Practice Exam

G6A09

1. Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

• A. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
• B. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
• C. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
• D. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

G4E06

2. What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

• A. Q of the antenna will be very low
• B. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
• C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
• D. Harmonic radiation may increase

G3B09

3. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

• A. 180 miles
• B. 1,200 miles
• C. 12,000 miles
• D. 2,500 miles

G9A11

4. What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

• A. Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
• B. Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
• C. Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
• D. Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line

G1A11

5. When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

• A. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• B. The upper frequency portion
• C. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• D. The lower frequency portion

G9C03

6. How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

• A. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
• B. They are all the same length
• C. The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
• D. Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

G4B03

7. Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

• A. A wavemeter
• B. A field strength meter
• C. A sidetone monitor
• D. An oscilloscope

G5B09

8. What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

• A. 34 volts
• B. 12 volts
• C. 24 volts
• D. 8.5 volts

G4C07

9. Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

• A. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
• B. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

G9D12

10. What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

• A. Lazy H
• B. Inverted V
• C. Inverted L
• D. Sloper

G3A08

11. How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

• A. Improve ground wave propagation
• B. Improve high-latitude HF propagation
• C. Degrade ground wave propagation
• D. Degrade high-latitude HF propagation

G1C06

12. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

• A. 1500 watts PEP output
• B. 1200 watts PEP output
• C. 200 watts PEP output
• D. 1000 watts PEP output

G2D04

13. Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

• A. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
• B. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
• C. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
• D. A map that shows accurate land masses

G2E02

14. What is VARA?

• A. A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
• B. A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
• C. A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
• D. A digital protocol used with Winlink

G2C08

15. What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

• A. SK
• B. BK
• C. KN
• D. AR

G8C09

16. Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

• A. More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
• B. Having more nodes increases signal strengths
• C. If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
• D. Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths

G4A06

17. What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

• A. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
• B. Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna

G7A08

18. Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

• A. Inherently more stable
• B. High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
• C. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
• D. Fewer circuit components are required

G4D07

19. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

• A. Approximately 2 times
• B. Approximately 4 times
• C. Approximately 1.5 times
• D. Approximately 8 times

G7C02

20. What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

• A. Audio extracted from the modulation signal
• B. Audio with equalized frequency response
• C. Frequency modulated RF
• D. Double-sideband modulated RF

G3C02

21. What is meant by the term "critical frequency" at a given incidence angle?

• A. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
• B. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
• C. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
• D. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity

G7B01

22. What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

• A. To limit the modulation index
• B. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
• C. To keep the carrier on frequency
• D. To eliminate self-oscillations

G2A12

23. What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

• A. Antenna inductance or capacitance
• B. Transmit audio or microphone gain
• C. RF clipping level
• D. Attenuator level

G1D07

24. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
• B. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
• C. The Federal Communications Commission
• D. The Universal Licensing System

G5A12

25. What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

• A. The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
• B. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
• C. Resistance is cancelled
• D. Current and voltage are equal

G5C13

26. Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

• A. An inductor in parallel
• B. A capacitor in parallel
• C. A capacitor in series
• D. An inductor in series

G1B04

27. Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

• A. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
• B. Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
• C. Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
• D. Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station

G9B12

28. What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

• A. 8 feet
• B. 11 feet
• C. 16 feet
• D. 21 feet

G0A05

29. What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
• C. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
• D. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

G6B08

30. How is an LED biased when emitting light?

• A. Forward biased
• B. In the tunnel-effect region
• C. At the Zener voltage
• D. Reverse biased

G8A08

31. Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

• A. Excessive bandwidth
• B. Insufficient audio
• C. Insufficient bandwidth
• D. Frequency drift

G1E11

32. On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

• A. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
• B. Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
• C. On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
• D. Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands

G0B11

33. Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

• A. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
• B. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
• C. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
• D. They must be bonded together with all other grounds

G8B07

34. What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

• A. 5 kHz
• B. 416.7 Hz
• C. 101.75 Hz
• D. 60 kHz

G2B06

35. How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

• A. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say "test" several times and listen for a response
• B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
• C. Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use," then give your call sign and listen for a response
• D. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign