Practice Exam

G2A02

1. Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

• A. Double sideband
• B. Upper sideband
• C. Lower sideband
• D. Vestigial sideband

G7A02

2. Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

• A. Capacitors and inductors
• B. Transformers and transducers
• C. Quartz crystals
• D. Diodes

G5C02

3. What happens if a signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

• A. The output voltage is divided by 4
• B. Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
• C. Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
• D. The output voltage is multiplied by 4

G7B06

4. What is a shift register?

• A. A digital mixer
• B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
• C. An analog mixer
• D. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array

G8C07

5. How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

• A. It terminates the contact
• B. It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
• C. It requests the packet be retransmitted
• D. It requests a change in transmitting protocol

G4E04

6. Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

• A. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
• B. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
• C. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
• D. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers

G5A01

7. What is impedance?

• A. The inverse of resistance
• B. The force of repulsion between two similar electric fields
• C. The electric charge stored by a capacitor
• D. The opposition to the flow of current in an AC circuit

G7C07

8. What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

• A. HF oscillator, mixer, detector
• B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
• C. RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
• D. HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier

G5B12

9. What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

• A. 346 volts
• B. 173 volts
• C. 692 volts
• D. 245 volts

G0B04

10. Which of the following is a primary reason for not placing a gasoline-fueled generator inside an occupied area?

• A. Danger of engine over torque
• B. Lack of oxygen for adequate combustion
• C. Lack of nitrogen for adequate combustion
• D. Danger of carbon monoxide poisoning

G4D04

11. What does an S meter measure?

• A. Received signal strength
• B. Impedance
• C. Transmitter power output
• D. Conductance

G9C05

12. How does increasing boom length and adding directors affect a Yagi antenna?

• A. Front-to-back ratio decreases
• B. Front-to-side ratio decreases
• C. Gain increases
• D. Beamwidth increases

G1C11

13. What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band?

• A. 1200 baud
• B. 19.6 kilobaud
• C. 56 kilobaud
• D. 300 baud

G9B01

14. What is one disadvantage of a directly fed random-wire HF antenna?

• A. It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
• B. It produces only vertically polarized radiation
• C. You may experience RF burns when touching metal objects in your station
• D. It must be longer than 1 wavelength

G3C07

15. What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

• A. The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
• B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
• C. The E-region is not present
• D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths

G4B06

16. What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

• A. Better precision for most uses
• B. Faster response
• C. Better for measuring computer circuits
• D. Better for RF measurements

G6A12

17. What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

• A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
• B. To decrease plate resistance
• C. To increase the control grid resistance
• D. To increase efficiency

G8B11

18. What combination of a mixer's Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

• A. The ratio
• B. The average
• C. The sum and difference
• D. The arithmetic product

G2E15

19. Which of the following is a requirement when using the FT8 digital mode?

• A. A vertically polarized antenna
• B. Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
• C. Computer time accurate within approximately 1 second
• D. A special hardware modem

G3A12

20. What does the K-index indicate?

• A. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
• B. The stability of the sun's magnetic field
• C. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sun
• D. The short-term stability of Earth's magnetic field

G9A01

21. Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

• A. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
• B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
• C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
• D. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

G4A02

22. What is one advantage of selecting the opposite, or "reverse," sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

• A. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
• B. Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
• C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
• D. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated

G2C09

23. What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

• A. We have already confirmed by card
• B. We have worked before
• C. I acknowledge receipt
• D. Send slower

G2B07

24. Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

• A. Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
• B. Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

G1B04

25. Which of the following transmissions is permitted?

• A. Unidentified transmissions for test purposes only
• B. Retransmission of other amateur station signals by any amateur station
• C. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from U.S. government stations
• D. Coded messages of any kind, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

G0A06

26. What precaution should be taken when installing a ground-mounted antenna?

• A. It should not be installed higher than you can reach
• B. It should be limited to 10 feet in height
• C. It should not be installed in a wet area
• D. It should be installed such that it is protected against unauthorized access

G9D02

27. What is the feed-point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

• A. Very high
• B. Approximately 50 ohms
• C. Very low
• D. Approximately 300 ohms

G2D02

28. Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

• A. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
• B. To provide emergency and public safety communications
• C. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
• D. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

G4C13

29. Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

• A. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
• B. It prevents signal overload
• C. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
• D. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit

G1E10

30. Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24. 930 and 28.200 MHz?

• A. These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
• B. A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
• C. These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
• D. A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies

G1A09

31. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

• A. 24900 kHz
• B. 21300 kHz
• C. 14250 kHz
• D. 18155 kHz

G1D05

32. Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician class license examination?

• A. Notification to the FCC that you want to give an examination
• B. Possession of a properly obtained telegraphy license
• C. An FCC General class or higher license and VEC accreditation
• D. Receipt of a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class

G6B09

33. Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

• A. It offers a wide dynamic range
• B. It has relatively short lifetime
• C. It utilizes ambient or back lighting
• D. It consumes relatively high power

G8A08

34. Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

• A. Insufficient bandwidth
• B. Insufficient audio
• C. Excessive bandwidth
• D. Frequency drift

G3B10

35. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region?

• A. 2,500 miles
• B. 12,000 miles
• C. 1,200 miles
• D. 180 miles