Practice Exam

G1D06

1. When must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call sign if you are a Technician class licensee and have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class operator privileges, but the FCC has not yet posted your upgrade on its website?

• A. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges
• B. Whenever you operate on any amateur frequency
• C. Whenever you operate using General class frequency privileges
• D. A special identifier is not required if your General class license application has been filed with the FCC

G7C07

2. What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

• A. HF oscillator, mixer, detector
• B. RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
• C. RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
• D. HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier

G3C05

3. Why is long-distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

• A. The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
• B. The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
• C. The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
• D. The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

G1B10

4. What is the power limit for beacon stations?

• A. 10 watts PEP output
• B. 200 watts PEP output
• C. 100 watts PEP output
• D. 20 watts PEP output

G8B09

5. Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

• A. It is required by FCC rules
• B. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
• C. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
• D. It improves impedance matching of the antenna

G5B10

6. What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

• A. 20.6 percent
• B. 12.2 percent
• C. 10.9 percent
• D. 25.9 percent

G1C06

7. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

• A. 200 watts PEP output
• B. 1500 watts PEP output
• C. 1200 watts PEP output
• D. 1000 watts PEP output

G5C17

8. What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 picofarad (pF) capacitor?

• A. 220
• B. 22
• C. 0.22
• D. 2.2

G2D02

9. Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

• A. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
• B. To provide emergency and public safety communications
• C. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
• D. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

G4C07

10. Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

• A. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
• B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
• C. The resistance of solder is too high
• D. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection

G2E05

11. What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65, JT9, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

• A. DSB
• B. USB
• C. SSB
• D. LSB

G1A09

12. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

• A. 24900 kHz
• B. 14250 kHz
• C. 21300 kHz
• D. 18155 kHz

G2A01

13. Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

• A. Double sideband
• B. Upper sideband
• C. Vestigial sideband
• D. Lower sideband

G5A06

14. How does a capacitor react to AC?

• A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G2C10

15. What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

• A. I am troubled by static
• B. Zero beat my signal
• C. Stop sending
• D. Send more slowly

G6B06

16. What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

• A. Digital
• B. Analog
• C. Programmable Logic
• D. MMIC

G9B12

17. What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

• A. 16 feet
• B. 8 feet
• C. 11 feet
• D. 21 feet

G3A04

18. Which of the following are least reliable for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

• A. 60 meters and 40 meters
• B. 80 meters and 160 meters
• C. 30 meters and 20 meters
• D. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

G0A07

19. What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

• A. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
• B. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
• C. A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
• D. A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

G3B02

20. What factors affect the MUF?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Time of day and season
• C. Path distance and location
• D. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances

G4A04

21. What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

• A. A pronounced dip
• B. No change will be observed
• C. A pronounced peak
• D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation

G2B01

22. Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

• A. QSOs in progress always have priority
• B. Nets always have priority
• C. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
• D. Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies

G4E04

23. Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

• A. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
• B. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
• C. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
• D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

G6A05

24. What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode?

• A. 0.3 volts
• B. 0.1 volt
• C. 1.0 volts
• D. 0.7 volts

G8A06

25. Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

• A. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
• B. Its encoding provides error correction
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. It is sideband sensitive

G0B11

26. Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

• A. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
• B. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
• C. They must be bonded together with all other grounds
• D. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

G9C12

27. Which of the following is an advantage of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

• A. It does not require that the driven element be insulated from the boom
• B. It is useful for matching multiband antennas
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. It does not require any inductors or capacitors

G4B07

28. What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

• A. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
• B. Two swept frequency tones
• C. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
• D. Two non-harmonically related audio signals

G9D01

29. Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a Near Vertical Incidence Skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

• A. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
• B. A left-hand circularly polarized antenna
• C. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
• D. A right-hand circularly polarized antenna

G4D07

30. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

• A. Approximately 4 times
• B. Approximately 8 times
• C. Approximately 2 times
• D. Approximately 1.5 times

G7A09

31. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

• A. Symbol 5
• B. Symbol 4
• C. Symbol 2
• D. Symbol 1

G1E02

32. When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

• A. Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
• B. Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
• C. Under no circumstances
• D. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency

G7B03

33. Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

• A. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
• B. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
• C. Output is low only when both inputs are high
• D. Output is high only when both inputs are high

G9A13

34. What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

• A. Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
• B. The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially low
• C. The higher the transmission line loss, the more accurate the SWR measurement will be
• D. The higher the transmission line loss, the more the SWR will read artificially high

G8C13

35. What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a digital signal?

• A. Overmodulation
• B. Backscatter propagation
• C. Long path propagation
• D. Insufficient modulation