Practice Exam

G2A02

1. Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

• A. Upper sideband
• B. Double sideband
• C. Vestigial sideband
• D. Lower sideband

G7B01

2. What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

• A. To limit the modulation index
• B. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
• C. To eliminate self-oscillations
• D. To keep the carrier on frequency

G1E05

3. What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

• A. Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
• B. Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
• C. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
• D. Only messages for other licensed amateurs

G2D04

4. Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

• A. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
• B. A map that shows accurate land masses
• C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
• D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

G4C11

5. What technique helps to minimize RF "hot spots" in an amateur station?

• A. Bonding all equipment enclosures together
• B. Using surge suppressor power outlets
• C. Low-pass filters on all feed lines
• D. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure

G0A06

6. What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

• A. It should not be installed in a wet area
• B. It should not be installed higher than you can reach
• C. It should be limited to 10 feet in height
• D. It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access

G2C10

7. What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

• A. Zero beat my signal
• B. Send more slowly
• C. I am troubled by static
• D. Stop sending

G3C06

8. What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

• A. Signals have a fluttering sound
• B. Phone signals have high intelligibility
• C. There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
• D. Scatter propagation occurs only at night

G9B04

9. What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

• A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
• B. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
• C. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
• D. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

G1B06

10. Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate Amateur Radio antenna structures?

• A. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
• B. Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
• C. At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
• D. Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1000 feet from the structure

G6A07

11. What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

• A. Its enhancement and depletion modes
• B. Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
• C. Its peak and valley current points
• D. Its saturation and cutoff regions

G4A11

12. Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

• A. To change frequency rapidly
• B. To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
• C. To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency
• D. To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency

G8B01

13. Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

• A. RF input
• B. Local oscillator
• C. Beat frequency oscillator
• D. Image frequency

G9D04

14. What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

• A. To provide balanced feed-point impedance
• B. To permit multiband operation
• C. To notch spurious frequencies
• D. To prevent out-of-band operation

G1A10

15. Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General class license?

• A. 28.020 MHz
• B. 28.350 MHz
• C. 28.550 MHz
• D. All these choices are correct

G7A10

16. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

• A. Symbol 4
• B. Symbol 11
• C. Symbol 5
• D. Symbol 1

G2B09

17. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

• A. Only a RACES net control operator
• B. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
• C. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
• D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

G5C01

18. What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

• A. Displacement current coupling
• B. Mutual inductance
• C. Capacitive coupling
• D. Mutual capacitance

G5A02

19. What is reactance?

• A. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
• B. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
• C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
• D. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

G8A09

20. What type of modulation is used by the FT8 digital mode?

• A. Amplitude compressed AM
• B. Vestigial sideband
• C. Direct sequence spread spectrum
• D. 8-tone frequency shift keying

G4D07

21. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

• A. Approximately 1.5 times
• B. Approximately 4 times
• C. Approximately 8 times
• D. Approximately 2 times

G8C07

22. How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

• A. It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
• B. It requests the packet be retransmitted
• C. It terminates the contact
• D. It requests a change in transmitting protocol

G0B08

23. What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

• A. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
• B. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Unground the base of the tower

G7C15

24. What term specifies a filter's attenuation inside its passband?

• A. Q
• B. Ultimate rejection
• C. Insertion loss
• D. Return loss

G1C15

25. What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power output?

• A. Forward
• B. RMS
• C. PEP
• D. Average

G1D07

26. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
• B. The Federal Communications Commission
• C. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
• D. The Universal Licensing System

G4B12

27. What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

• A. Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
• B. Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics
• C. Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
• D. The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted

G3A09

28. What benefit can high geomagnetic activity have on radio communications?

• A. Reduced long delayed echoes
• B. Auroras that can reflect VHF signals
• C. Higher signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
• D. Improved HF long path propagation

G6B11

29. What is a type SMA connector?

• A. A large bayonet connector usable at power levels more than 1 KW
• B. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
• C. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
• D. A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications

G4E04

30. Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

• A. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
• B. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
• C. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
• D. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

G5B11

31. What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

• A. 1.414
• B. 2.00
• C. 1.00
• D. 0.707

G3B10

32. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

• A. 1,200 miles
• B. 12,000 miles
• C. 180 miles
• D. 2,500 miles

G9C04

33. How does antenna gain stated in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

• A. dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB lower than dBd gain figures
• B. dBi gain figures are the same as the square root of dBd gain figures multiplied by 2.15
• C. dBi gain figures are 2.15 dB higher than dBd gain figures
• D. dBi gain figures are the reciprocal of dBd gain figures + 2.15 dB

G2E15

34. Which of the following is a requirement when using the FT8 digital mode?

• A. A special hardware modem
• B. Computer time accurate within approximately 1 second
• C. Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
• D. A vertically polarized antenna

G9A04

35. What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

• A. A difference between feed-line impedance and antenna feed-point impedance
• B. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
• C. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
• D. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle