Practice Exam

G5A07

1. What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

• A. The electrical load is shorted
• B. No current can flow through the circuit
• C. The source can deliver maximum power to the load
• D. The source delivers minimum power to the load

G8A01

2. How is an FSK signal generated?

• A. By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
• B. By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
• C. By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
• D. By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

G4A10

3. What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

• A. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
• B. Automatic transmit/receive switching
• C. VOX operation
• D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

G0B11

4. Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

• A. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
• B. They must be bonded together with all other grounds
• C. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
• D. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

G3C06

5. What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

• A. Phone signals have high intelligibility
• B. Signals have a fluttering sound
• C. There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
• D. Scatter propagation occurs only at night

G1A01

6. On which HF/MF bands is a General class license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges?

• A. 60 meters, 20 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
• B. 160 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
• C. 160 meters, 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
• D. 160 meters, 80 meters, 40 meters, and 10 meters

G8B01

7. Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

• A. Image frequency
• B. Beat frequency oscillator
• C. Local oscillator
• D. RF input

G4B15

8. What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

• A. Linearity
• B. Percentage of carrier phase shift
• C. Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
• D. Percentage of frequency modulation

G2B05

9. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. Approximately 3 kHz
• B. Approximately 6 kHz
• C. 150 to 500 Hz
• D. 5 to 50 Hz

G1B08

10. When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice?

• A. Ensure that the frequency and mode selected are within your license class privileges
• B. Follow generally accepted band plans agreed to by the Amateur Radio community
• C. Monitor the frequency before transmitting
• D. All these choices are correct

G6A07

11. What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

• A. Its enhancement and depletion modes
• B. Its saturation and cutoff regions
• C. Its peak and valley current points
• D. Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)

G3B08

12. What does MUF stand for?

• A. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• D. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

G1D08

13. Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

• A. The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
• B. The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General class or above
• C. The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years
• D. None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

G7A01

14. What useful feature does a power supply bleeder resistor provide?

• A. It eliminates ground loop current
• B. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
• C. It ensures that the filter capacitors are discharged when power is removed
• D. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage

G7C12

15. What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter's output power is less than half the input power?

• A. Rolloff frequency
• B. Neper frequency
• C. Notch frequency
• D. Cutoff frequency

G9B12

16. What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

• A. 8 feet
• B. 16 feet
• C. 11 feet
• D. 21 feet

G1C12

17. Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

• A. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
• B. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
• C. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
• D. You must keep a record of all third-party traffic

G4E02

18. What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

• A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
• B. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
• C. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
• D. To increase the "Q" of the antenna

G9C12

19. Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

• A. It does not require any inductors or capacitors
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. It does not require that the driven element be insulated from the boom
• D. It is useful for matching multiband antennas

G3A14

20. How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

• A. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
• B. VHF/UHF ducting is improved
• C. HF communications are improved
• D. HF communications are disturbed

G1E05

21. What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

• A. Only messages for other licensed amateurs
• B. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
• C. Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
• D. Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log

G2A12

22. What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

• A. Transmit audio or microphone gain
• B. The RF clipping level
• C. Antenna inductance or capacitance
• D. Attenuator level

G5B06

23. What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

• A. 353.5 watts
• B. 400 watts
• C. 100 watts
• D. 1.4 watts

G4C03

24. What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

• A. Clearly audible speech
• B. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
• C. Distorted speech
• D. On-and-off humming or clicking

G7B02

25. Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

• A. Class A
• B. Class C
• C. Class B
• D. Class AB

G2D08

26. What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

• A. The ITU requires a log of all international third-party traffic
• B. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
• C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
• D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information

G9D02

27. What is the feed-point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

• A. Approximately 300 ohms
• B. Very high
• C. Very low
• D. Approximately 50 ohms

G9A01

28. Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

• A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
• B. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
• C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
• D. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

G0A02

29. Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Its power density
• C. Its duty cycle
• D. Its frequency

G2C05

30. What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

• A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
• B. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
• C. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
• D. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

G2E11

31. Which of the following is characteristic of the FT8 mode of the WSJT-X family?

• A. Each transmission takes exactly 60 seconds
• B. Typical exchanges are limited to call signs, grid locators, and signal reports
• C. It is a keyboard-to-keyboard chat mode
• D. It is limited to use on VHF

G8C09

32. What does the number 31 represent in "PSK31"?

• A. The number of characters that can be represented by PSK31
• B. The version of the PSK protocol
• C. The year in which PSK31 was invented
• D. The approximate transmitted symbol rate

G6B09

33. Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

• A. It consumes relatively high power
• B. It has relatively short lifetime
• C. It utilizes ambient or back lighting
• D. It offers a wide dynamic range

G5C02

34. What happens if a signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

• A. Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
• B. The output voltage is divided by 4
• C. Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
• D. The output voltage is multiplied by 4

G4D01

35. What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

• A. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
• B. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
• C. Prevent distortion of voice signals
• D. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions