Practice Exam

G8B04

1. What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

• A. Mixer
• B. Multiplier
• C. Reactance modulator
• D. Pre-emphasis network

G5C17

2. What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 picofarad (pF) capacitor?

• A. 2.2
• B. 220
• C. 22
• D. 0.22

G2C11

3. What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

• A. I am ready to receive messages
• B. There is interference on the frequency
• C. You are sending too fast
• D. I am quitting for the day

G9C15

4. What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

• A. dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
• B. dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
• C. dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
• D. dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna

G1A03

5. On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

• A. 20 meters
• B. 160 meters
• C. 30 meters
• D. 12 meters

G8A03

6. What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

• A. Frequency transformation
• B. Frequency convolution
• C. Frequency conversion
• D. Frequency modulation

G6B13

7. Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

• A. Octal
• B. RJ-11
• C. PL-259
• D. DB-25

G4A01

8. What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

• A. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
• B. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
• C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
• D. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

G2D02

9. Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

• A. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
• B. To provide emergency and public safety communications
• C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
• D. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

G4C08

10. Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

• A. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
• B. Adding series capacitors to the conductors
• C. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable
• D. Placing a ferrite choke around the cable

G3B06

11. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

• A. They pass through the ionosphere
• B. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
• C. They are bent back to Earth
• D. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere

G7C01

12. Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters?

• A. RF amplifier
• B. Filter
• C. IF amplifier
• D. Carrier oscillator

G1E01

13. Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

• A. The third party is speaking in a language other than English
• B. The third party is a licensed amateur
• C. The third party is not a U.S. citizen
• D. The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated

G4D08

14. What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

• A. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz
• B. 7.178 to 7.181 MHz
• C. 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz
• D. 7.178 to 7.184 MHz

G3C03

15. Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

• A. Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
• B. Because it is the highest ionospheric region
• C. Because of the Doppler effect
• D. Because of meteor trails at that level

G0B05

16. Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

• A. Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
• B. Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire

G3A02

17. What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

• A. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
• B. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
• C. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
• D. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies

G1B04

18. Which of the following transmissions is permitted?

• A. Retransmission of other amateur station signals by any amateur station
• B. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from U.S. government stations
• C. Unidentified transmissions for test purposes only
• D. Coded messages of any kind, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

G4B10

19. Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

• A. Antenna front-to-back ratio
• B. RF interference
• C. Radio wave propagation
• D. Standing wave ratio

G5A07

20. What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

• A. The electrical load is shorted
• B. No current can flow through the circuit
• C. The source can deliver maximum power to the load
• D. The source delivers minimum power to the load

G9D01

21. Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a Near Vertical Incidence Skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

• A. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
• B. A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
• C. A right-hand circularly polarized antenna
• D. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground

G2E03

22. What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Failure to establish a connection between stations
• C. Frequent retries or timeouts
• D. Long pauses in message transmission

G8C02

23. Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

• A. WSPR
• B. SSB-SC
• C. PSK31
• D. Olivia

G2B05

24. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. Approximately 6 kHz
• B. Approximately 3 kHz
• C. 150 to 500 Hz
• D. 5 to 50 Hz

G4E04

25. Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

• A. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
• B. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
• C. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
• D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

G1C15

26. What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power output?

• A. RMS
• B. Average
• C. PEP
• D. Forward

G5B11

27. What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

• A. 0.707
• B. 1.414
• C. 1.00
• D. 2.00

G2A07

28. Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

• A. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
• B. SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
• C. SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter amateur bands
• D. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

G7B11

29. For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

• A. AM
• B. FM
• C. SSB
• D. All these choices are correct

G9A13

30. What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

• A. Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
• B. The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
• C. The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
• D. The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low

G7A06

31. What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

• A. 360 degrees
• B. 270 degrees
• C. 90 degrees
• D. 180 degrees

G6A08

32. What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
• C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
• D. Large values of inductance may be obtained

G1D02

33. What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General class operator license?

• A. General and Technician
• B. Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
• C. Technician only
• D. General only

G0A08

34. Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

• A. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation
• B. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
• C. Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
• D. Contact the FCC for a visit to conduct a station evaluation

G9B03

35. Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave, ground-plane vertical antenna?

• A. Bi-directional in azimuth
• B. Isotropic
• C. Hemispherical
• D. Omnidirectional in azimuth