Practice Exam

Element 4: Extra

E8D15

1. Which of the following is a typical value for the RMS voltage at a standard U.S. household electrical power outlet?

E2B09

2. What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

E2D11

3. Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

E1B11

4. What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

E5D13

5. How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

E7E05

6. What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

E9B05

7. What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

E7C04

8. How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

E7F11

9. What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a direct-count type?

E2A13

10. What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

E9F02

11. Which of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?

E5B08

12. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

E8A10

13. Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?

E6F09

14. What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

E8C07

15. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

E6D12

16. How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?

E4C02

17. Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

E9A11

18. Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

E1D07

19. Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?

E6B07

20. What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

E6E06

21. What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

E8B01

22. What is the term for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?

E2E01

23. Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

E6C13

24. Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

E5A17

25. What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?

E3B09

26. At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?

E4E13

27. What might be the cause of a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at intervals?

E4A09

28. Which of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation distortion of your own PSK signal?

E3C07

29. How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam antenna vary with its height above ground?

E5C04

30. In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?

Figure

E7D10

31. What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

E7B04

32. Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

E4D03

33. How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

E2C10

34. Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

E9C02

35. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

E7A14

36. What is a JK flip-flop?

E1F06

37. What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

E9D09

38. What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

E4B06

39. How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

E7H01

40. What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

E0A10

41. What material found in some electronic components such as high-voltage capacitors and transformers is considered toxic?

E3A10

42. Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter contacts?

E1E04

43. Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

E9H04

44. What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?

E1A01

45. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

E7G04

46. Which of the following is a type of capacitor best suited for use in high-stability op-amp RC active filter circuits?

E1C04

47. When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?

Figure

E9G05

48. What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

E9E10

49. Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

E6A02

50. Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?