Practice Exam

G7B06

1. What is a shift register?

• A. A digital mixer
• B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
• C. An analog mixer
• D. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

G2B10

2. When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

• A. At any time when transmitting in an organized net
• B. Only when transmitting in RACES
• C. At any time during an actual emergency
• D. Only on authorized HF frequencies

G3B08

3. What does MUF stand for?

• A. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• B. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• C. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• D. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

G5B01

4. What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

• A. Approximately 6 dB
• B. Approximately 3 dB
• C. Approximately 2 dB
• D. Approximately 12 dB

G9C10

5. Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

• A. The physical length of the boom
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The spacing of each element along the boom
• D. The number of elements on the boom

G2C07

6. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

• A. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
• B. Chirpy or unstable signal
• C. Key clicks
• D. 100 percent copy

G1A04

7. Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

• A. 30 meters
• B. 11 meters
• C. 12 meters
• D. 60 meters

G8A06

8. Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. It is sideband sensitive
• C. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
• D. Its encoding provides error correction

G2E15

9. Which of the following is a requirement when using the FT8 digital mode?

• A. Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
• B. Computer time accurate within approximately 1 second
• C. A vertically polarized antenna
• D. A special hardware modem

G9A08

10. If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

• A. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
• B. 5 to 1
• C. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
• D. 1 to 1

G4A12

11. Which of the following is a common use for the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

• A. To facilitate computer interface
• B. To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
• C. To permit full duplex operation — that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
• D. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

G0B02

12. According the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20 ampere circuit breaker?

• A. AWG number 12
• B. AWG number 8
• C. AWG number 16
• D. AWG number 20

G5A08

13. What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

• A. To minimize radiation resistance
• B. To minimize transmitter power output
• C. To reduce power supply ripple
• D. To maximize the transfer of power

G9D03

14. In which direction is the maximum radiation from a portable VHF/UHF "halo" antenna?

• A. Opposite the feed point
• B. Toward the halo's supporting mast
• C. Broadside to the plane of the halo
• D. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo

G8C08

15. Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

• A. Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
• B. Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
• C. Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
• D. Upper case letters are sent with more power

G1D01

16. Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired Amateur Radio license?

• A. Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
• B. Anyone who held an FCC-issued Amateur Radio license that has been expired for not less than 5 years and not more than 15 years
• C. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
• D. Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC

G4E06

17. What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

• A. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
• B. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
• C. Harmonic radiation may increase
• D. Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals

G1E05

18. What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

• A. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
• B. Only messages for other licensed amateurs
• C. Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
• D. Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log

G6A10

19. Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

• A. Control grid
• B. Screen grid
• C. Trigger electrode
• D. Heater

G9B07

20. How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

• A. It is unaffected by the height above ground
• B. It steadily increases
• C. It steadily decreases
• D. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground

G2A09

21. Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

• A. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
• B. It is good amateur practice
• C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
• D. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

G4D01

22. What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

• A. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
• B. Prevent distortion of voice signals
• C. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
• D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

G7A02

23. Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

• A. Diodes
• B. Capacitors and inductors
• C. Transformers and transducers
• D. Quartz crystals

G3C01

24. Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of Earth?

• A. The F2 layer
• B. The D layer
• C. The F1 layer
• D. The E layer

G3A03

25. Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 20 to 40 hours
• B. 1 to 2 hours
• C. 8 minutes
• D. 28 days

G1C06

26. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

• A. 1200 watts PEP output
• B. 200 watts PEP output
• C. 1000 watts PEP output
• D. 1500 watts PEP output

G0A04

27. What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

• A. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time
• B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
• C. The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
• D. The total time of the exposure

G4C06

28. What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

• A. A ground loop
• B. Overheating of ground straps
• C. Corrosion of the ground rod
• D. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

G8B07

29. What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

• A. 101.75 Hz
• B. 5 kHz
• C. 60 kHz
• D. 416.7 Hz

G2D02

30. Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

• A. To provide emergency and public safety communications
• B. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
• C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
• D. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

G7C03

31. What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver?

• A. Mixer
• B. Detector
• C. Balanced modulator
• D. IF amplifier

G1B03

32. Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

• A. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees
• B. Automatic identification of repeaters
• C. Observation of propagation and reception
• D. Identifying net frequencies

G6B02

33. What is meant by the term MMIC?

• A. Military Manufactured Integrated Circuit
• B. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
• C. Multi-Megabyte Integrated Circuit
• D. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

G5C06

34. What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC?

• A. 2370 volts
• B. 5.9 volts
• C. 26.7 volts
• D. 540 volts

G4B02

35. Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

• A. Complex waveforms can be measured
• B. An oscilloscope uses less power
• C. Input impedance is much lower
• D. Complex impedances can be easily measured