Practice Exam

G5C13

1. Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

• A. An inductor in parallel
• B. An inductor in series
• C. A capacitor in series
• D. A capacitor in parallel

G7C13

2. What term specifies a filter's maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

• A. Insertion loss
• B. Ultimate rejection
• C. Rolloff
• D. Notch depth

G4C05

3. What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

• A. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
• B. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
• C. The ground rod is resonant
• D. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire

G2C07

4. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

• A. Chirpy or unstable signal
• B. 100 percent copy
• C. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
• D. Key clicks

G7B11

5. For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

• A. SSB
• B. FM
• C. AM
• D. All these choices are correct

G6B05

6. What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

• A. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
• B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Large values of inductance may be obtained

G1A10

7. What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

• A. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
• B. The entire band
• C. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
• D. The portion above 29.5 MHz

G6A04

8. Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

• A. High capacitance for a given volume
• B. Tight tolerance
• C. Inexpensive RF capacitor
• D. Much less leakage than any other type

G0A02

9. Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

• A. Its frequency
• B. Its power density
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Its duty cycle

G8B10

10. What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

• A. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• B. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
• C. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• D. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

G3B05

11. How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

• A. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
• B. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
• C. They pass through the ionosphere
• D. They are refracted back to Earth

G9A08

12. If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

• A. 1:1
• B. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
• C. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
• D. 5:1

G0B07

13. Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

• A. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
• B. Always hold on to the tower with one hand
• C. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
• D. All these choices are correct

G8C02

14. Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

• A. SSB-SC
• B. WSPR
• C. MFSK16
• D. PSK31

G7A11

15. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

• A. Symbol 1
• B. Symbol 7
• C. Symbol 2
• D. Symbol 11

G9D12

16. What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

• A. Sloper
• B. Lazy H
• C. Inverted V
• D. Inverted L

G2A10

17. Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

• A. It occupies less bandwidth
• B. The received signal is more natural sounding
• C. It allows "hands free" operation
• D. It provides more power output

G2B02

18. What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

• A. Immediately cease all transmissions
• B. Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
• C. Inform your local emergency coordinator
• D. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

G2E10

19. Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

• A. Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
• B. Send QRL in Morse code
• C. Send an email to the system control operator
• D. Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency

G9B04

20. What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

• A. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
• B. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
• C. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
• D. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna

G4A05

21. Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

• A. To increase overall efficiency
• B. To prevent excessive drive
• C. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
• D. To reduce harmonic radiation

G8A11

22. What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

• A. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
• B. The bandwidth of the modulated signal
• C. The carrier frequency that contains the signal
• D. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal

G4E05

23. Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

• A. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
• B. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
• C. "Picket fencing"
• D. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver

G3A04

24. Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

• A. 80 meters and 160 meters
• B. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
• C. 60 meters and 40 meters
• D. 30 meters and 20 meters

G1C09

25. What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

• A. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
• B. 10 watts RMS
• C. 1500 watts PEP
• D. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

G2D03

26. What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

• A. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
• B. Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
• C. Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
• D. All these choices are correct

G4D05

27. How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

• A. It is 100 times more powerful
• B. It is 20 times more powerful
• C. It is 20 times less powerful
• D. It is 10 times less powerful

G5A10

28. Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

• A. A transformer
• B. A length of transmission line
• C. A Pi-network
• D. All these choices are correct

G9C11

29. What is a beta or hairpin match?

• A. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
• B. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
• C. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
• D. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

G1D03

30. On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

• A. On any General or Technician class band segment
• B. Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
• C. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
• D. On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

G1E08

31. What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

• A. 1500 watts
• B. 10 watts
• C. 100 milliwatts
• D. 100 watts

G1B04

32. Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

• A. Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
• B. Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
• C. Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
• D. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations

G5B13

33. What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

• A. 530 watts
• B. 1500 watts
• C. 2120 watts
• D. 1060 watts

G3C10

34. What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

• A. Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
• B. Double hop propagation near the LUF
• C. Propagation near the MUF
• D. Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset

G4B07

35. What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

• A. Two swept frequency tones
• B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
• C. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
• D. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees