Practice Exam

G2C08

1. What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

• A. AR
• B. SK
• C. KN
• D. BK

G2E03

2. What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

• A. Long pauses in message transmission
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Failure to establish a connection between stations
• D. Frequent retries or timeouts

G5B14

3. What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

• A. 2500 watts
• B. 8.75 watts
• C. 5000 watts
• D. 625 watts

G8A07

4. Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

• A. Frequency modulation
• B. Phase modulation
• C. Single sideband
• D. Vestigial sideband

G6A04

5. Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

• A. Tight tolerance
• B. Inexpensive RF capacitor
• C. High capacitance for a given volume
• D. Much less leakage than any other type

G1C11

6. What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

• A. RMS output from the transmitter
• B. PEP output from the transmitter
• C. PEP input to the antenna
• D. RMS input to the antenna

G0A08

7. Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

• A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
• B. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels

G4C02

8. Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

• A. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
• B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
• C. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
• D. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas

G3A03

9. Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 28 days
• B. 20 to 40 hours
• C. 1 to 2 hours
• D. 8 minutes

G4B10

10. Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

• A. RF interference
• B. Antenna front-to-back ratio
• C. Standing wave ratio
• D. Radio wave propagation

G1E05

11. What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

• A. The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
• B. They must be for other licensed amateurs
• C. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
• D. They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief

G4E01

12. What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

• A. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
• B. To lower the radiation angle
• C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
• D. To reduce radiation resistance

G3B03

13. Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

• A. Just above the LUF
• B. Just below the MUF
• C. Just above the critical frequency
• D. Just below the critical frequency

G1B06

14. Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

• A. Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
• B. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
• C. At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
• D. Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

G7B06

15. What is a shift register?

• A. A digital mixer
• B. An analog mixer
• C. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
• D. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations

G9D11

16. Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

• A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
• B. They must be used with an antenna tuner
• C. They must be fed with open wire line
• D. They have poor harmonic rejection

G5A07

17. What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

• A. Reluctance
• B. Susceptance
• C. Conductance
• D. Admittance

G8C03

18. What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

• A. Trailer
• B. Header
• C. Preamble
• D. Directory

G4A03

19. How does a noise blanker work?

• A. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
• B. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
• C. By clipping noise peaks
• D. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

G7A07

20. What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

• A. A steady DC voltage
• B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
• C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
• D. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

G9A09

21. What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

• A. 4:1
• B. 2:1
• C. 1:4
• D. 1:2

G6B07

22. Which of the following describes a type N connector?

• A. A nickel plated version of the PL-259
• B. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
• C. A low noise figure VHF connector
• D. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz

G5C01

23. What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

• A. Mutual inductance
• B. Capacitive coupling
• C. Displacement current coupling
• D. Mutual capacitance

G9C03

24. How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

• A. Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
• B. The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
• C. They are all the same length
• D. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

G7C10

25. What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

• A. Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
• B. The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
• C. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
• D. Minimum detectible signal level is reduced

G8B13

26. Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

• A. 5F1-3F2
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. 2F1-F2
• D. 3F1-F2

G9B04

27. What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

• A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
• B. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
• C. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
• D. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

G3C03

28. Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

• A. Because it is the densest
• B. Because of temperature inversions
• C. Because it is the highest
• D. Because of the Doppler effect

G2A03

29. Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

• A. Lower sideband
• B. Upper sideband
• C. Suppressed sideband
• D. Double sideband

G0B05

30. Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

• A. Overvoltage on the hot wires
• B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire

G4D11

31. How close to the upper edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

• A. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
• B. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
• C. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
• D. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

G2D02

32. Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

• A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
• B. To provide emergency and public safety communications
• C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
• D. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

G1A11

33. When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

• A. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• B. The upper frequency portion
• C. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• D. The lower frequency portion

G1D09

34. How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

• A. 30 days
• B. 365 days
• C. 180 days
• D. For as long as your current license is valid

G2B09

35. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

• A. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
• B. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
• C. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
• D. Only a RACES net control operator