Practice Exam

G0A01

1. What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

• A. It cools body tissue
• B. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
• C. It heats body tissue
• D. It causes radiation poisoning

G9A03

2. What is the nominal characteristic impedance of "window line" transmission line?

• A. 75 ohms
• B. 100 ohms
• C. 450 ohms
• D. 50 ohms

G1A05

3. On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

• A. 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
• B. 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
• C. All of the above
• D. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz

G5B12

4. What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

• A. 692 volts
• B. 346 volts
• C. 245 volts
• D. 173 volts

G4B03

5. Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

• A. A field strength meter
• B. A sidetone monitor
• C. An oscilloscope
• D. A wavemeter

G5C09

6. What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

• A. 0.33 microfarads
• B. 3.0 microfarads
• C. 33.3 microfarads
• D. 300 microfarads

G7A08

7. Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

• A. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
• B. High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
• C. Inherently more stable
• D. Fewer circuit components are required

G7B02

8. Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

• A. Class B
• B. Class AB
• C. Class A
• D. Class C

G2E02

9. What is VARA?

• A. A digital protocol used with Winlink
• B. A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
• C. A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
• D. A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF

G8B05

10. Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

• A. Even-order
• B. Odd-order
• C. Intercept point
• D. Second harmonics

G2B01

11. Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

• A. QSOs in progress have priority
• B. Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
• C. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
• D. Nets have priority

G6A07

12. What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

• A. Peak and valley current points
• B. The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
• C. Enhancement and depletion modes
• D. Saturation and cutoff

G3A12

13. What does the K-index measure?

• A. The short-term stability of Earth's geomagnetic field
• B. The short-term stability of the Sun's magnetic field
• C. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
• D. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun

G9C05

14. What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

• A. Gain increases
• B. Resonant frequency is lower
• C. Front-to-back ratio decreases
• D. Beamwidth increases

G1E05

15. What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

• A. They must be for other licensed amateurs
• B. They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
• C. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
• D. The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log

G4E07

16. Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. The control computers
• C. The battery charging system
• D. The fuel delivery system

G7C02

17. What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

• A. Audio extracted from the modulation signal
• B. Audio with equalized frequency response
• C. Double-sideband modulated RF
• D. Frequency modulated RF

G8C11

18. How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

• A. Dot and dash
• B. Mark and space
• C. High and low
• D. On and off

G9B12

19. What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

• A. 11 feet
• B. 16 feet
• C. 21 feet
• D. 8 feet

G4D01

20. What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

• A. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
• B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
• C. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
• D. Prevent distortion of voice signals

G1B05

21. Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

• A. Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
• D. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

G2C02

22. What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS?"

• A. Send slower
• B. Change frequency
• C. Increase your power
• D. Repeat everything twice

G4A06

23. What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

• A. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
• D. Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna

G4C06

24. What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

• A. Overheating of ground straps
• B. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
• C. Corrosion of the ground rod
• D. A ground loop

G9D02

25. What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

• A. Very high
• B. Approximately 50 ohms
• C. Very low
• D. Approximately 300 ohms

G2D09

26. Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Submit a log to the contest sponsor
• C. Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
• D. Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations

G6B07

27. Which of the following describes a type N connector?

• A. A low noise figure VHF connector
• B. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
• C. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
• D. A nickel plated version of the PL-259

G0B03

28. Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

• A. 25 amperes
• B. 30 amperes
• C. 20 amperes
• D. 15 amperes

G3B04

29. Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

• A. Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Check the A-index
• D. Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received

G2A04

30. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

• A. Suppressed sideband
• B. Double sideband
• C. Upper sideband
• D. Lower sideband

G3C01

31. Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

• A. The F2 region
• B. The F1 region
• C. The E region
• D. The D region

G8A11

32. What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

• A. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
• B. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
• C. The carrier frequency that contains the signal
• D. The bandwidth of the modulated signal

G1C07

33. What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

• A. Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
• B. Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
• C. Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
• D. Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

G5A07

34. What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

• A. Reluctance
• B. Conductance
• C. Susceptance
• D. Admittance

G1D06

35. Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with "AG" after their call sign?

• A. Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
• B. Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
• C. Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
• D. A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC