Practice Exam

Element 3: General

G1D06

1. When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician class licensee and have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website?

G7C07

2. What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

G3C05

3. Why is long-distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

G1B10

4. What is the power limit for beacon stations?

G8B09

5. Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

G5B10

6. What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

G1C06

7. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

G5C17

8. What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 picofarad (pF) capacitor?

G2D02

9. Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

G4C07

10. Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

G2E05

11. What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65, JT9, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

G1A09

12. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

G2A01

13. Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

G5A06

14. How does a capacitor react to AC?

G2C10

15. What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

G6B06

16. What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

G9B12

17. What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

G3A04

18. Which of the following are least reliable for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

G0A07

19. What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

G3B02

20. What factors affect the MUF?

G4A04

21. What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

G2B01

22. Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

G4E04

23. Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

G6A05

24. What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

G8A06

25. Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

G0B11

26. Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

G9C12

27. Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

G4B07

28. What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

G9D01

29. Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a Near Vertical Incidence Skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

G4D07

30. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Figure

G7A09

31. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

G1E02

32. When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

G7B03

33. Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

G9A13

34. What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

G8C13

35. What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a digital signal?