B. Inductor
• C. Regulator IC
• D. Resistor

T5B04

35. Which is equal to one microvolt?

• A. One thousand kilovolts
• B. One million volts
• C. One one-thousandth of a volt
• D. One one-millionth of a volt