Practice Exam

G9D10

1. In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

• A. Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
• B. Broadside and in the plane of the loop
• C. In the plane of the loop
• D. Broadside to the loop

G4A08

2. What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

• A. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
• B. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
• C. Minimum SWR on the antenna
• D. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current

G7C11

3. Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

• A. Filtering
• B. Detection
• C. Modulation
• D. All these choices are correct

G2A07

4. Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

• A. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
• B. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
• C. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
• D. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands

G2B03

5. What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

• A. Switch to the opposite sideband
• B. Decrease power and continue to transmit
• C. Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
• D. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

G7B04

6. In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

• A. Less than 50%
• B. More than 50% but less than 100%
• C. 100%
• D. 50%

G8A05

7. What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

• A. Phase modulation
• B. Power modulation
• C. Amplitude modulation
• D. Frequency modulation

G7A07

8. What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

• A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
• B. A steady DC voltage
• C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
• D. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input

G9B10

9. What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

• A. 33 feet
• B. 16 feet
• C. 8 feet
• D. 24 feet

G0B11

10. Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

• A. They must be bonded together with all other grounds
• B. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
• C. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
• D. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle

G9C07

11. What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

• A. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
• B. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
• C. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
• D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

G1A02

12. On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

• A. 160 meters
• B. 12 meters
• C. 17 meters
• D. 30 meters

G3B09

13. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

• A. 12,000 miles
• B. 180 miles
• C. 1,200 miles
• D. 2,500 miles

G8C08

14. Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

• A. Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
• B. Upper case letters are sent with more power
• C. Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
• D. Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception

G5B09

15. What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

• A. 34 volts
• B. 12 volts
• C. 24 volts
• D. 8.5 volts

G4E03

16. Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

• A. To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
• B. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
• C. To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
• D. To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

G6B02

17. What is meant by the term MMIC?

• A. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
• B. Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
• C. Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
• D. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

G3A06

18. What is a geomagnetic storm?

• A. A sudden drop in the solar flux index
• B. Ripples in the geomagnetic force
• C. A temporary disturbance in Earth's geomagnetic field
• D. A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation

G1D08

19. Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

• A. The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
• B. The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
• C. None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
• D. The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above

G2D01

20. What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

• A. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
• B. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
• C. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
• D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

G2C06

21. What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

• A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
• B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
• C. Sending without error
• D. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

G2E07

22. Which of the following is required when using FT8?

• A. A special hardware modem
• B. Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
• C. A vertically polarized antenna
• D. Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second

G6A12

23. What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

• A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
• B. To increase efficiency
• C. To increase the control grid resistance
• D. To decrease plate resistance

G4C04

24. What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

• A. A chirpy CW signal
• B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
• C. Severely distorted audio
• D. On-and-off humming or clicking

G8B01

25. Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

• A. Image frequency
• B. RF input
• C. Local oscillator
• D. Beat frequency oscillator

G1B10

26. What is the power limit for beacon stations?

• A. 20 watts PEP output
• B. 10 watts PEP output
• C. 200 watts PEP output
• D. 100 watts PEP output

G4B06

27. What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

• A. Less prone to overload
• B. Higher precision
• C. Faster response
• D. Better for measuring computer circuits

G5A05

28. How does an inductor react to AC?

• A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

G1E04

29. Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

• A. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
• B. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
• C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
• D. All these choices are correct

G3C05

30. Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

• A. The F region is unstable during daylight hours
• B. The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
• C. The E region is unstable during daylight hours
• D. The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours

G1C11

31. What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

• A. PEP input to the antenna
• B. RMS input to the antenna
• C. RMS output from the transmitter
• D. PEP output from the transmitter

G4D07

32. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

• A. Approximately 8 times
• B. Approximately 2 times
• C. Approximately 1.5 times
• D. Approximately 4 times

G0A05

33. What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

• A. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
• B. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields

G5C11

34. What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

• A. 1,000 millihenries
• B. 70 millihenries
• C. 7 millihenries
• D. 14.3 millihenries

G9A02

35. What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

• A. High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
• B. There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
• C. High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
• D. High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line