Practice Exam

Element 3: General

G8B02

1. If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

G1C10

2. What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10 meter band?

G0A04

3. What does "time averaging" mean in reference to RF radiation exposure?

G3C11

4. Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

G4E03

5. Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

G7A01

6. What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide?

G2A05

7. Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the high frequency amateur bands?

G2B06

8. What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ on CW or phone?

G3A02

9. What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves?

G4B07

10. Which of the following might be a use for a field strength meter?

G6A13

11. What is an effect of inter-turn capacitance in an inductor?

G7C09

12. Which of the following is needed for a Digital Signal Processor IF filter?

G2E09

13. In what segment of the 20 meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

G9B10

14. What is the approximate length for a 1/2-wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

G5C07

15. What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having a 600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance?

G6C18

16. What is a type SMA connector?

G5A06

17. How does a capacitor react to AC?

G9A12

18. What would be the SWR if you feed a vertical antenna that has a 25-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable?

G6B12

19. What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

G8A09

20. What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

G1B06

21. When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

G1E01

22. Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station?

G7B10

23. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Class A amplifier?

G0B12

24. What is the purpose of a transmitter power supply interlock?

G9C13

25. Approximately how long is each side of a quad antenna driven element?

G5B13

26. What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts?

G4A11

27. Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

G1A15

28. What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30 or 60 meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact?

G1D05

29. Which of the following is sufficient for you to be an administering VE for a Technician Class operator license examination?

G2D05

30. When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

G4D02

31. Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

G9D10

32. Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

G2C02

33. What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

G3B04

34. What is a reliable way to determine if the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz?

G4C07

35. What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station?