Practice Exam

G3C05

1. Why is long-distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

• A. The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
• B. The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
• C. The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
• D. The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

G8A12

2. Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

• A. MFSK32
• B. MSK144
• C. AMTOR
• D. FT8

G6A10

3. Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

• A. Heater
• B. Screen grid
• C. Trigger electrode
• D. Control grid

G2C11

4. What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

• A. You are sending too fast
• B. I am quitting for the day
• C. There is interference on the frequency
• D. I am ready to receive messages

G3B07

5. What does LUF stand for?

• A. The Longest Universal Function during a 24-hour period
• B. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• C. The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
• D. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

G5C04

6. What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel?

• A. 300 ohms
• B. 0.33 ohms
• C. 33.3 ohms
• D. 0.30 ohms

G9C08

7. What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

• A. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
• B. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
• C. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
• D. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

G4B02

8. Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

• A. Input impedance is much lower
• B. Complex waveforms can be measured
• C. An oscilloscope uses less power
• D. Complex impedances can be easily measured

G6B10

9. How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

• A. By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
• B. It converts common-mode current to differential mode
• C. By creating an impedance in the current's path
• D. Ferrites expel magnetic fields

G4A06

10. What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

• A. SWR bridge
• B. Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
• C. Q multiplier
• D. Balanced modulator

G9B11

11. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

• A. 84 feet
• B. 132 feet
• C. 263 feet
• D. 42 feet

G0B05

12. Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

• A. Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground
• B. Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires

G1B04

13. Which of the following transmissions is permitted?

• A. Retransmission of other amateur station signals by any amateur station
• B. Coded messages of any kind, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
• C. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from U.S. government stations
• D. Unidentified transmissions for test purposes only

G2A03

14. Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

• A. Lower sideband
• B. Double sideband
• C. Vestigial sideband
• D. Upper sideband

G1C07

15. What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

• A. 1200 baud
• B. 56 kilobaud
• C. 300 baud
• D. 19.6 kilobaud

G2B09

16. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

• A. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
• B. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
• C. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
• D. Only a RACES net control operator

G1A11

17. When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

• A. The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• B. The lower frequency end
• C. The upper frequency end
• D. The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

G3A14

18. How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

• A. VHF/UHF ducting is improved
• B. HF communications are disturbed
• C. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
• D. HF communications are improved

G2D04

19. Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

• A. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
• B. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
• C. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
• D. A map that shows accurate land masses

G7A02

20. Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

• A. Transformers and transducers
• B. Quartz crystals
• C. Capacitors and inductors
• D. Diodes

G4E07

21. Which of the following may cause receive interference in a radio installed in a vehicle?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. The fuel delivery system
• C. The vehicle control computer
• D. The battery charging system

G9D06

22. Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

• A. Polarization diversity
• B. Wide bandwidth
• C. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
• D. Harmonic suppression

G7C06

23. What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted?

• A. About the same
• B. Substantially lower
• C. Twice the transmission line impedance
• D. Substantially higher

G5B05

24. How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1250 ohm resistance?

• A. Approximately 61 watts
• B. Approximately 11 watts
• C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
• D. Approximately 61 milliwatts

G8B10

25. What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

• A. Bandwidth is always half the symbol rate
• B. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• C. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• D. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related

G4D02

26. Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

• A. It reduces intermodulation distortion
• B. It increases average power
• C. It increases peak power
• D. It reduces harmonic distortion

G2E10

27. Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

• A. Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency
• B. Send QRL in Morse code
• C. Send an email to the system control operator
• D. Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID

G8C02

28. Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

• A. PSK31
• B. WSPR
• C. SSB-SC
• D. Olivia

G0A07

29. What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

• A. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
• B. A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
• C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
• D. A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

G9A07

30. What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

• A. The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
• B. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
• C. The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an even number of physical half wavelengths
• D. The feed line must be cut to a length equal to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths

G1D09

31. How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

• A. 365 days
• B. 180 days
• C. 30 days
• D. For as long as your current license is valid

G4C07

32. Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

• A. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
• B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
• C. The resistance of solder is too high
• D. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

G7B08

33. How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

• A. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
• B. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
• C. Add the RF input power to the DC output power
• D. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power

G1E03

34. What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

• A. No third-party traffic may be transmitted
• B. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra Class license
• C. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
• D. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

G5A04

35. Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

• A. Reactance
• B. Admittance
• C. Conductance
• D. Reluctance