Practice Exam

G0A03

1. How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

• A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
• B. By calculation based on computer modeling
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

G1B09

2. On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

• A. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
• B. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
• C. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
• D. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

G4E07

3. Which of the following may cause receive interference in a radio installed in a vehicle?

• A. The fuel delivery system
• B. The battery charging system
• C. The vehicle control computer
• D. All these choices are correct

G6A01

4. What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead-acid battery?

• A. 10.5 volts
• B. 6 volts
• C. 8.5 volts
• D. 12 volts

G2C07

5. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

• A. Key clicks
• B. Chirpy or unstable signal
• C. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
• D. 100 percent copy

G5C01

6. What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

• A. Capacitive coupling
• B. Mutual capacitance
• C. Mutual inductance
• D. Displacement current coupling

G3B09

7. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

• A. 12,000 miles
• B. 2,500 miles
• C. 180 miles
• D. 1,200 miles

G9A13

8. What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

• A. The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high
• B. The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
• C. The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
• D. Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

G7A05

9. What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

• A. 180 degrees
• B. 270 degrees
• C. 90 degrees
• D. 360 degrees

G6B09

10. Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

• A. It consumes relatively high power
• B. It offers a wide dynamic range
• C. It has relatively short lifetime
• D. It utilizes ambient or back lighting

G1E11

11. On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

• A. Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
• B. Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
• C. On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
• D. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

G4D10

12. How close to the lower edge of the phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

• A. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
• B. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
• C. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
• D. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

G8B10

13. What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

• A. Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
• B. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• C. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• D. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related

G4C10

14. What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

• A. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
• B. You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
• C. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
• D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

G5A05

15. How does an inductor react to AC?

• A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G4A17

16. What happens as the noise reduction control level in a receiver is increased?

• A. Received signals may become distorted
• B. Received frequency may shift several kHz
• C. Received frequency may become unstable
• D. CW signals may become severely attenuated

G0B04

17. Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

• A. Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
• B. Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
• C. Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning
• D. Danger of engine over torque

G9B11

18. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

• A. 263 feet
• B. 42 feet
• C. 132 feet
• D. 84 feet

G9C10

19. Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. The spacing of each element along the boom
• C. The physical length of the boom
• D. The number of elements on the boom

G5B07

20. What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

• A. The RMS value
• B. The peak-to-peak value
• C. The reciprocal of the RMS value
• D. The peak value

G7B05

21. How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

• A. 3
• B. 16
• C. 6
• D. 8

G2B06

22. What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

• A. Send "QRL?" on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
• B. Send the letter "V" in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say "test" several times and listen for a response
• C. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
• D. Send "QSY" on CW or if using phone, announce "the frequency is in use," then give your call sign and listen for a response

G8A07

23. Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

• A. Single sideband
• B. Double sideband
• C. Frequency modulation
• D. Phase modulation

G8C06

24. What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using PACTOR or WINMOR?

• A. Encoding reverts to the default character set
• B. Packets will be routed incorrectly
• C. The connection is dropped
• D. The checksum overflows

G2A03

25. Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

• A. Upper sideband
• B. Lower sideband
• C. Vestigial sideband
• D. Double sideband

G2D02

26. Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

• A. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
• B. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
• C. To provide emergency and public safety communications
• D. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

G2E05

27. What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65, JT9, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

• A. USB
• B. LSB
• C. DSB
• D. SSB

G3C06

28. What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

• A. There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
• B. Phone signals have high intelligibility
• C. Scatter propagation occurs only at night
• D. Signals have a fluttering sound

G9D09

29. What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

• A. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
• B. Directional transmitting for low HF bands
• C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
• D. Directional receiving for low HF bands

G1C01

30. What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 200 watts PEP output
• B. 1500 watts PEP output
• C. 1000 watts PEP output
• D. 2000 watts PEP output

G4B07

31. What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

• A. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
• B. Two swept frequency tones
• C. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
• D. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees

G1A12

32. Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

• A. Amateur stations can use the band only during emergencies
• B. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24- hour use of the band
• C. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
• D. Amateur stations can use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users

G3A01

33. What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation?

• A. A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
• B. A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
• C. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
• D. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

G1D10

34. What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

• A. 21 years
• B. 12 years
• C. There is no age limit
• D. 18 years

G7C04

35. What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and BFO and send the result to the AF amplifier in some single sideband receivers?

• A. Balanced modulator
• B. RF oscillator
• C. Product detector
• D. IF filter