Practice Exam

G5C07

1. What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

• A. 300 to 1
• B. 12.2 to 1
• C. 150 to 1
• D. 24.4 to 1

G4C01

2. Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

• A. Bypass capacitor
• B. Reverse-biased diode
• C. Bypass inductor
• D. Forward-biased diode

G8C13

3. What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a digital signal?

• A. Backscatter propagation
• B. Long path propagation
• C. Overmodulation
• D. Insufficient modulation

G2A06

4. Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

• A. Very high fidelity voice modulation
• B. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
• C. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
• D. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

G9A06

5. In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

• A. Decibels per 1000 feet
• B. Ohms per 100 feet
• C. Decibels per 100 feet
• D. Ohms per 1000 feet

G5B11

6. What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

• A. 2.00
• B. 0.707
• C. 1.414
• D. 1.00

G2D08

7. What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

• A. The ITU requires a log of all international third-party traffic
• B. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information
• C. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
• D. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

G8B08

8. Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

• A. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
• B. The attenuator will have to be adjusted accordingly
• C. To aid in tuning your transmitter
• D. Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter's average power rating

G1E03

9. What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

• A. No third-party traffic may be transmitted
• B. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra Class license
• C. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
• D. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control

G2E13

10. Which communication system sometimes uses the internet to transfer messages?

• A. SKYWARN
• B. Winlink
• C. ARES
• D. RTTY

G7C07

11. What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver?

• A. RF amplifier, detector, audio amplifier
• B. HF oscillator, mixer, detector
• C. RF amplifier, mixer, IF discriminator
• D. HF oscillator, prescaler, audio amplifier

G4E04

12. Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

• A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
• B. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
• C. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
• D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

G6B06

13. What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

• A. Digital
• B. Programmable Logic
• C. MMIC
• D. Analog

G7B04

14. Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate?

• A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
• B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
• C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
• D. Output is low only when both inputs are high

G0A08

15. Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in FCC Part 97.13?

• A. Contact the FCC for a visit to conduct a station evaluation
• B. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
• C. Post a copy of OET Bulletin 65 in the station
• D. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation

G3A08

16. Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation?

• A. Degraded high-latitude HF propagation
• B. Improved ground wave propagation
• C. Degraded ground wave propagation
• D. Improved high-latitude HF propagation

G3B07

17. What does LUF stand for?

• A. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• B. The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points
• C. The Longest Universal Function during a 24-hour period
• D. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points

G9B02

18. Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed-point impedance of a quarter wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

• A. Lengthen the radials
• B. Slope the radials upward
• C. Shorten the radials
• D. Slope the radials downward

G7A06

19. What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

• A. 270 degrees
• B. 180 degrees
• C. 90 degrees
• D. 360 degrees

G9C09

20. How does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

• A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher
• B. Approximately 6 dB higher
• C. Approximately 3 dB higher
• D. Approximately 9 dB higher

G2C02

21. What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

• A. Change frequency
• B. Send slower
• C. Increase your power
• D. Repeat everything twice

G1A15

22. What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

• A. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
• B. The entire band
• C. The portion above 29.5 MHz
• D. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz

G9D03

23. In which direction is the maximum radiation from a portable VHF/UHF "halo" antenna?

• A. Broadside to the plane of the halo
• B. Toward the halo's supporting mast
• C. Opposite the feed point
• D. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo

G8A09

24. What type of modulation is used by the FT8 digital mode?

• A. Vestigial sideband
• B. Direct sequence spread spectrum
• C. 8-tone frequency shift keying
• D. Amplitude compressed AM

G3C07

25. What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

• A. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
• B. The E-region is not present
• C. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths
• D. The ionospheric layer involved is unstable

G1C07

26. What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band?

• A. 56 kilobaud
• B. 1200 baud
• C. 300 baud
• D. 19.6 kilobaud

G0B08

27. What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

• A. Unground the base of the tower
• B. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

G4D02

28. Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

• A. It increases average power
• B. It increases peak power
• C. It reduces harmonic distortion
• D. It reduces intermodulation distortion

G4A01

29. What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

• A. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
• B. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
• C. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
• D. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

G1B12

30. When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

• A. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
• B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
• C. Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
• D. Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union

G2B08

31. What is the voluntary band plan restriction for U.S. stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 to 50.125 MHz band segment?

• A. Only SSTV contacts
• B. Only digital contacts
• C. Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
• D. Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

G1D07

32. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. The Universal Licensing System
• B. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
• C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
• D. The Federal Communications Commission

G5A05

33. How does an inductor react to AC?

• A. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• C. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G4B04

34. What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

• A. An external RF oscillator
• B. The transmitter balanced mixer output
• C. The local oscillator of the transmitter
• D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

G6A12

35. What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

• A. To increase efficiency
• B. To decrease plate resistance
• C. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
• D. To increase the control grid resistance