Practice Exam

Element 3: General

G7C05

1. Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Figure

G7A10

2. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

G8A09

3. What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

G6B12

4. What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

G5B14

5. What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected to the transmitter output?

G5C14

6. Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

G2A03

7. Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

G1C02

8. What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12 meter band?

G6A01

9. Which of the following is an important characteristic for capacitors used to filter the DC output of a switching power supply?

G2B06

10. What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ on CW or phone?

G2C07

11. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

G7B07

12. What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators?

G5A04

13. Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

G0A08

14. Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations when transmitter power exceeds levels specified in part 97.13?

G4D08

15. What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

G0B14

16. Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

G1B11

17. How does the FCC require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules?

G8B11

18. How does forward error correction allow the receiver to correct errors in received data packets?

G1E10

19. What portion of the 10 meter band is available for repeater use?

G9C09

20. What is the approximate maximum theoretical forward gain of a three element, single-band Yagi antenna?

G4A07

21. What condition can lead to permanent damage when using a solid-state RF power amplifier?

G3B11

22. What happens to HF propagation when the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) exceeds the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?

G9A13

23. What would be the SWR if you feed an antenna that has a 300-ohm feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable?

G4E08

24. What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

G1D10

25. What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

G3C10

26. Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation?

G2E08

27. What segment of the 80 meter band is most commonly used for data transmissions?

G3A11

28. Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

G9B04

29. What is the low angle azimuthal radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole antenna installed 1/2 wavelength high and parallel to the Earth?

G4B16

30. What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

G9D09

31. Which of the following is an application for a Beverage antenna?

G1A11

32. Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General Class license?

G6C06

33. Which of the following describes an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

G2D08

34. Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the FCC doesn't require it?

G4C11

35. Which of the following is one use for a Digital Signal Processor in an amateur station?