Practice Exam

G7C02

1. What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

• A. Frequency modulated RF
• B. Double-sideband modulated RF
• C. Audio with equalized frequency response
• D. Audio extracted from the modulation signal

G9D04

2. What is the primary function of antenna traps?

• A. To provide balanced feed point impedance
• B. To prevent out-of-band operation
• C. To notch spurious frequencies
• D. To enable multiband operation

G3B06

3. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

• A. They are refracted back to Earth
• B. They are attenuated before reaching the destination
• C. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
• D. They pass through the ionosphere

G1B11

4. Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice," as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

• A. The control operator
• B. The IEEE
• C. The FCC
• D. The ITU

G5A11

5. What letter is used to represent reactance?

• A. B
• B. X
• C. Z
• D. Y

G7B01

6. What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

• A. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
• B. To keep the carrier on frequency
• C. To eliminate self-oscillations
• D. To limit the modulation index

G5C13

7. Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

• A. A capacitor in parallel
• B. A capacitor in series
• C. An inductor in series
• D. An inductor in parallel

G4E07

8. Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

• A. The fuel delivery system
• B. The control computers
• C. The battery charging system
• D. All these choices are correct

G2B05

9. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 2 kHz to 3 kHz
• B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• C. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• D. Approximately 6 kHz

G4C03

10. What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

• A. Clearly audible speech
• B. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
• C. Distorted speech
• D. On-and-off humming or clicking

G3A05

11. What is the solar flux index?

• A. A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
• B. A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
• C. A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
• D. Another name for the American sunspot number

G8B02

12. What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

• A. Mixer interference
• B. Quadrature response
• C. Intermediate interference
• D. Image response

G5B10

13. What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

• A. 12.2 percent
• B. 20.6 percent
• C. 25.9 percent
• D. 10.9 percent

G2A06

14. Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

• A. Very high-fidelity voice modulation
• B. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
• C. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
• D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

G4B04

15. What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

• A. The local oscillator of the transmitter
• B. The transmitter balanced mixer output
• C. An external RF oscillator
• D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

G0A05

16. What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

• A. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
• D. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

G8C16

17. Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

• A. Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
• B. DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
• C. FT8, FT4, and FST4
• D. WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL

G4D11

18. How close to the upper edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

• A. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
• B. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
• C. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
• D. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

G0B05

19. Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

• A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
• B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
• C. Overvoltage on the hot wires
• D. All these choices are correct

G9C01

20. Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

• A. Loading coils in series with the element
• B. Larger-diameter elements
• C. Closer element spacing
• D. Tapered-diameter elements

G1C01

21. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 1500 watts PEP output
• B. 2000 watts PEP output
• C. 200 watts PEP output
• D. 1000 watts PEP output

G3C04

22. What does the term "critical angle" mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

• A. The long path azimuth of a distant station
• B. The short path azimuth of a distant station
• C. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
• D. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

G9A10

23. What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

• A. 1:5
• B. 1:2
• C. 5:1
• D. 2:1

G2D03

24. What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

• A. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
• D. Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

G2C06

25. What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

• A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
• B. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
• C. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
• D. Sending without error

G4A01

26. What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

• A. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
• B. To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
• C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
• D. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth

G1D05

27. When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

• A. A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
• B. Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
• C. A US operator/primary station license
• D. Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC

G1A09

28. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

• A. 14250 kHz
• B. 21300 kHz
• C. 18155 kHz
• D. 24900 kHz

G1E06

29. The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

• A. Region 4
• B. Region 3
• C. Region 2
• D. Region 1

G6B07

30. Which of the following describes a type N connector?

• A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
• B. A nickel plated version of the PL-259
• C. A low noise figure VHF connector
• D. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits

G2E03

31. What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Frequent retries or timeouts
• C. Failure to establish a connection between stations
• D. Long pauses in message transmission

G8A07

32. Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

• A. Phase modulation
• B. Single sideband
• C. Frequency modulation
• D. Vestigial sideband

G6A10

33. Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

• A. Suppressor grid
• B. Trigger electrode
• C. Control grid
• D. Screen grid

G7A07

34. What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

• A. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
• B. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
• C. A steady DC voltage
• D. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input

G9B06

35. Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

• A. As high as possible above the ground
• B. At the center of the antenna
• C. Parallel to the antenna element
• D. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground