Practice Exam

G9C04

1. How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

• A. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
• B. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
• C. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
• D. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher

G1E03

2. What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

• A. No third-party traffic may be transmitted
• B. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license
• C. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
• D. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

G1B05

3. Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

• A. Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
• B. Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

G1D08

4. Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

• A. None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
• B. The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
• C. The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
• D. The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years

G8A11

5. What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

• A. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
• B. The bandwidth of the modulated signal
• C. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
• D. The carrier frequency that contains the signal

G2A10

6. Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

• A. The received signal is more natural sounding
• B. It provides more power output
• C. It allows "hands free" operation
• D. It occupies less bandwidth

G3A03

7. Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 20 to 40 hours
• B. 8 minutes
• C. 1 to 2 hours
• D. 28 days

G9D04

8. What is the primary function of antenna traps?

• A. To notch spurious frequencies
• B. To provide balanced feed point impedance
• C. To prevent out-of-band operation
• D. To enable multiband operation

G7A06

9. What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

• A. 360 degrees
• B. 270 degrees
• C. 90 degrees
• D. 180 degrees

G0B09

10. Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. The generator must be insulated from ground
• C. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
• D. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

G8B01

11. Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

• A. RF input
• B. Beat frequency oscillator
• C. Image frequency
• D. Local oscillator

G6A09

12. Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

• A. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
• B. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
• C. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
• D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

G4E01

13. What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

• A. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
• B. To reduce radiation resistance
• C. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
• D. To lower the radiation angle

G4C01

14. Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

• A. Bypass capacitor
• B. Bypass inductor
• C. Forward-biased diode
• D. Reverse-biased diode

G0A03

15. How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
• C. By calculation based on computer modeling
• D. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

G5B06

16. What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

• A. 353.5 watts
• B. 1.4 watts
• C. 400 watts
• D. 100 watts

G2B04

17. When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• C. 3 kHz to 6 kHz
• D. 1 kHz to 3 kHz

G4B06

18. What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

• A. Less prone to overload
• B. Higher precision
• C. Faster response
• D. Better for measuring computer circuits

G4D03

19. What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

• A. Excessive background noise
• B. Distorted speech
• C. Excess intermodulation products
• D. All these choices are correct

G1C07

20. What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

• A. Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
• B. Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
• C. Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
• D. Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

G8C14

21. Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

• A. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
• B. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
• C. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
• D. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

G1A01

22. On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

• A. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
• B. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
• C. 80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
• D. 160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters

G7C03

23. What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

• A. To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
• B. To minimize transmitter power output
• C. To minimize radiation resistance
• D. To reduce power supply ripple

G2E06

24. What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

• A. 850 Hz
• B. 170 Hz
• C. 425 Hz
• D. 85 Hz

G3C11

25. Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

• A. The E region
• B. The F1 region
• C. The F2 region
• D. The D region

G9B05

26. How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

• A. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
• B. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
• C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
• D. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

G6B10

27. How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

• A. By creating an impedance in the current's path
• B. Ferrites expel magnetic fields
• C. It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
• D. By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

G5C06

28. What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

• A. 25.5 volts
• B. 120 volts
• C. 360 volts
• D. 40 volts

G2D10

29. What is QRP operation?

• A. Remote piloted model control
• B. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
• C. Traffic relay procedure net operation
• D. Low-power transmit operation

G7B05

30. How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

• A. 16
• B. 3
• C. 6
• D. 8

G3B07

31. What does LUF stand for?

• A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
• B. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• C. Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
• D. Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes

G5A11

32. What letter is used to represent reactance?

• A. Z
• B. X
• C. Y
• D. B

G2C09

33. What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

• A. We have worked before
• B. We have already confirmed the contact
• C. I have received and understood
• D. Send slower

G9A01

34. Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

• A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
• B. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
• C. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
• D. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

G4A03

35. How does a noise blanker work?

• A. By clipping noise peaks
• B. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
• C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
• D. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor