Practice Exam

G9C15

1. What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

• A. dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
• B. dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
• C. dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna
• D. dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna

G0B10

2. Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

• A. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
• B. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
• C. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
• D. Tin in the solder can "cold flow," causing shorts in the circuit

G2E15

3. Which of the following is a requirement when using the FT8 digital mode?

• A. Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
• B. A vertically polarized antenna
• C. A special hardware modem
• D. Computer time accurate within approximately 1 second

G4D01

4. What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

• A. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
• B. Prevent distortion of voice signals
• C. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
• D. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals

G2A12

5. What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

• A. Antenna inductance or capacitance
• B. Transmit audio or microphone gain
• C. The RF clipping level
• D. Attenuator level

G1E07

6. In what part of the 13-centimeter band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

• A. No part
• B. Channels 42 through 45
• C. Anywhere in the band
• D. Channels 1 through 4

G7A11

7. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

• A. Symbol 7
• B. Symbol 11
• C. Symbol 1
• D. Symbol 2

G4C03

8. What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

• A. Distorted speech
• B. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
• C. Clearly audible speech
• D. On-and-off humming or clicking

G5B06

9. What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

• A. 1.4 watts
• B. 400 watts
• C. 353.5 watts
• D. 100 watts

G6A14

10. Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

• A. High stability
• B. High capacitance for given volume
• C. Comparatively low cost
• D. Tight tolerance

G2C03

11. What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

• A. Listening only for a specific station or stations
• B. Operating full break-in
• C. Listening for novice stations
• D. Closing station now

G9D11

12. Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

• A. They must be used with an antenna tuner
• B. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
• C. They must be fed with open wire line
• D. They have poor harmonic rejection

G8C10

13. How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

• A. By transmitting redundant information with the data
• B. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
• C. By using a parity bit with each character
• D. By using the Varicode character set

G3C05

14. Why is long-distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

• A. The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
• B. The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
• C. The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
• D. The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

G1D02

15. What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General class operator license?

• A. Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
• B. Technician only
• C. General and Technician
• D. General only

G8A08

16. Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

• A. Frequency drift
• B. Insufficient audio
• C. Excessive bandwidth
• D. Insufficient bandwidth

G1B09

17. On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

• A. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
• B. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
• C. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
• D. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

G2B01

18. Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

• A. QSOs in progress always have priority
• B. Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies
• C. Nets always have priority
• D. Except during FCC-declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies

G8B08

19. Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

• A. Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter's average power rating
• B. The attenuator will have to be adjusted accordingly
• C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
• D. To aid in tuning your transmitter

G3B01

20. What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

• A. Signal strength increased by 3 dB
• B. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
• C. A slightly delayed echo might be heard
• D. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

G3A03

21. Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 28 days
• B. 20 to 40 hours
• C. 1 to 2 hours
• D. 8 minutes

G5C07

22. What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

• A. 150 to 1
• B. 12.2 to 1
• C. 24.4 to 1
• D. 300 to 1

G4B10

23. Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

• A. Radio wave propagation
• B. Antenna front-to-back ratio
• C. Standing wave ratio
• D. RF interference

G9B11

24. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

• A. 84 feet
• B. 263 feet
• C. 132 feet
• D. 42 feet

G1C07

25. What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

• A. 300 baud
• B. 1200 baud
• C. 19.6 kilobaud
• D. 56 kilobaud

G0A04

26. What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

• A. The total time of the exposure
• B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
• C. The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
• D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time

G1A11

27. When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

• A. The upper frequency end
• B. The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• C. The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• D. The lower frequency end

G7C09

28. What is the phase difference between the I and Q signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

• A. 180 degrees
• B. 45 degrees
• C. 90 degrees
• D. Zero

G5A07

29. What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

• A. The source delivers minimum power to the load
• B. No current can flow through the circuit
• C. The source can deliver maximum power to the load
• D. The electrical load is shorted

G7B07

30. Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

• A. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
• B. An amplifier and a divider
• C. A frequency multiplier and a mixer
• D. A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop

G2D07

31. Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

• A. Adam, Boy, Charles, David
• B. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
• C. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
• D. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

G4E09

32. What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

• A. 0.5 VDC
• B. 0.2 VDC
• C. 0.02 VDC
• D. 1.38 VDC

G4A16

33. How does a noise blanker work?

• A. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
• B. By clipping noise peaks
• C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
• D. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor

G6B09

34. Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

• A. It utilizes ambient or back lighting
• B. It offers a wide dynamic range
• C. It has relatively short lifetime
• D. It consumes relatively high power

G9A03

35. What is the typical characteristic impedance of "window line" parallel transmission line?

• A. 100 ohms
• B. 450 ohms
• C. 50 ohms
• D. 75 ohms