Practice Exam

G6A07

1. What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

• A. Saturation and cutoff
• B. Peak and valley current points
• C. Enhancement and depletion modes
• D. The active region (between cutoff and saturation)

G1B11

2. Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice," as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

• A. The control operator
• B. The ITU
• C. The FCC
• D. The IEEE

G5C05

3. Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

• A. To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
• B. To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
• C. To accommodate the higher current of the primary
• D. To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary

G9C08

4. What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

• A. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
• B. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
• C. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
• D. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

G2A08

5. What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

• A. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station
• B. Say "QRZ" several times, followed by your call sign
• C. Say your call sign once
• D. Say "Breaker Breaker"

G6B05

6. What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

• A. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
• D. Large values of inductance may be obtained

G4B04

7. What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

• A. The transmitter balanced mixer output
• B. The local oscillator of the transmitter
• C. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
• D. An external RF oscillator

G9D06

8. Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

• A. Wide bandwidth
• B. Polarization diversity
• C. Harmonic suppression
• D. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna

G4A09

9. What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter's keying line to an external amplifier?

• A. To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
• B. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
• C. To prevent key clicks on CW
• D. To prevent transient overmodulation

G2B03

10. What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

• A. Decrease power and continue to transmit
• B. Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
• C. Switch to the opposite sideband
• D. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

G2C05

11. What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

• A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
• B. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
• C. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
• D. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

G8B08

12. Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

• A. To prevent overmodulation
• B. Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter's average power rating
• C. To aid in tuning your transmitter
• D. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission

G3C02

13. What is meant by the term "critical frequency" at a given incidence angle?

• A. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
• B. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
• C. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
• D. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

G5B03

14. How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

• A. 400 watts
• B. 0.5 watts
• C. 200 watts
• D. 3200 watts

G4C02

15. Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

• A. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
• B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
• C. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
• D. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

G3A09

16. How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

• A. Reduce long delayed echoes
• B. Improve HF long path propagation
• C. Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
• D. Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions

G8C12

17. Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

• A. Viterbi
• B. Varicode
• C. Volumetric
• D. Binary

G3B03

18. Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

• A. Just above the critical frequency
• B. Just below the critical frequency
• C. Just below the MUF
• D. Just above the LUF

G4E11

19. What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

• A. The solar panel must have a charge controller
• B. A series resistor must be in place
• C. Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
• D. Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up

G7A05

20. What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

• A. 180 degrees
• B. 270 degrees
• C. 90 degrees
• D. 360 degrees

G1C01

21. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 1500 watts PEP output
• B. 1000 watts PEP output
• C. 2000 watts PEP output
• D. 200 watts PEP output

G0B04

22. Where should the station's lightning protection ground system be located?

• A. As close to the station equipment as possible
• B. Next to the closest power pole
• C. Outside the building
• D. Parallel to the water supply line

G9A09

23. What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

• A. 1:2
• B. 2:1
• C. 1:4
• D. 4:1

G8A08

24. Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

• A. Frequency drift
• B. Insufficient bandwidth
• C. Excessive bandwidth
• D. Insufficient audio

G7B04

25. In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

• A. More than 50% but less than 100%
• B. 100%
• C. 50%
• D. Less than 50%

G5A01

26. What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

• A. Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
• B. Resonance causes impedance to be very high
• C. Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
• D. Resonance causes impedance to be very low

G4D05

27. How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

• A. It is 20 times more powerful
• B. It is 100 times more powerful
• C. It is 20 times less powerful
• D. It is 10 times less powerful

G7C09

28. What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

• A. 45 degrees
• B. Zero
• C. 180 degrees
• D. 90 degrees

G9B10

29. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

• A. 33 feet
• B. 24 feet
• C. 16 feet
• D. 8 feet

G1E11

30. On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

• A. Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
• B. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
• C. Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
• D. On any band segment where digital operation is permitted

G2D01

31. What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

• A. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
• B. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
• C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
• D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

G2E01

32. Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

• A. LSB
• B. CW
• C. USB
• D. DSB

G1D07

33. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
• B. The Universal Licensing System
• C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
• D. The Federal Communications Commission

G0A07

34. What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

• A. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
• B. A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
• C. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
• D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

G1A01

35. On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

• A. 80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
• B. 160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
• C. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
• D. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters