Practice Exam

Element 4: Extra

E1D01

1. What is the definition of the term telemetry?

E4B07

2. Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

E2C01

3. Which of the following is true about contest operating?

E6B07

4. What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

E1B01

5. Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

E9D13

6. What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

E7A02

7. How many output level changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop circuit?

E1E07

8. What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

E9B13

9. What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling programs?

E7C11

10. Which of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the capacitors in shunt at the input and output?

E2B02

11. How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

E9H06

12. What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

E1C01

13. What is a remotely controlled station?

E6C04

14. Which of the following is the primary advantage of tri-state logic?

E5C01

15. In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?

E1F07

16. When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

E6E07

17. Which of the following techniques is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

E8D09

18. What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

E2D11

19. Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

E4A04

20. Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?

E2E08

21. Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

E0A11

22. Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

E5B04

23. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

E5D06

24. In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow?

E6D08

25. What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite toroids in an inductor?

E5A15

26. What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?

E9C13

27. What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?

E7H02

28. What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?

E9E06

29. What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matching system on a 3-element Yagi?

E3C08

30. What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region?

E7D17

31. What is the primary reason that a high-frequency inverter type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?

E8B03

32. What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

E2A07

33. Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

E8C05

34. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?

E7B02

35. What is a Class D amplifier?

E6A08

36. What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

E4D03

37. How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

E6F03

38. What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

E7F09

39. What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

Figure

E9G05

40. What type of chart is shown in Figure E9-3?

E4E02

41. Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?

E7E14

42. What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined receiver?

E3A02

43. What characterizes libration fading of an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?

E7G03

44. Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?

E4C06

45. A CW receiver with the AGC off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?

E3B05

46. Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation?

E9A09

47. What is meant by antenna bandwidth?

E8A12

48. What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

E1A09

49. What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?

E9F12

50. What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?