Practice Exam

G0A10

1. What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

• A. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
• B. Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor
• C. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
• D. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain

G8B04

2. What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

• A. Pre-emphasis network
• B. Mixer
• C. Reactance modulator
• D. Multiplier

G0B03

3. Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

• A. 60 amperes
• B. 100 amperes
• C. 15 amperes
• D. 30 amperes

G4A14

4. What is likely to happen if a transceiver's ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

• A. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
• D. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

G3B05

5. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

• A. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
• B. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
• C. They pass through the ionosphere
• D. They are bent back to Earth

G3A03

6. Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 8 minutes
• B. 1 to 2 hours
• C. 20 to 40 hours
• D. 28 days

G4D03

7. Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

• A. Distorted speech
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Excessive background pickup
• D. Splatter

G6B07

8. Which of the following describes a type N connector?

• A. A threaded connector used for hydraulic systems
• B. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
• C. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
• D. An audio connector used in surround-sound installations

G1D04

9. Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician class license examination?

• A. At least two General class or higher VEs must be present
• B. At least three VEs of Technician class or higher must observe the examination
• C. At least three General class or higher VEs must observe the examination
• D. At least two General class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be Amateur Extra class

G5C02

10. What happens if a signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

• A. Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
• B. The output voltage is divided by 4
• C. Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
• D. The output voltage is multiplied by 4

G2D03

11. What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

• A. Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC rules
• B. Identification of different call signs
• C. Identification of out-of-band operation
• D. Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

G7C14

12. The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

• A. Image and harmonic
• B. Cutoff and rolloff
• C. Pole and zero
• D. Upper and lower half-power

G6A05

13. What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

• A. 0.3 volts
• B. 1.0 volts
• C. 0.1 volt
• D. 0.7 volts

G7B01

14. What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

• A. To eliminate self-oscillations
• B. To keep the carrier on frequency
• C. To limit the modulation index
• D. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods

G8C11

15. How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

• A. Dot and dash
• B. High and low
• C. On and off
• D. Mark and space

G3C01

16. Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of Earth?

• A. The F1 layer
• B. The E layer
• C. The D layer
• D. The F2 layer

G1C14

17. What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

• A. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
• B. 10 watts RMS
• C. 1500 watts PEP
• D. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

G1B06

18. Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate Amateur Radio antenna structures?

• A. Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1000 feet from the structure
• B. At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
• C. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
• D. Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority

G9D06

19. Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

• A. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
• B. Harmonic suppression
• C. Polarization diversity
• D. Wide bandwidth

G2B02

20. What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

• A. Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
• B. Change to a different frequency
• C. Immediately cease all transmissions
• D. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

G2A11

21. Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states who calls "CQ DX"?

• A. Only contest stations
• B. Any stations outside the lower 48 states
• C. Only stations in Germany
• D. Any caller is welcome to respond

G1E08

22. What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

• A. 1500 watts
• B. 100 milliwatts
• C. 100 watts
• D. 10 watts

G5B12

23. What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

• A. 173 volts
• B. 692 volts
• C. 346 volts
• D. 245 volts

G5A08

24. What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

• A. To minimize radiation resistance
• B. To minimize transmitter power output
• C. To maximize the transfer of power
• D. To reduce power supply ripple

G9A08

25. If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

• A. 1 to 1
• B. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
• C. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
• D. 5 to 1

G4C09

26. How can a ground loop be avoided?

• A. Connect all ground conductors in series
• B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
• C. Connect all ground conductors to a single point
• D. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

G9B08

27. How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

• A. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
• B. It steadily decreases
• C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
• D. It steadily increases

G4E02

28. What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

• A. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
• B. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
• C. To increase the "Q" of the antenna
• D. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object

G2E10

29. Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

• A. Send QRL in Morse code
• B. Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
• C. Send an email to the system control operator
• D. Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency

G7A07

30. What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

• A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
• B. A steady DC voltage
• C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
• D. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

G2C05

31. What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

• A. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
• B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
• C. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
• D. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm

G8A10

32. What is meant by the term "flat-topping," when referring to a single sideband phone transmission?

• A. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
• B. The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
• C. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
• D. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive

G1A08

33. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 80-meter band?

• A. 3560 kHz
• B. 1855 kHz
• C. 2560 kHz
• D. 3650 kHz

G9C13

34. Approximately how long is each side of the driven element of a quad antenna?

• A. 1 wavelength
• B. 1/4 wavelength
• C. 3/4 wavelength
• D. 1/2 wavelength

G4B10

35. Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

• A. Radio wave propagation
• B. Standing wave ratio
• C. Antenna front-to-back ratio
• D. RF interference