Practice Exam

G0B12

1. What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

• A. To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
• B. To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
• C. To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
• D. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened

G6A08

2. What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

• A. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
• D. Large values of inductance may be obtained

G4A05

3. What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

• A. To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
• B. To increase overall efficiency
• C. To reduce harmonic radiation
• D. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response

G2A10

4. Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

• A. It occupies less bandwidth
• B. The received signal is more natural sounding
• C. It allows "hands free" operation
• D. It provides more power output

G2E02

5. How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

• A. Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
• B. Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
• C. Send the message, "Is this frequency in use?"
• D. Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection

G4C07

6. Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

• A. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
• B. The resistance of solder is too high
• C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
• D. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection

G1E09

7. Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

• A. Under no circumstances
• B. When under automatic control
• C. When messages are encrypted
• D. When messages are not encrypted

G9A11

8. What standing wave ratio will result when connecting a 50 ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having 50 ohm impedance?

• A. 0:0
• B. 2:1
• C. 50:50
• D. 1:1

G6B08

9. How is an LED biased when emitting light?

• A. Reverse biased
• B. At the Zener voltage
• C. Forward biased
• D. Beyond cutoff

G1B02

10. With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

• A. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
• B. A beacon station may not use automatic control
• C. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
• D. There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location

G5A05

11. How does an inductor react to AC?

• A. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

G9C09

12. How does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

• A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher
• B. Approximately 6 dB higher
• C. Approximately 3 dB higher
• D. Approximately 9 dB higher

G8A05

13. What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

• A. Frequency modulation
• B. Frequency shift keying
• C. Phase modulation
• D. Amplitude modulation

G5B09

14. What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

• A. 12 volts
• B. 8.5 volts
• C. 34 volts
• D. 24 volts

G7C12

15. What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter's output power is less than half the input power?

• A. Rolloff frequency
• B. Notch frequency
• C. Neper frequency
• D. Cutoff frequency

G9B04

16. What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

• A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
• B. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
• C. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
• D. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)

G2C04

17. What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

• A. "Are you listening only for a specific station?"
• B. "Are you busy?" or "Is this frequency in use?"
• C. "Are you operating full break-in?" or "Can you operate full break-in?"
• D. "Will you keep the frequency clear?"

G1A08

18. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 80-meter band?

• A. 3650 kHz
• B. 1855 kHz
• C. 3560 kHz
• D. 2560 kHz

G4E11

19. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

• A. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
• B. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
• C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
• D. All these choices are correct

G1D08

20. Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-U.S. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

• A. None of these choices is correct; a non-U.S. citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
• B. The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
• C. The person must hold an FCC granted Amateur Radio license of General class or above
• D. The person must be a resident of the U.S. for a minimum of 5 years

G4B07

21. What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

• A. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
• B. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
• C. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
• D. Two swept frequency tones

G9D11

22. Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

• A. They must be fed with open wire line
• B. They have poor harmonic rejection
• C. They must be used with an antenna tuner
• D. They present low impedance on all design frequencies

G7B11

23. For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

• A. SSB
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. FM
• D. AM

G2B09

24. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

• A. Only a RACES net control operator
• B. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
• C. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
• D. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

G3C01

25. Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of Earth?

• A. The F2 layer
• B. The E layer
• C. The D layer
• D. The F1 layer

G5C11

26. What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor?

• A. 1000 millihenries
• B. 70 millihenries
• C. 14.3 millihenries
• D. 0.07 millihenries

G8B02

27. If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

• A. Image response
• B. Quadrature noise
• C. Mixer interference
• D. Intermediate interference

G8C03

28. What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

• A. Footer
• B. Header
• C. Preamble
• D. Directory

G0A09

29. What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

• A. A receiver with an S meter
• B. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
• C. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
• D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

G1C13

30. What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

• A. Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
• B. Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
• C. Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
• D. Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

G3A04

31. Which of the following are least reliable for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

• A. 30 meters and 20 meters
• B. 60 meters and 40 meters
• C. 80 meters and 160 meters
• D. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

G2D11

32. Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

• A. High levels of atmospheric noise or "static"
• B. World-wide propagation during the daylight hours
• C. Poor propagation at any time of day
• D. Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption

G7A05

33. What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

• A. 90 degrees
• B. 270 degrees
• C. 360 degrees
• D. 180 degrees

G4D05

34. How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

• A. It is 20 times less powerful
• B. It is 10 times less powerful
• C. It is 20 times more powerful
• D. It is 100 times more powerful

G3B06

35. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

• A. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere
• B. They pass through the ionosphere
• C. They are bent back to Earth
• D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth