Practice Exam

G4A03

1. What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode?

• A. The radio is operating at half power
• B. The transceiver is operating from an external power source
• C. The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
• D. The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

G2B09

2. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

• A. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
• B. Only a RACES net control operator
• C. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
• D. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

G9B09

3. Which of the following is an advantage of a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

• A. Lower feed-point impedance
• B. Shorter radials
• C. Lower ground reflection losses
• D. Lower radiation resistance

G8B07

4. What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

• A. 416.7 Hz
• B. 5 kHz
• C. 60 kHz
• D. 101.75 Hz

G3C07

5. What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

• A. The ionospheric layer involved is unstable
• B. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths
• C. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
• D. The E-region is not present

G4C09

6. How can a ground loop be avoided?

• A. Connect all ground conductors to a single point
• B. Connect all ground conductors in series
• C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
• D. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire

G5A09

7. What unit is used to measure reactance?

• A. Ampere
• B. Siemens
• C. Ohm
• D. Farad

G8C03

8. What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

• A. Preamble
• B. Footer
• C. Directory
• D. Header

G9D04

9. What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

• A. To notch spurious frequencies
• B. To prevent out-of-band operation
• C. To permit multiband operation
• D. To provide balanced feed-point impedance

G9C15

10. What is meant by the terms dBi and dBd when referring to antenna gain?

• A. dBi refers to an inverted-vee antenna, dBd refers to a downward reflecting antenna
• B. dBi refers to an isometric antenna, dBd refers to a discone antenna
• C. dBi refers to an isotropic antenna, dBd refers to a dipole antenna
• D. dBi refers to an ionospheric reflecting antenna, dBd refers to a dissipative antenna

G2C10

11. What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

• A. I am troubled by static
• B. Send more slowly
• C. Zero beat my signal
• D. Stop sending

G6A07

12. What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit?

• A. Its saturation and cutoff regions
• B. Its peak and valley current points
• C. Its active region (between the cutoff and saturation regions)
• D. Its enhancement and depletion modes

G5C07

13. What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

• A. 300 to 1
• B. 12.2 to 1
• C. 150 to 1
• D. 24.4 to 1

G4D05

14. How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

• A. It is 100 times more powerful
• B. It is 20 times less powerful
• C. It is 20 times more powerful
• D. It is 10 times less powerful

G7C08

15. What circuit is used in analog FM receivers to convert IF output signals to audio?

• A. Product detector
• B. Mixer
• C. Discriminator
• D. Phase inverter

G9A03

16. What is the typical characteristic impedance of "window line" parallel transmission line?

• A. 75 ohms
• B. 50 ohms
• C. 450 ohms
• D. 100 ohms

G7B08

17. How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

• A. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
• B. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
• C. Add the RF input power to the DC output power
• D. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

G4B07

18. What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

• A. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
• B. Two swept frequency tones
• C. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
• D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

G1D11

19. What is required to obtain a new General Class license after a previously-held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

• A. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
• B. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
• C. The applicant must pass the current Element 2 exam
• D. The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the U.S. showing his or her name and address

G3A03

20. Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 8 minutes
• B. 28 days
• C. 1 to 2 hours
• D. 20 to 40 hours

G7A01

21. What useful feature does a power supply bleeder resistor provide?

• A. It eliminates ground loop current
• B. It ensures that the filter capacitors are discharged when power is removed
• C. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
• D. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils

G3B08

22. What does MUF stand for?

• A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• B. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• C. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• D. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

G8A07

23. Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

• A. Double sideband
• B. Single sideband
• C. Phase modulation
• D. Frequency modulation

G0B08

24. What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

• A. Unground the base of the tower
• B. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
• C. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
• D. All these choices are correct

G1B01

25. What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC, provided it is not at or near a public use airport?

• A. 50 feet
• B. 300 feet
• C. 100 feet
• D. 200 feet

G5B07

26. What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

• A. The peak value
• B. The reciprocal of the RMS value
• C. The RMS value
• D. The peak-to-peak value

G1E05

27. What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station?

• A. Any messages, as long as the text of the message is recorded in the station log
• B. Only messages relating to Amateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
• C. Any message, as long as the amateur operator is not paid
• D. Only messages for other licensed amateurs

G1A14

28. Which of the following may apply in areas under FCC jurisdiction outside of ITU Region 2?

• A. Morse code may not be permitted
• B. Station identification may have to be in a language other than English
• C. Frequency allocations may differ
• D. Digital transmission may not be permitted

G1C01

29. What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 1000 watts PEP output
• B. 2000 watts PEP output
• C. 1500 watts PEP output
• D. 200 watts PEP output

G4E11

30. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

• A. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
• D. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent

G2A03

31. Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

• A. Lower sideband
• B. Vestigial sideband
• C. Double sideband
• D. Upper sideband

G0A02

32. Which of the following properties is important in estimating whether an RF signal exceeds the maximum permissible exposure (MPE)?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Its power density
• C. Its duty cycle
• D. Its frequency

G2D06

33. How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

• A. 180 degrees from the station's short-path heading
• B. Toward the north
• C. Toward the rising sun
• D. Along the grayline

G2E04

34. What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions (avoiding the DX propagation beacons)?

• A. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz
• B. 14.070 - 14.112 MHz
• C. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz
• D. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz

G6B13

35. Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz?

• A. Octal
• B. RJ-11
• C. PL-259
• D. DB-25