Practice Exam

G8B13

1. Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

• A. 2F1-F2
• B. 3F1-F2
• C. 5F1-3F2
• D. All these choices are correct

G9A01

2. Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

• A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
• B. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
• C. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
• D. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

G3A07

3. At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

• A. At any point
• B. At the summer solstice
• C. Only at the minimum point
• D. Only at the maximum point

G7A11

4. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

• A. Symbol 2
• B. Symbol 11
• C. Symbol 1
• D. Symbol 7

G5B08

5. What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

• A. 169.7 volts
• B. 84.8 volts
• C. 339.4 volts
• D. 240.0 volts

G8C02

6. Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

• A. PSK31
• B. SSB-SC
• C. WSPR
• D. MFSK16

G1E04

7. Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

• A. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
• B. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
• C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
• D. All these choices are correct

G1C07

8. What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

• A. Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
• B. Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
• C. Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
• D. Type-certify equipment to FCC standards

G6B02

9. What is meant by the term MMIC?

• A. Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
• B. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
• C. Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
• D. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

G4C02

10. Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

• A. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
• B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
• C. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
• D. Arcing at a poor electrical connection

G4D07

11. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

• A. Approximately 2 times
• B. Approximately 4 times
• C. Approximately 8 times
• D. Approximately 1.5 times

G3B03

12. Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

• A. Just above the critical frequency
• B. Just below the critical frequency
• C. Just above the LUF
• D. Just below the MUF

G7B10

13. Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

• A. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
• B. A Class C high efficiency amplifier
• C. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
• D. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

G5C02

14. What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

• A. The input voltage is multiplied by 4
• B. The input voltage is divided by 4
• C. Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
• D. Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload

G2A01

15. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

• A. Suppressed sideband
• B. Upper sideband
• C. Double sideband
• D. Lower sideband

G9B05

16. How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

• A. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
• B. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
• C. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
• D. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern

G2D02

17. Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

• A. To provide emergency and public safety communications
• B. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
• C. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
• D. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

G7C07

18. What term specifies a filter's attenuation inside its passband?

• A. Ultimate rejection
• B. Insertion loss
• C. Return loss
• D. Q

G1D09

19. How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

• A. For as long as your current license is valid
• B. 30 days
• C. 180 days
• D. 365 days

G5A12

20. What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

• A. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
• B. Resistance is cancelled
• C. The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
• D. Current and voltage are equal

G1A09

21. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

• A. 24900 kHz
• B. 18155 kHz
• C. 14250 kHz
• D. 21300 kHz

G2E04

22. Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

• A. Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station's frequency
• B. Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
• C. Always call on the station's frequency
• D. Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station

G2B07

23. Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
• C. Follow the voluntary band plan
• D. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

G2C07

24. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

• A. 100 percent copy
• B. Key clicks
• C. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
• D. Chirpy or unstable signal

G4B01

25. What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

• A. An ohmmeter
• B. An oscilloscope
• C. A signal generator
• D. An ammeter

G0A03

26. How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

• A. By calculation based on computer modeling
• B. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65

G1B09

27. On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

• A. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
• B. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
• C. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
• D. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code

G8A02

28. What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

• A. Phase modulation
• B. Phase inversion
• C. Phase convolution
• D. Phase transformation

G9C07

29. What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

• A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
• B. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
• C. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
• D. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction

G6A07

30. What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

• A. Saturation and cutoff
• B. Peak and valley current points
• C. The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
• D. Enhancement and depletion modes

G4A06

31. What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

• A. Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
• B. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
• C. Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
• D. All these choices are correct

G4E07

32. Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

• A. The battery charging system
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The control computers
• D. The fuel delivery system

G0B06

33. Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

• A. Acceptable bandwidth limits
• B. RF exposure limits of the human body
• C. Electrical safety of the station
• D. Acceptable modulation limits

G3C02

34. What is meant by the term "critical frequency" at a given incidence angle?

• A. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
• B. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
• C. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
• D. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

G9D02

35. What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

• A. Approximately 300 ohms
• B. Very low
• C. Very high
• D. Approximately 50 ohms