Practice Exam

G8A11

1. What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

• A. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
• B. The carrier frequency that contains the signal
• C. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
• D. The bandwidth of the modulated signal

G4E05

2. Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

• A. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
• B. "Picket fencing"
• C. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
• D. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

G7C14

3. The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

• A. Image and harmonic
• B. Upper and lower half-power
• C. Cutoff and rolloff
• D. Pole and zero

G9D04

4. What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

• A. To prevent out-of-band operation
• B. To notch spurious frequencies
• C. To permit multiband operation
• D. To provide balanced feed-point impedance

G1A13

5. What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30-meter or 60-meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

• A. Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting
• B. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference
• C. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference
• D. Notify the FCCs regional Engineer in Charge of the interference

G3B04

6. What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

• A. Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use
• B. Send a series of dots on the band and listen for echoes from your signal
• C. Check the strength of TV signals from western Europe
• D. Check the strength of signals in the MF AM broadcast band

G2E09

7. How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

• A. Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
• B. Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
• C. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
• D. Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station must stand by

G9B10

8. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

• A. 16 feet
• B. 24 feet
• C. 33 feet
• D. 8 feet

G5C17

9. What is the value in nanofarads (nF) of a 22,000 picofarad (pF) capacitor?

• A. 0.22
• B. 220
• C. 2.2
• D. 22

G1C14

10. What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

• A. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
• B. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
• C. 10 watts RMS
• D. 1500 watts PEP

G1E02

11. When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

• A. Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
• B. Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
• C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
• D. Under no circumstances

G0B11

12. Which of the following is good practice for lightning protection grounds?

• A. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
• B. They must be bonded together with all other grounds
• C. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
• D. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring

G2A02

13. Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

• A. Lower sideband
• B. Double sideband
• C. Upper sideband
• D. Vestigial sideband

G2C09

14. What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

• A. I acknowledge receipt
• B. We have worked before
• C. Send slower
• D. We have already confirmed by card

G4A17

15. What happens as the noise reduction control level in a receiver is increased?

• A. Received frequency may shift several kHz
• B. CW signals may become severely attenuated
• C. Received signals may become distorted
• D. Received frequency may become unstable

G7B01

16. What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter?

• A. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
• B. To keep the carrier on frequency
• C. To limit the modulation index
• D. To eliminate self-oscillations

G8B05

17. What is the approximate bandwidth of a PACTOR-III signal at maximum data rate?

• A. 500 Hz
• B. 31.5 Hz
• C. 2300 Hz
• D. 1800 Hz

G3C05

18. Why is long-distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

• A. The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
• B. The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
• C. The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
• D. The F layer is unstable during daylight hours

G9A08

19. If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5 to 1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to 1 to 1 SWR, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

• A. 5 to 1
• B. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
• C. Between 1 to 1 and 5 to 1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
• D. 1 to 1

G4C09

20. How can a ground loop be avoided?

• A. Connect all ground conductors in series
• B. Connect all ground conductors to a single point
• C. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
• D. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

G4D10

21. How close to the lower edge of the phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

• A. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
• B. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
• C. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
• D. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment

G1D07

22. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. The Federal Communications Commission
• B. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
• C. The Universal Licensing System
• D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

G7A04

23. What is an advantage of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

• A. Only one diode is required
• B. The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
• C. The output voltage is two times the peak output voltage of the transformer
• D. More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier

G3A03

24. Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 1 to 2 hours
• B. 20 to 40 hours
• C. 28 days
• D. 8 minutes

G2B05

25. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. Approximately 6 kHz
• B. 150 to 500 Hz
• C. Approximately 3 kHz
• D. 5 to 50 Hz

G8C07

26. How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

• A. It requests the packet be retransmitted
• B. It requests a change in transmitting protocol
• C. It sends the packet back to the transmitting station
• D. It terminates the contact

G5B04

27. How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

• A. 6 watts
• B. 60 watts
• C. 24 watts
• D. 2.4 watts

G2D11

28. Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

• A. World-wide propagation during the daylight hours
• B. Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
• C. Poor propagation at any time of day
• D. High levels of atmospheric noise or "static"

G5A10

29. Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. A transformer
• C. A length of transmission line
• D. A Pi-network

G9C10

30. Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

• A. The physical length of the boom
• B. The spacing of each element along the boom
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. The number of elements on the boom

G6B09

31. Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display?

• A. It consumes relatively high power
• B. It has relatively short lifetime
• C. It offers a wide dynamic range
• D. It utilizes ambient or back lighting

G6A06

32. Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?

• A. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit
• B. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit
• C. The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
• D. The resistor could overheat

G0A03

33. How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. By calculation based on computer modeling
• C. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
• D. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment

G1B04

34. Which of the following transmissions is permitted?

• A. Coded messages of any kind, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
• B. Unidentified transmissions for test purposes only
• C. Retransmission of other amateur station signals by any amateur station
• D. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from U.S. government stations

G4B02

35. Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

• A. Complex impedances can be easily measured
• B. An oscilloscope uses less power
• C. Complex waveforms can be measured
• D. Input impedance is much lower