Practice Exam

E9C09

1. Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

• A. A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun
• B. A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
• C. A wire antenna center-fed through a specific length of open-wire line connected to a balun and coaxial feed line
• D. A multi-band trap antenna

E9B07

2. What is the difference in radiated power between a lossless antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the same power?

• A. They are the same
• B. The power radiated from the directional antenna is stronger by its front-to-back ratio
• C. The power radiated from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna
• D. The power radiated from the isotropic radiator is 2.15 dB greater than that from the directional antenna

E1E10

3. What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

• A. They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
• B. They must return the documents to the applicant for submission to the FCC according to the FCC instructions
• C. They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
• D. They must collect and send the documents directly to the FCC

E1D05

4. What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the Earth's surface?

• A. A photocopy of the station license
• B. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
• C. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
• D. All these choices are correct

E8B07

5. Orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication?

• A. Digital modes
• B. Extremely low-power contacts
• C. EME
• D. OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands

E2C07

6. What is the Cabrillo format?

• A. A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
• B. The most common set of contest rules
• C. A digital protocol specifically designed for rapid contest exchanges
• D. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO

E1C02

7. Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

• A. Third party traffic must be limited to that intended for the exclusive use of government and non-Government Organization (NGOs) involved in emergency relief activities
• B. Communications must be limited to those incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
• C. All transmissions must be in English
• D. All these choices are correct

E4C07

8. What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

• A. The maximum detectable spectrum
• B. The meter display sensitivity
• C. The modulation distortion specification
• D. The minimum discernible signal

E6D07

9. What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer when there is no load on the secondary winding?

• A. Magnetizing current
• B. Stabilizing current
• C. Direct current
• D. Excitation current

E7G07

10. What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

• A. 24
• B. 47
• C. 0.21
• D. 4700

E3C04

11. What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent?

• A. Duration of long-delayed echoes
• B. North-south strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
• C. Critical frequency for vertical transmissions
• D. Geomagnetic field stability

E2D06

12. Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts?

• A. Time-synchronous transmissions alternating between stations
• B. Storing and forwarding digital messages
• C. High-speed CW identification to avoid fading
• D. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon

E1B02

13. Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow-scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

• A. 3 kHz
• B. 20 kHz
• C. 10 kHz
• D. 15 kHz

E7B09

14. What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier?

• A. Input and output signals in-phase
• B. Acts as an OR circuit if one input is grounded
• C. Low input impedance and phase inversion from input to output
• D. Differential inputs and single output

E7C10

15. Which of the following filters is used in a 2-meter band repeater duplexer?

• A. An L-C filter
• B. A cavity filter
• C. A crystal filter
• D. A DSP filter

E5C05

16. What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

• A. Phasor diagram
• B. Venn diagram
• C. Near field diagram
• D. Far field diagram

E4A05

17. What is the purpose of using a prescaler with a frequency counter?

• A. Amplify low-level signals for more accurate counting
• B. Prevent oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
• C. Reduce the signal frequency to within the counter's operating range
• D. Multiply a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency

E6E09

18. Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range?

• A. Axial lead
• B. Surface mount
• C. TO-220
• D. Radial lead

E8C03

19. Why should the phase of a PSK signal be changed at the zero crossing of the RF signal?

• A. To simplify modulation
• B. To minimize bandwidth
• C. To improve carrier suppression
• D. All these choices are correct

E9H05

20. What challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

• A. It has a bidirectional null pattern
• B. It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
• C. It does not have a clearly defined null
• D. All these choices are correct

E9F09

21. What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
• B. The same as the generator output impedance
• C. Very low impedance
• D. Very high impedance

E4D13

22. What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive antenna gain of 3 dBi, and a path loss of 100 dB?

• A. -60 dBm
• B. -54 dBm
• C. -57 dBm
• D. -51 dBm

E4E04

23. How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed?

• A. By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor at the battery
• B. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the antenna feed line
• C. By installing filter capacitors in series with the alternator leads
• D. By installing ferrite chokes on the charging system leads

E7A10

24. What is a truth table?

• A. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for an op-amp
• B. A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp
• C. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
• D. A diagram showing logic states when the digital gate output is true

E2A09

25. What do the terms "L band" and "S band" specify?

• A. Which sideband to use
• B. The 2-meter and 70-centimeter bands
• C. The 23- and 13-centimeter bands
• D. FM and digital store-and-forward systems

E5D05

26. What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF?

• A. Skin effect
• B. Dielectric leakage
• C. Shunt capacitance
• D. Inductance

E6F05

27. Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

• A. A device that detects rotation by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
• B. A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
• C. An optical computing device in which light is coupled between devices by fiber optics
• D. A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog-to-digital conversion

E1F02

28. What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?

• A. Full privileges of the General class license on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands
• B. Full privileges, up to and including those of the Amateur Extra class license, on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands
• C. None, they must obtain a US license
• D. The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed US Amateur Extra class license privileges

E6B03

29. What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop?

• A. Band gap
• B. Junction depth
• C. Intrinsic resistance
• D. Junction capacitance

E7D11

30. What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output?

• A. Convert the panel's output from DC to AC
• B. Prevent discharge when panel is not illuminated
• C. Maintain voltage with varying illumination levels
• D. Reduce AC ripple on the output

E2B08

31. What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70- centimeter band?

• A. Transmitting on the abandoned TV channel 2
• B. Transmitting on channels shared with cable TV
• C. Using USB and demodulating the signal with a computer sound card
• D. Using converted satellite TV dishes

E0A04

32. When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

• A. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
• B. Each transmitter that produces 20 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
• C. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
• D. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 25 percent

E4B11

33. Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?

• A. Output impedance
• B. Input impedance
• C. Reflection coefficient
• D. All these choices are correct

E1A02

34. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

• A. The exact lower band edge
• B. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
• C. 300 Hz above the lower band edge
• D. 1 kHz above the lower band edge

E2E09

35. Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length character coding?

• A. RTTY
• B. MT63
• C. PSK31
• D. PACTOR

E5A13

36. What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

• A. Internal voltages increase
• B. Parasitic effects are minimized
• C. Fewer components are needed for the same performance
• D. Phase shift can become uncontrolled

E7F02

37. What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

• A. An adaptive filter
• B. A Hilbert-transform filter
• C. A crystal-lattice filter
• D. A phase-inverting filter

E8A07

38. What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

• A. Amplifier gain
• B. The frequency of the modulating signal
• C. Speech characteristics
• D. The degree of carrier suppression

E7E09

39. What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high?

• A. Automatic limiting occurs
• B. Mixer blanking occurs
• C. Spurious mixer products are generated
• D. Excessive AGC voltage levels are generated

E3B08

40. How does the maximum range of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

• A. It stays the same
• B. It increases
• C. It decreases
• D. It peaks at roughly 8 MHz

E3A11

41. What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals?

• A. 2,500 miles
• B. 100 miles to 300 miles
• C. 10 miles to 50 miles
• D. 1,200 miles

E9D08

42. What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

• A. SWR bandwidth decreases
• B. SWR bandwidth increases
• C. Gain is reduced
• D. More common-mode current is present on the feed line

E7H10

43. What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

• A. Frequently used receiver and transmitter frequencies
• B. Amplitude values that represent the desired waveform
• C. The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
• D. The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform

E6C04

44. Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

• A. It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
• B. Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. It is immune to electrostatic damage

E6A10

45. In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

• A. 2
• B. 6
• C. 5
• D. 4

E9E07

46. What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line?

• A. Reflection coefficient
• B. Characteristic impedance
• C. Dielectric constant
• D. Velocity factor

E9G06

47. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

• A. Impedance axis
• B. Reactance axis
• C. Prime axis
• D. Polar axis

E5B10

48. What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

• A. Voltage and current are in phase
• B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
• C. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
• D. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees

E9A03

49. What term describing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses?

• A. Half-power bandwidth
• B. Apparent power
• C. Power factor
• D. Effective radiated power

E8D10

50. What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

• A. Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
• B. Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
• C. Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
• D. Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code