Practice Exam

G8B03

1. What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

• A. Synthesizing
• B. Phase inverting
• C. Cancellation
• D. Heterodyning

G1E03

2. In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an FCC-issued General Class license?

• A. All three regions
• B. Region 2
• C. Region 3
• D. Region 1

G2C02

3. What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

• A. Increase your power
• B. Change frequency
• C. Send slower
• D. Repeat everything twice

G0B16

4. When might a lead acid storage battery give off explosive hydrogen gas?

• A. When stored for long periods of time
• B. When being discharged
• C. When not placed on a level surface
• D. When being charged

G9C01

5. Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

• A. Loading coils in series with the element
• B. Tapered-diameter elements
• C. Closer element spacing
• D. Larger diameter elements

G4C03

6. What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single-sideband phone transmitter?

• A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
• B. Distorted speech
• C. Clearly audible speech
• D. On-and-off humming or clicking

G9D07

7. Which of the following describes a log periodic antenna?

• A. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
• B. Length and spacing of the elements increases logarithmically from one end of the boom to the other
• C. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
• D. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency

G1A04

8. Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

• A. 30 meters
• B. 12 meters
• C. 11 meters
• D. 60 meters

G4E07

9. Which of the following is the most likely to cause interfering signals to be heard in the receiver of an HF mobile installation in a recent model vehicle?

• A. The anti-theft circuitry
• B. The anti-lock braking system
• C. The battery charging system
• D. The vehicle control computer

G7A04

10. What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply?

• A. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply
• B. One-half the normal output voltage of the power supply
• C. Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
• D. One-half the normal peak output voltage of the power supply

G2D05

11. When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

• A. Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
• B. Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
• C. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
• D. When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English

G2E02

12. How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

• A. 7
• B. The number varies
• C. 8
• D. 5

G1B04

13. Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public?

• A. The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event
• B. All of these choices are correct
• C. The FCC must have declared a state of emergency
• D. The communications must be approved by a local emergency preparedness official and conducted on officially designated frequencies

G1D07

14. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. The Federal Communications Commission
• B. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
• C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
• D. The Universal Licensing System

G3A11

15. Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

• A. 11 years
• B. 28 days
• C. 8 minutes
• D. 40 hours

G9A10

16. What standing wave ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line to a non-reactive load having a 10-ohm impedance?

• A. 50:1
• B. 2:1
• C. 1:5
• D. 5:1

G6A03

17. Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors?

• A. High capacitance for given volume
• B. High stability
• C. Tight tolerance
• D. Comparatively low cost

G7B03

18. Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

• A. Output is high only when both inputs are high
• B. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
• C. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
• D. Output is low only when both inputs are high

G8A03

19. What is the name of the process which changes the frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

• A. Frequency conversion
• B. Frequency convolution
• C. Frequency modulation
• D. Frequency transformation

G2B05

20. What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

• A. Approximately 3 kHz
• B. Approximately 6 kHz
• C. Between 150 and 500 Hz
• D. Approximately 10 kHz

G3B05

21. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) and above the Lowest Usable Frequency (LUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere?

• A. They pass through the ionosphere
• B. They are bent back to the Earth
• C. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
• D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth

G0A07

22. What effect does transmitter duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure?

• A. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
• B. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
• C. A lower transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels
• D. A higher transmitter duty cycle permits greater short-term exposure levels

G1C01

23. What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 2000 watts PEP output
• B. 200 watts PEP output
• C. 1000 watts PEP output
• D. 1500 watts PEP output

G5B11

24. What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

• A. .707
• B. 2.00
• C. 1.414
• D. 1.00

G4A07

25. What condition can lead to permanent damage when using a solid-state RF power amplifier?

• A. Shorting the input signal to ground
• B. Low input SWR
• C. Exceeding the Maximum Usable Frequency
• D. Excessive drive power

G9B12

26. What is the approximate length for a 1/4-wave vertical antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

• A. 16 feet
• B. 21 feet
• C. 8 feet
• D. 11 feet

G2A07

27. Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband (SSB) voice mode?

• A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
• B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
• C. SSB voice transmissions have higher average power than any other mode
• D. SSB is the only mode that is authorized on the 160, 75 and 40 meter amateur bands

G6B09

28. Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET?

• A. The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer
• B. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
• C. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
• D. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction

G6C08

29. How is an LED biased when emitting light?

• A. At the Zener voltage
• B. Beyond cutoff
• C. Reverse Biased
• D. Forward Biased

G4B15

30. What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

• A. Percentage of carrier phase shift
• B. Linearity
• C. Carrier and undesired sideband suppression
• D. Percentage of frequency modulation

G5A12

31. What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

• A. To minimize transmitter power output
• B. To reduce power supply ripple
• C. To minimize radiation resistance
• D. To maximize the transfer of power

G5C12

32. What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor?

• A. 14.3 microfarads
• B. 1000 microfarads
• C. .07 microfarads
• D. 70 microfarads

G3C03

33. Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation?

• A. Because it is the highest ionospheric region
• B. Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions
• C. Because it is the densest ionospheric layer
• D. All of these choices are correct

G7C05

34. Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

• A. Relatively high power output
• B. Wide tuning range and no need for band switching
• C. Relatively low power consumption
• D. Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

G4D10

35. How close to the lower edge of the 40 meter General Class phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

• A. 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
• B. Your displayed carrier frequency may be set at the edge of the segment
• C. 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
• D. Center your signal on the edge of the segment