Practice Exam

G5B14

1. What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

• A. 625 watts
• B. 8.75 watts
• C. 2500 watts
• D. 5000 watts

G8A07

2. Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

• A. Phase modulation
• B. Frequency modulation
• C. Single sideband
• D. Vestigial sideband

G0A08

3. Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

• A. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
• B. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels

G4D01

4. What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

• A. Prevent distortion of voice signals
• B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
• C. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
• D. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

G1C11

5. What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

• A. RMS output from the transmitter
• B. RMS input to the antenna
• C. PEP output from the transmitter
• D. PEP input to the antenna

G1B08

6. When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

• A. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
• B. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
• C. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
• D. Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

G0B13

7. Where should lightning arrestors be located?

• A. In series with each ground lead
• B. Where the feed lines enter the building
• C. At the closest power pole ground electrode
• D. On the antenna, opposite the feed point

G4E11

8. What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

• A. The solar panel must have a charge controller
• B. Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
• C. Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
• D. A series resistor must be in place

G9C03

9. How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

• A. Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
• B. They are all the same length
• C. The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
• D. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter

G1A10

10. What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

• A. The entire band
• B. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
• C. The portion above 29.5 MHz
• D. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz

G1E07

11. In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

• A. Anywhere in the band
• B. Channels 1 through 4
• C. Channels 42 through 45
• D. No part

G6A11

12. What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

• A. It becomes capacitive
• B. Its reactance increases
• C. Harmonics are generated
• D. Catastrophic failure is likely

G9B06

13. Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

• A. At the center of the antenna
• B. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
• C. As high as possible above the ground
• D. Parallel to the antenna element

G3B03

14. Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

• A. Just above the critical frequency
• B. Just below the MUF
• C. Just below the critical frequency
• D. Just above the LUF

G9A03

15. What is the nominal characteristic impedance of "window line" transmission line?

• A. 75 ohms
• B. 50 ohms
• C. 100 ohms
• D. 450 ohms

G8B10

16. What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

• A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
• B. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• C. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
• D. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

G3A09

17. How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

• A. Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
• B. Improve HF long path propagation
• C. Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
• D. Reduce long delayed echoes

G2E14

18. What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

• A. The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. You may have selected the wrong baud rate
• D. You may be listening on the wrong sideband

G4C10

19. What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station's audio connections?

• A. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
• B. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
• C. You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
• D. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high

G4B04

20. What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

• A. An external RF oscillator
• B. The transmitter balanced mixer output
• C. The local oscillator of the transmitter
• D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

G5C04

21. What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

• A. 67 ohms
• B. 75 ohms
• C. 150 ohms
• D. 300 ohms

G4A08

22. What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

• A. Minimum SWR on the antenna
• B. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
• C. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
• D. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

G7C08

23. Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

• A. Input amplifier gain
• B. Demodulator stage bandwidth
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Input amplifier noise figure

G1D07

24. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
• B. The Universal Licensing System
• C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
• D. The Federal Communications Commission

G2C06

25. What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

• A. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
• B. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
• C. Sending without error
• D. Matching the speed of the transmitting station

G7B11

26. For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

• A. FM
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. AM
• D. SSB

G6B12

27. Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

• A. BNC
• B. Type N
• C. RCA Phono
• D. PL-259

G2B08

28. What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

• A. Only SSTV contacts
• B. Only digital contacts
• C. Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
• D. Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

G7A05

29. What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

• A. 360 degrees
• B. 90 degrees
• C. 180 degrees
• D. 270 degrees

G8C13

30. What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

• A. Long path propagation
• B. Insufficient modulation
• C. Backscatter propagation
• D. Overmodulation

G2D05

31. Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

• A. Sign your call sign once, followed by the words "listening for a call" -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
• B. Repeat "CQ" a few times, followed by "this is," then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
• C. Say "QTC" followed by "this is" and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
• D. Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by "this is" and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary

G9D07

32. Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

• A. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
• B. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
• C. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
• D. Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom

G3C09

33. What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?

• A. Chordal hop
• B. Short-path
• C. Faraday rotation
• D. Scatter

G2A06

34. Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

• A. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
• B. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
• C. Very high-fidelity voice modulation
• D. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

G5A12

35. What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

• A. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
• B. The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
• C. Resistance is cancelled
• D. Current and voltage are equal