Practice Exam

E3B03

1. What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

• A. Late at night
• B. Morning
• C. Noon
• D. Afternoon or early evening

E9B06

2. What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 7.5 degrees
• B. 25 degrees
• C. 75 degrees
• D. 45 degrees

E7A01

3. Which circuit is bistable?

• A. An OR gate
• B. A bipolar amplifier
• C. An AND gate
• D. A flip-flop

E7B02

4. What is a Class D amplifier?

• A. An amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
• B. A frequency doubling amplifier
• C. A type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
• D. A low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity

E4D07

5. Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

• A. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
• B. Raise the receiver IF frequency
• C. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
• D. Increase the receiver front end gain

E4C05

6. What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

• A. The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
• B. The theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
• C. The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
• D. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver

E5A04

7. What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

• A. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
• B. Low compared to the circuit resistance
• C. High compared to the circuit resistance
• D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance

E4E09

8. What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF noise blanker?

• A. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
• B. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
• C. Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards
• D. FM signals can no longer be demodulated

E2C05

9. What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

• A. To relay calls to and from a DX station
• B. To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
• C. To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
• D. To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions

E6B08

10. Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?

• A. Thermionic emission diode
• B. Electrolytic rectifier
• C. PIN junction
• D. Metal-semiconductor junction

E8A05

11. What of the following instruments would be the most accurate for measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

• A. An absorption wave meter
• B. A D'Arsonval meter
• C. A grid dip meter
• D. A true-RMS calculating meter

E9G07

12. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

• A. The current axis
• B. The voltage axis
• C. The resistance axis
• D. The reactance axis

E1C04

13. What is meant by IARP?

• A. An international amateur radio permit that allows U.S. amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
• B. A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
• C. An indication of increased antenna reflected power
• D. The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC

E2B09

14. What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

• A. A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
• B. No other hardware is needed
• C. A special IF converter
• D. A special front end limiter

E1A01

15. Which of the following carrier frequencies is illegal for LSB AFSK emissions on the 17 meter band RTTY and data segment of 18.068 to 18.110 MHz?

• A. 18.100 MHz
• B. 18.068 MHz
• C. 18.110 MHz
• D. 18.107 MHz

E8C08

16. How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

• A. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
• B. Special binary codes provide automatic correction
• C. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
• D. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested

E1E01

17. For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

• A. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
• B. Preparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license
• C. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
• D. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement

E8B04

18. What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?

• A. 1/3
• B. 6000
• C. 3
• D. 2000

E5D09

19. What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?

• A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
• B. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit
• C. It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated
• D. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields

E2E02

20. What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

• A. Forward Error Correction
• B. First Error Correction
• C. Final Error Correction
• D. Fatal Error Correction

E9F09

21. What is the approximate physical length of a foam polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically 1/4 wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

• A. 10.4 meters
• B. 6.9 meters
• C. 8.3 meters
• D. 5.2 meters

E2A11

22. What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

• A. An isotropic antenna
• B. A log-periodic dipole array
• C. A circularly polarized antenna
• D. A linearly polarized antenna

E4A03

23. Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products generated by an SSB transmitter?

• A. A spectrum analyzer
• B. A logic analyzer
• C. A wattmeter
• D. A time-domain reflectometer

E7F03

24. What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?

• A. A Hilbert-transform filter
• B. An adaptive filter
• C. An elliptical filter
• D. A notch filter

E9C09

25. Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

• A. A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun
• B. A multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
• C. A multi-band trap antenna
• D. A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops

E7E05

26. What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

• A. A de-emphasis network
• B. A heterodyne suppressor
• C. A pre-emphasis network
• D. A heterodyne enhancer

E3C10

27. What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

• A. The solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity
• B. The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to x-ray flare levels
• C. The ratio of x-ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
• D. UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to the solar flux index

E1B12

28. What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70 cm band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?

• A. Cease operation or make changes to the repeater to mitigate the interference
• B. Reduce the repeater antenna HAAT (Height Above Average Terrain)
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. File an FAA NOTAM (Notice to Airmen) with the repeater system's ERP, call sign, and six-character grid locator

E8D11

29. What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?

• A. It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters
• B. It includes built-in error correction features
• C. It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
• D. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower case text

E9E05

30. How must an antenna's driven element be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

• A. The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
• B. The driven element reactance must be inductive
• C. The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency
• D. The driven element reactance must be capacitive

E6A12

31. Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

• A. To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
• B. To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
• C. To reduce the chance of static damage to the gate
• D. To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage

E6E07

32. What type of transmission line is used for connections to MMICs?

• A. Miniature coax
• B. Microstrip
• C. Circular waveguide
• D. Parallel wire

E5C08

33. What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

• A. Maidenhead grid
• B. Elliptical coordinates
• C. Polar coordinates
• D. Faraday grid

E3A09

34. Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

• A. 1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
• B. 220 MHz - 450 MHz
• C. 10 MHz - 14 MHz
• D. 28 MHz - 148 MHz

E7G12

35. What is an operational amplifier?

• A. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance
• B. A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
• C. An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
• D. A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions

E0A05

36. What is one of the potential hazards of operating in the amateur radio microwave bands?

• A. The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
• B. Microwaves are ionizing radiation
• C. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
• D. Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection

E6C07

37. What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

• A. A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
• B. A resistor connected to an op-amp output that prevents signals from exceeding the power supply voltage
• C. A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
• D. A resistor that ensures that an oscillator frequency does not drift

E7D08

38. What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?

• A. Switching voltage regulator
• B. Grounded emitter amplifier
• C. Monostable multivibrator
• D. Linear voltage regulator

E1F01

39. On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

• A. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
• B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
• C. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
• D. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz

E6F02

40. What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

• A. It increases
• B. It becomes unstable
• C. It stays the same
• D. It decreases

E7H03

41. How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

• A. Through a capacitive divider
• B. Through a tapped coil
• C. Through a neutralizing capacitor
• D. Through link coupling

E4B11

42. Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?

• A. Output impedance
• B. Input impedance
• C. Reflection coefficient
• D. All these choices are correct

E6D07

43. What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

• A. Direct current
• B. Magnetizing current
• C. Stabilizing current
• D. Excitation current

E2D09

44. What type of modulation is used for JT65 contacts?

• A. PSK
• B. IEEE 802.11
• C. RTTY
• D. Multi-tone AFSK

E7C11

45. Which of the following describes a receiving filter's ability to reject signals occupying an adjacent channel?

• A. Shape factor
• B. Passband ripple
• C. Noise factor
• D. Phase response

E5B11

46. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

• A. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• B. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E9H11

47. What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction finding?

• A. A very sharp single null
• B. A very sharp peak
• C. Broadband response
• D. High radiation angle

E9D01

48. How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

• A. 3 dB
• B. 2 dB
• C. 4 dB
• D. 6 dB

E9A13

49. What term describes station output, taking into account all gains and losses?

• A. Apparent power
• B. Effective radiated power
• C. Half-power bandwidth
• D. Power factor

E1D04

50. Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

• A. Call sign
• B. The station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. The output power of the balloon transmitter