Practice Exam

G7C11

1. What is meant by the term "software-defined radio" (SDR)?

• A. A computer model that can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
• B. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
• C. A radio that uses crystal filters designed using software
• D. A radio that provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency

G9C11

2. Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

• A. An omnidirectional antenna
• B. A quarter-wave vertical antenna
• C. An isotropic antenna
• D. A directional antenna

G8B09

3. Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

• A. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
• B. It is required by FCC rules
• C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna
• D. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

G9A01

4. Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

• A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
• B. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
• C. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
• D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

G0B08

5. What should be done by any person preparing to climb a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

• A. Unground the base of the tower
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
• D. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower

G2D03

6. What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

• A. Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC rules
• B. Identification of out-of-band operation
• C. Identification of different call signs
• D. Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

G4C09

7. How can a ground loop be avoided?

• A. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
• B. Connect all ground conductors to a single point
• C. Connect all ground conductors in series
• D. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections

G7B02

8. Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

• A. Class AB
• B. Class B
• C. Class C
• D. Class A

G1E04

9. Which of the following conditions require a licensed Amateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

• A. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
• B. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
• C. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
• D. All these choices are correct

G3C05

10. Why is long-distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

• A. The E layer is unstable during daylight hours
• B. The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
• C. The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
• D. The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

G6B12

11. Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

• A. Type N
• B. BNC
• C. PL-259
• D. RCA Phono

G6A03

12. What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

• A. 0.1 volt
• B. 0.7 volts
• C. 1.0 volts
• D. 0.3 volts

G8C12

13. Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

• A. Volumetric
• B. Binary
• C. Viterbi
• D. Varicode

G4D03

14. Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Excessive background pickup
• C. Splatter
• D. Distorted speech

G9D05

15. What is an advantage of vertical stacking of horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

• A. It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
• B. It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
• C. It narrows the main lobe in elevation
• D. It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization

G5A07

16. What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive?

• A. The source can deliver maximum power to the load
• B. No current can flow through the circuit
• C. The source delivers minimum power to the load
• D. The electrical load is shorted

G2E07

17. What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

• A. 3700 - 3750 kHz
• B. 3570 - 3600 kHz
• C. 3775 - 3825 kHz
• D. 3500 - 3525 kHz

G4A06

18. What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

• A. Balanced modulator
• B. Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
• C. SWR bridge
• D. Q multiplier

G1A14

19. Which of the following may apply in areas under FCC jurisdiction outside of ITU Region 2?

• A. Station identification may have to be in a language other than English
• B. Digital transmission may not be permitted
• C. Frequency allocations may differ
• D. Morse code may not be permitted

G5C07

20. What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance?

• A. 24.4 to 1
• B. 150 to 1
• C. 12.2 to 1
• D. 300 to 1

G7A10

21. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

• A. Symbol 4
• B. Symbol 1
• C. Symbol 11
• D. Symbol 5

G2B09

22. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

• A. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
• B. Only a RACES net control operator
• C. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
• D. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

G3A03

23. Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 8 minutes
• B. 28 days
• C. 20 to 40 hours
• D. 1 to 2 hours

G1C04

24. Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band?

• A. Power must be limited to 200 watts when using data transmissions
• B. Effective radiated power cannot exceed 1500 watts
• C. Power should be limited as necessary to avoid interference to another radio service on the frequency
• D. Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used

G2C07

25. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

• A. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
• B. Chirpy or unstable signal
• C. 100 percent copy
• D. Key clicks

G2A11

26. Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states who calls "CQ DX"?

• A. Only stations in Germany
• B. Only contest stations
• C. Any caller is welcome to respond
• D. Any stations outside the lower 48 states

G1D10

27. What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

• A. 18 years
• B. There is no age limit
• C. 12 years
• D. 21 years

G9B10

28. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

• A. 33 feet
• B. 16 feet
• C. 24 feet
• D. 8 feet

G4E09

29. What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

• A. 0.02 VDC
• B. 0.2 VDC
• C. 1.38 VDC
• D. 0.5 VDC

G8A04

30. What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

• A. Multiplex modulation
• B. Amplitude modulation
• C. Phase modulation
• D. Pulse modulation

G4B03

31. Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

• A. An oscilloscope
• B. A field strength meter
• C. A wavemeter
• D. A sidetone monitor

G1B03

32. Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

• A. Observation of propagation and reception
• B. Automatic identification of repeaters
• C. Identifying net frequencies
• D. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to Amateur Radio licensees

G3B02

33. What factors affect the MUF?

• A. Path distance and location
• B. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
• C. Time of day and season
• D. All these choices are correct

G5B05

34. How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1250 ohm resistance?

• A. Approximately 61 watts
• B. Approximately 11 milliwatts
• C. Approximately 11 watts
• D. Approximately 61 milliwatts

G0A10

35. What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

• A. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction
• B. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
• C. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
• D. Post a warning sign that is clearly visible to the neighbor