Practice Exam

G6A13

1. Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors?

• A. Reverse voltages can destroy the dielectric layer of an electrolytic capacitor
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The capacitor could overheat and explode
• D. Incorrect polarity can cause the capacitor to short-circuit

G9B02

2. Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed-point impedance of a quarter wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

• A. Slope the radials upward
• B. Shorten the radials
• C. Lengthen the radials
• D. Slope the radials downward

G4E09

3. What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

• A. 0.5 VDC
• B. 0.2 VDC
• C. 0.02 VDC
• D. 1.38 VDC

G7C05

4. Which of the following is an advantage of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

• A. Relatively high-power output
• B. Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
• C. Relatively low power consumption
• D. Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

G3B05

5. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere?

• A. They pass through the ionosphere
• B. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
• C. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
• D. They are bent back to Earth

G1C01

6. What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 1000 watts PEP output
• B. 200 watts PEP output
• C. 2000 watts PEP output
• D. 1500 watts PEP output

G1D11

7. What is required to obtain a new General Class license after a previously-held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

• A. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
• B. The applicant must pass the current Element 2 exam
• C. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
• D. The applicant must be able to produce a copy of a page from a call book published in the U.S. showing his or her name and address

G7A13

8. Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

• A. Symbol 6
• B. Symbol 7
• C. Symbol 1
• D. Symbol 11

G2D10

9. What is QRP operation?

• A. Traffic relay procedure net operation
• B. Low-power transmit operation
• C. Remote piloted model control
• D. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

G3C02

10. Where on Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height?

• A. Where the sun has just set
• B. Where the sun is overhead
• C. Where the sun is rising
• D. Where the sun is on the opposite side of Earth

G9A04

11. What might cause reflected power at the point where a feed line connects to an antenna?

• A. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
• B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
• C. A difference between feed-line impedance and antenna feed-point impedance
• D. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

G7B03

12. Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

• A. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
• B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
• C. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
• D. Output is low only when both inputs are high

G2C05

13. What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

• A. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
• B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
• C. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
• D. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

G9D04

14. What is the primary purpose of antenna traps?

• A. To permit multiband operation
• B. To provide balanced feed-point impedance
• C. To notch spurious frequencies
• D. To prevent out-of-band operation

G8A09

15. What type of modulation is used by the FT8 digital mode?

• A. Direct sequence spread spectrum
• B. Amplitude compressed AM
• C. Vestigial sideband
• D. 8-tone frequency shift keying

G5A02

16. What is reactance?

• A. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
• B. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is de-energized
• C. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
• D. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits

G2A12

17. What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

• A. Attenuator level
• B. Transmit audio or microphone gain
• C. The RF clipping level
• D. Antenna inductance or capacitance

G0A05

18. What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

• A. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
• B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

G1E06

19. The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

• A. Region 3
• B. Region 4
• C. Region 1
• D. Region 2

G5C03

20. Which of the following components increases the total resistance of a resistor?

• A. A series capacitor
• B. A series resistor
• C. A parallel capacitor
• D. A parallel resistor

G2B07

21. Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

• A. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
• B. Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
• C. Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
• D. All these choices are correct

G8B01

22. Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

• A. Image frequency
• B. RF input
• C. Local oscillator
• D. Beat frequency oscillator

G1A06

23. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 75-meter phone band?

• A. 3900 kHz
• B. 3750 kHz
• C. 4005 kHz
• D. 1875 kHz

G4D07

24. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

• A. Approximately 1.5 times
• B. Approximately 8 times
• C. Approximately 4 times
• D. Approximately 2 times

G0B07

25. Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety belt or harness?

• A. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the belt D-ring
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Never lean back and rely on the belt alone to support your weight
• D. Confirm that the belt is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life

G9C07

26. What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

• A. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
• B. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
• C. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
• D. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

G4C01

27. Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

• A. Reverse-biased diode
• B. Forward-biased diode
• C. Bypass inductor
• D. Bypass capacitor

G3A11

28. How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 14 days
• B. 4 to 8 minutes
• C. 20 to 40 hours
• D. 28 days

G2E05

29. What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65, JT9, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

• A. SSB
• B. LSB
• C. DSB
• D. USB

G5B10

30. What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

• A. 10.9 percent
• B. 12.2 percent
• C. 25.9 percent
• D. 20.6 percent

G1B11

31. Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice," as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

• A. The ITU
• B. The FCC
• C. The IEEE
• D. The control operator

G4A01

32. What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers?

• A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
• B. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band
• C. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
• D. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

G8C03

33. What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

• A. Header
• B. Directory
• C. Footer
• D. Preamble

G6B01

34. What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

• A. The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
• B. Its thickness
• C. Its conductivity
• D. The composition, or "mix," of materials used

G4B11

35. Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

• A. Transmitter
• B. Receiver
• C. Antenna and feed line
• D. All these choices are correct