Practice Exam

T2C05

1. What does the term "traffic" refer to in net operation?

• A. Messages exchanged by net stations
• B. Requests to activate the net by a served agency
• C. The number of stations checking in and out of a net
• D. Operation by mobile or portable stations

T3B05

2. What is the relationship between wavelength and frequency?

• A. Wavelength gets longer as frequency increases
• B. Wavelength gets shorter as frequency increases
• C. Wavelength and frequency are unrelated
• D. Wavelength and frequency increase as path length increases

T0A03

3. In the United States, what circuit does black wire insulation indicate in a three-wire 120 V cable?

• A. Neutral
• B. Black insulation is never used
• C. Hot
• D. Equipment ground

T7B05

4. How can fundamental overload of a non-amateur radio or TV receiver by an amateur signal be reduced or eliminated?

• A. Block the amateur signal with a filter at the antenna input of the affected receiver
• B. Switch the transmitter from FM to SSB
• C. Switch the transmitter to a narrow-band mode
• D. Block the interfering signal with a filter on the amateur transmitter

T3A10

5. What effect does multi-path propagation have on data transmissions?

• A. Transmission rates must be increased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
• B. Transmission rates must be decreased by a factor equal to the number of separate paths observed
• C. No significant changes will occur if the signals are transmitted using FM
• D. Error rates are likely to increase

T6A01

6. What electrical component opposes the flow of current in a DC circuit?

• A. Transformer
• B. Inductor
• C. Inverter
• D. Resistor

T4A03

7. Why are short, heavy-gauge wires used for a transceiver's DC power connection?

• A. To minimize voltage drop when transmitting
• B. To provide a good counterpoise for the antenna
• C. To avoid RF interference
• D. All these choices are correct

T6C05

8. What is component 4 in figure T-1?

• A. Transistor
• B. Ground symbol
• C. Battery
• D. Resistor

T1F02

9. How often must you identify with your FCC-assigned call sign when using tactical call signs such as "Race Headquarters"?

• A. Once during every hour
• B. At the end of every transmission
• C. Never, the tactical call is sufficient
• D. At the end of each communication and every ten minutes during a communication

T0B04

10. Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower?

• A. Look for and stay clear of any overhead electrical wires
• B. Wear a ground strap connected to your wrist at all times
• C. Insulate the base of the tower to avoid lightning strikes
• D. All these choices are correct

T1E03

11. Who must designate the station control operator?

• A. The FCC
• B. The frequency coordinator
• C. Any licensed operator
• D. The station licensee

T1D08

12. In which of the following circumstances may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating that station?

• A. When the communication is related to the sale of amateur equipment by the control operator's employer
• B. When the communication is incidental to classroom instruction at an educational institution
• C. When the communication is made to obtain emergency information for a local broadcast station
• D. All these choices are correct

T6D04

13. Which of the following displays an electrical quantity as a numeric value?

• A. Potentiometer
• B. Transistor
• C. Relay
• D. Meter

T1A04

14. How many operator/primary station license grants may be held by any one person?

• A. No more than two
• B. One
• C. One for each band on which the person plans to operate
• D. One for each permanent station location from which the person plans to operate

T9B01

15. What is a benefit of low SWR?

• A. Reduced television interference
• B. Less antenna wear
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Reduced signal loss

T3C03

16. What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral backscatter?

• A. They are generally strongest when your antenna is aimed west
• B. They occur only during winter nighttime hours
• C. They are distorted and signal strength varies considerably
• D. They are often received from 10,000 miles or more

T5B11

17. Which decibel value represents a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?

• A. 28 dB
• B. 10 dB
• C. 12 dB
• D. 18 dB

T4B08

18. What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?

• A. Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode
• B. Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory
• C. Permits monitoring several modes at once by selecting a separate filter for each mode
• D. Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies

T2A12

19. What should you do before calling CQ?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Ask if the frequency is in use
• C. Make sure you are authorized to use that frequency
• D. Listen first to be sure that no one else is using the frequency

T7A08

20. Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?

• A. Oscillation
• B. Low-pass filtering
• C. Impedance matching
• D. Modulation

T9A11

21. What is antenna gain?

• A. The additional power that is required in the antenna when transmitting on a higher frequency
• B. The increase in impedance on receive or transmit compared to a reference antenna
• C. The increase in signal strength in a specified direction compared to a reference antenna
• D. The additional power that is added to the transmitter power

T1B12

22. Except for some specific restrictions, what is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators using frequencies above 30 MHz?

• A. 50 watts
• B. 100 watts
• C. 1500 watts
• D. 500 watts

T2B06

23. What type of signaling uses pairs of audio tones?

• A. D-STAR
• B. DTMF
• C. GPRS
• D. CTCSS

T6B09

24. What are the names for the electrodes of a diode?

• A. Gate and base
• B. Anode and cathode
• C. Plus and minus
• D. Source and drain

T7C04

25. What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed line?

• A. 1:1
• B. Zero
• C. Full Scale
• D. 50:50

T8B04

26. What mode of transmission is commonly used by amateur radio satellites?

• A. SSB
• B. FM
• C. CW/data
• D. All these choices are correct

T5C08

27. What is the formula used to calculate electrical power (P) in a DC circuit?

• A. P = E / I
• B. P = E - I
• C. P = E * I
• D. P = E + I

T5D10

28. What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?

• A. 1.5 volts
• B. 1 volt
• C. 2.5 volts
• D. 0.25 volts

T8A07

29. What is a characteristic of single sideband (SSB) compared to FM?

• A. SSB signals have narrower bandwidth
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. SSB signals are less susceptible to interference
• D. SSB signals are easier to tune in correctly

T5A06

30. What is the unit of frequency?

• A. Henry
• B. Tesla
• C. Farad
• D. Hertz

T7D02

31. How is a voltmeter connected to a component to measure applied voltage?

• A. In phase
• B. In quadrature
• C. In series
• D. In parallel

T1C01

32. For which license classes are new licenses currently available from the FCC?

• A. Technician, Technician Plus, General, Amateur Extra
• B. Novice, Technician, General, Amateur Extra
• C. Technician, General, Amateur Extra
• D. Novice, Technician Plus, General, Advanced

T8D13

33. What is FT8?

• A. A digital slow-scan TV mode with forward error correction and automatic color compensation
• B. A digital mode capable of low signal-to-noise operation
• C. An eight channel multiplex mode for FM repeaters
• D. A wideband FM voice mode

T0C10

34. Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?

• A. It affects the average exposure to radiation
• B. It takes into account the antenna feed line loss
• C. It affects the peak exposure to radiation
• D. It takes into account the thermal effects of the final amplifier

T8C03

35. What operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period?

• A. Public service events
• B. Contesting
• C. Simulated emergency exercises
• D. Net operations