Practice Exam

G2E13

1. What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

• A. RJ-45
• B. Gateway
• C. Printer/Server
• D. Terminal Node Controller

G2A11

2. Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling "CQ DX"?

• A. Any caller is welcome to respond
• B. Only stations in Germany
• C. Only contest stations
• D. Any stations outside the lower 48 states

G1E10

3. Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

• A. A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
• B. A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
• C. These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
• D. These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations

G6B10

4. How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

• A. Ferrites expel magnetic fields
• B. It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
• C. By creating an impedance in the current's path
• D. By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

G1A06

5. Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

• A. Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
• B. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
• C. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
• D. Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users

G5A01

6. What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

• A. Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
• B. Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
• C. Resonance causes impedance to be very high
• D. Resonance causes impedance to be very low

G1B10

7. What is the power limit for beacon stations?

• A. 100 watts PEP output
• B. 20 watts PEP output
• C. 10 watts PEP output
• D. 200 watts PEP output

G1D11

8. What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

• A. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
• B. Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
• C. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
• D. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

G8C02

9. Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

• A. SSB-SC
• B. MFSK16
• C. WSPR
• D. PSK31

G4A03

10. How does a noise blanker work?

• A. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
• B. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
• C. By clipping noise peaks
• D. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

G4C05

11. What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

• A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
• B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
• C. The ground rod is resonant
• D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

G3A13

12. What does the A-index measure?

• A. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
• B. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
• C. The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
• D. The long-term stability of Earth's geomagnetic field

G2B02

13. What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

• A. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
• B. Immediately cease all transmissions
• C. Inform your local emergency coordinator
• D. Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress

G8B07

14. What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

• A. 416.7 Hz
• B. 101.75 Hz
• C. 5 kHz
• D. 60 kHz

G1C05

15. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

• A. 2000 watts PEP output
• B. 100 watts PEP output
• C. 1500 watts PEP output
• D. 1000 watts PEP output

G9C02

16. What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

• A. 1/4 wavelength
• B. 3/4 wavelength
• C. 1 wavelength
• D. 1/2 wavelength

G5B11

17. What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

• A. 0.707
• B. 1.00
• C. 1.414
• D. 2.00

G7B04

18. In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

• A. More than 50% but less than 100%
• B. Less than 50%
• C. 100%
• D. 50%

G7A04

19. What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

• A. Only one diode is required
• B. More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
• C. The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
• D. The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage

G5C04

20. What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

• A. 75 ohms
• B. 150 ohms
• C. 67 ohms
• D. 300 ohms

G0A10

21. What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

• A. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
• B. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
• C. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
• D. All these choices are correct

G7C04

22. How is a product detector used?

• A. Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
• B. Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
• C. Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
• D. Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication

G6A12

23. What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

• A. To increase the control grid resistance
• B. To increase efficiency
• C. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
• D. To decrease plate resistance

G2D06

24. How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

• A. 180 degrees from the station's short-path heading
• B. Toward the rising sun
• C. Along the gray line
• D. Toward the north

G9A04

25. What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

• A. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
• B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
• C. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
• D. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

G4D04

26. What does an S meter measure?

• A. Received signal strength
• B. Carrier suppression
• C. Transmitter power output
• D. Impedance

G4E10

27. Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

• A. To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
• B. To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
• C. To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
• D. To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination

G9D04

28. What is the primary function of antenna traps?

• A. To provide balanced feed point impedance
• B. To notch spurious frequencies
• C. To prevent out-of-band operation
• D. To enable multiband operation

G0B05

29. Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

• A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
• B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Overvoltage on the hot wires

G3C01

30. Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

• A. The E region
• B. The F2 region
• C. The D region
• D. The F1 region

G9B11

31. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

• A. 42 feet
• B. 84 feet
• C. 263 feet
• D. 132 feet

G8A12

32. What is QPSK modulation?

• A. Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
• B. Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
• C. Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
• D. Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits

G2C09

33. What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

• A. I have received and understood
• B. We have worked before
• C. Send slower
• D. We have already confirmed the contact

G4B13

34. Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

• A. Gain of a directional antenna
• B. Power output from a transmitter
• C. Impedance of coaxial cable
• D. Front-to-back ratio of an antenna

G3B07

35. What does LUF stand for?

• A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
• B. Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
• C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• D. Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius