Practice Exam

Element 3: General

G1A05

1. Which of the following frequencies is in the General Class portion of the 40 meter band?

G1B07

2. What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

G0B09

3. Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

G3B04

4. What is a reliable way to determine if the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

G1C05

5. Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band?

G2E02

6. How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

G6C05

7. What is meant when memory is characterized as "non-volatile"?

G3C09

8. What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation?

G4D09

9. What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

G2A02

10. Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands?

G9A11

11. What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 50-ohm impedance?

G2C03

12. What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

G6B03

13. What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

G4A08

14. What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

G1E04

15. Which of the following conditions require an Amateur Radio station licensee to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

G2D09

16. What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

G2B10

17. When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

G0A01

18. What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

G7A08

19. Which of the following is an advantage of a switch-mode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

G8A09

20. What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

G7B12

21. Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

G6A09

22. What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

G5B13

23. What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

G9B05

24. How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

G5C07

25. What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance?

G5A05

26. How does an inductor react to AC?

G4E08

27. What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

G7C08

28. What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio?

G8B01

29. What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

G9D01

30. What does the term "NVIS" mean as related to antennas?

G1D01

31. Which of the following is a proper way to identify when transmitting using phone on General Class frequencies if you have a CSCE for the required elements but your upgrade from Technician has not appeared in the FCC database?

G3A07

32. At what point in the solar cycle does the 20 meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

G4C12

33. Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver Digital Signal Processor IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

G9C08

34. What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

G4B13

35. What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?