Practice Exam

G4C05

1. What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

• A. The ground rod is resonant
• B. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
• C. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
• D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

G2C05

2. What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

• A. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
• B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
• C. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
• D. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

G4E01

3. What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

• A. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
• B. To lower the radiation angle
• C. To reduce radiation resistance
• D. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

G2E02

4. What is VARA?

• A. A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
• B. A digital protocol used with Winlink
• C. A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
• D. A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)

G8B11

5. What combination of a mixer's Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

• A. The average
• B. The sum and difference
• C. The arithmetic product
• D. The ratio

G0A08

6. Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

• A. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
• B. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station

G7B08

7. How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

• A. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
• B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
• C. Add the RF input power to the DC output power
• D. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power

G0B09

8. Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
• C. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
• D. The generator must be insulated from ground

G1E02

9. When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

• A. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
• B. Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
• C. Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
• D. Under no circumstances

G1C01

10. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 1000 watts PEP output
• B. 1500 watts PEP output
• C. 2000 watts PEP output
• D. 200 watts PEP output

G6B07

11. Which of the following describes a type N connector?

• A. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
• B. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
• C. A low noise figure VHF connector
• D. A nickel plated version of the PL-259

G5B12

12. What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

• A. 173 volts
• B. 346 volts
• C. 245 volts
• D. 692 volts

G1A04

13. Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

• A. 11 meters
• B. 30 meters
• C. 60 meters
• D. 12 meters

G3A01

14. How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

• A. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
• B. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
• C. A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
• D. A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band

G4D06

15. How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

• A. 6 dB
• B. 18 dB
• C. 15 dB
• D. 12 dB

G8C03

16. What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

• A. Preamble
• B. Header
• C. Directory
• D. Trailer

G4A11

17. Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

• A. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
• B. The ALC action distorts the signal
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode

G7C09

18. What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

• A. Zero
• B. 45 degrees
• C. 180 degrees
• D. 90 degrees

G7A13

19. Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

• A. Symbol 11
• B. Symbol 7
• C. Symbol 6
• D. Symbol 1

G9D07

20. Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

• A. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
• B. Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
• C. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
• D. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency

G5A12

21. What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

• A. The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
• B. Current and voltage are equal
• C. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
• D. Resistance is cancelled

G1B09

22. On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

• A. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
• B. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
• C. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
• D. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz

G9C08

23. What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

• A. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
• B. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
• C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
• D. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation

G9A01

24. Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

• A. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
• B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
• C. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
• D. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal

G1D01

25. Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

• A. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
• B. Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
• C. Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
• D. Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago

G8A04

26. What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

• A. Pulse modulation
• B. Multiplex modulation
• C. Amplitude modulation
• D. Phase modulation

G4B13

27. Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

• A. Impedance of coaxial cable
• B. Gain of a directional antenna
• C. Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
• D. Power output from a transmitter

G3B04

28. Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

• A. Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
• D. Check the A-index

G6A04

29. Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

• A. High capacitance for a given volume
• B. Inexpensive RF capacitor
• C. Tight tolerance
• D. Much less leakage than any other type

G9B06

30. Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

• A. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
• B. As high as possible above the ground
• C. Parallel to the antenna element
• D. At the center of the antenna

G2B04

31. When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 1 kHz to 3 kHz
• B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• C. 3 kHz to 6 kHz
• D. 5 Hz to 50 Hz

G2D10

32. What is QRP operation?

• A. Traffic relay procedure net operation
• B. Low-power transmit operation
• C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
• D. Remote piloted model control

G3C04

33. What does the term "critical angle" mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

• A. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
• B. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
• C. The short path azimuth of a distant station
• D. The long path azimuth of a distant station

G2A01

34. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

• A. Double sideband
• B. Upper sideband
• C. Lower sideband
• D. Suppressed sideband

G5C10

35. What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

• A. 3.3 millihenries
• B. 3.3 henries
• C. 0.30 henries
• D. 30 millihenries