Practice Exam

G3C08

1. Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

• A. Propagation is through ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
• B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
• C. Propagation is through ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
• D. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

G6B10

2. How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

• A. It converts common-mode current to differential mode
• B. By creating an impedance in the current's path
• C. By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
• D. Ferrites expel magnetic fields

G8A04

3. What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

• A. Amplitude modulation
• B. Multiplex modulation
• C. Phase modulation
• D. Pulse modulation

G1D02

4. What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General class operator license?

• A. Technician only
• B. General and Technician
• C. Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
• D. General only

G2B03

5. What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact and you notice interference from other stations on the frequency?

• A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
• B. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
• C. Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
• D. Increase power to overcome interference

G5C05

6. If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor?

• A. 90 ohms
• B. 175 ohms
• C. 150 ohms
• D. 1500 ohms

G4B06

7. What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

• A. Better for RF measurements
• B. Better precision for most uses
• C. Better for measuring computer circuits
• D. Faster response

G9C09

8. How does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

• A. Approximately 6 dB higher
• B. Approximately 3 dB higher
• C. Approximately 9 dB higher
• D. Approximately 1.5 dB higher

G0A11

9. What precaution should you take if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

• A. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
• B. Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
• C. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
• D. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation

G8C13

10. What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a digital signal?

• A. Overmodulation
• B. Backscatter propagation
• C. Long path propagation
• D. Insufficient modulation

G7B02

11. Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

• A. Class AB
• B. Class B
• C. Class A
• D. Class C

G1E08

12. What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

• A. 100 milliwatts
• B. 10 watts
• C. 100 watts
• D. 1500 watts

G8B01

13. Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

• A. RF input
• B. Local oscillator
• C. Image frequency
• D. Beat frequency oscillator

G2C01

14. Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

• A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign "BK"
• B. Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
• C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
• D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

G3B01

15. What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

• A. A slightly delayed echo might be heard
• B. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
• C. Signal strength increased by 3 dB
• D. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation

G7C15

16. What term specifies a filter's attenuation inside its passband?

• A. Insertion loss
• B. Ultimate rejection
• C. Return loss
• D. Q

G4D02

17. Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

• A. It reduces intermodulation distortion
• B. It increases peak power
• C. It reduces harmonic distortion
• D. It increases average power

G0B05

18. Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

• A. Overvoltage on the voltage-carrying wires
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires to the neutral wire
• D. Current flowing from one or more of the voltage-carrying wires directly to ground

G1C08

19. What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

• A. 19.6 kilobaud
• B. 300 baud
• C. 56 kilobaud
• D. 1200 baud

G9A10

20. What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 10 ohm impedance?

• A. 50:1
• B. 5:1
• C. 1:5
• D. 2:1

G5A02

21. What is reactance?

• A. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
• B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
• C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits
• D. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

G6A11

22. What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

• A. Harmonics are generated
• B. Its reactance increases
• C. Catastrophic failure is likely
• D. It becomes capacitive

G9D08

23. How does a "screwdriver" mobile antenna adjust its feed-point impedance?

• A. By varying the base loading inductance
• B. By varying its body capacitance
• C. By extending and retracting the whip
• D. By deploying a capacitance hat

G7A09

24. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

• A. Symbol 4
• B. Symbol 5
• C. Symbol 1
• D. Symbol 2

G9B07

25. How does the feed-point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna is lowered below 1/4 wave above ground?

• A. It steadily increases
• B. It is unaffected by the height above ground
• C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
• D. It steadily decreases

G1A11

26. When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them?

• A. The lower frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• B. The lower frequency end
• C. The upper frequency end
• D. The upper frequency end on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower end on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

G2E13

27. Which communication system sometimes uses the internet to transfer messages?

• A. SKYWARN
• B. Winlink
• C. ARES
• D. RTTY

G2D05

28. Which of the following is a good way to indicate on a clear frequency in the HF phone bands that you are looking for a contact with any station?

• A. Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by "this is" and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
• B. Say "QTC" followed by "this is" and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
• C. Repeat "CQ" a few times, followed by "this is," then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
• D. Sign your call sign once, followed by the words "listening for a call" -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat

G2A06

29. Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

• A. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
• B. Very high fidelity voice modulation
• C. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
• D. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

G4E04

30. Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

• A. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
• B. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
• C. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
• D. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

G4C02

31. Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

• A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
• B. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
• C. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
• D. Arcing at a poor electrical connection

G3A13

32. What does the A-index indicate?

• A. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
• B. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the sun
• C. The long-term stability of Earth's geomagnetic field
• D. The amount of polarization of the sun's electric field

G5B05

33. How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1250 ohm resistance?

• A. Approximately 61 watts
• B. Approximately 61 milliwatts
• C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
• D. Approximately 11 watts

G4A01

34. What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

• A. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
• B. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
• C. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
• D. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth

G1B06

35. Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate Amateur Radio antenna structures?

• A. Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1000 feet from the structure
• B. At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
• C. Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
• D. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity