Practice Exam

G1D12

1. When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

• A. Only those of the remote station's country
• B. Those of both the remote station's country and the FCC
• C. Only those of the FCC
• D. Those of the remote station's country and the FCC's third-party regulations

G1A09

2. Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

• A. 18155 kHz
• B. 21300 kHz
• C. 14250 kHz
• D. 24900 kHz

G9A04

3. What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

• A. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
• B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
• C. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
• D. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

G0A08

4. Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

• A. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
• B. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas

G6B02

5. What is meant by the term MMIC?

• A. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
• B. Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
• C. Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
• D. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

G9B01

6. What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

• A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength
• B. It produces only vertically polarized radiation
• C. Station equipment may carry significant RF current
• D. It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands

G3C08

7. Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

• A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
• B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
• C. Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
• D. Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy

G7A12

8. Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

• A. Symbol 4
• B. Symbol 7
• C. Symbol 1
• D. Symbol 6

G2D07

9. Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

• A. Adam, Boy, Charles, David
• B. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
• C. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
• D. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog

G8B02

10. What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

• A. Quadrature response
• B. Image response
• C. Mixer interference
• D. Intermediate interference

G0B03

11. Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

• A. 15 amperes
• B. 30 amperes
• C. 25 amperes
• D. 20 amperes

G3B05

12. How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

• A. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
• B. They pass through the ionosphere
• C. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
• D. They are refracted back to Earth

G3A04

13. Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

• A. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
• B. 60 meters and 40 meters
• C. 30 meters and 20 meters
• D. 80 meters and 160 meters

G7C09

14. What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

• A. 45 degrees
• B. Zero
• C. 90 degrees
• D. 180 degrees

G1B06

15. Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

• A. At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
• B. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
• C. Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
• D. Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure

G1E06

16. The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

• A. Region 4
• B. Region 2
• C. Region 1
• D. Region 3

G4D08

17. What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

• A. 7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
• B. 7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
• C. 7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
• D. 7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz

G8C11

18. How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

• A. High and low
• B. On and off
• C. Dot and dash
• D. Mark and space

G4B03

19. Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

• A. A sidetone monitor
• B. A field strength meter
• C. An oscilloscope
• D. A wavemeter

G6A02

20. What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

• A. High discharge current
• B. Long life
• C. Rapid recharge
• D. High voltage

G5C09

21. What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

• A. 0.33 microfarads
• B. 300 microfarads
• C. 33.3 microfarads
• D. 3.0 microfarads

G1C01

22. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 1000 watts PEP output
• B. 200 watts PEP output
• C. 1500 watts PEP output
• D. 2000 watts PEP output

G8A04

23. What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

• A. Amplitude modulation
• B. Multiplex modulation
• C. Pulse modulation
• D. Phase modulation

G2E15

24. Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

• A. Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
• B. Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
• C. Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
• D. Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

G2A02

25. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

• A. Suppressed sideband
• B. Upper sideband
• C. Double sideband
• D. Lower sideband

G9D04

26. What is the primary function of antenna traps?

• A. To notch spurious frequencies
• B. To prevent out-of-band operation
• C. To enable multiband operation
• D. To provide balanced feed point impedance

G4C03

27. What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

• A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
• B. Clearly audible speech
• C. Distorted speech
• D. On-and-off humming or clicking

G2C10

28. What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

• A. Send more slowly
• B. I am troubled by static
• C. Stop sending
• D. Zero beat my signal

G5A05

29. How does an inductor react to AC?

• A. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G4A09

30. What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter's keying line to an external amplifier?

• A. To prevent key clicks on CW
• B. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
• C. To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
• D. To prevent transient overmodulation

G2B09

31. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

• A. Only a RACES net control operator
• B. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
• C. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
• D. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

G7B04

32. In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

• A. 50%
• B. Less than 50%
• C. More than 50% but less than 100%
• D. 100%

G9C02

33. What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

• A. 3/4 wavelength
• B. 1 wavelength
• C. 1/2 wavelength
• D. 1/4 wavelength

G4E09

34. What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

• A. 0.2 VDC
• B. 1.38 VDC
• C. 0.5 VDC
• D. 0.02 VDC

G5B04

35. How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

• A. 60 watts
• B. 24 watts
• C. 6 watts
• D. 2.4 watts