Practice Exam

G9A02

1. What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

• A. There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
• B. High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
• C. High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
• D. High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

G2C08

2. What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

• A. AR
• B. SK
• C. KN
• D. BK

G8C07

3. Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

• A. MFSK32
• B. AMTOR
• C. MSK144
• D. FT8

G4B10

4. Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

• A. RF interference
• B. Radio wave propagation
• C. Antenna front-to-back ratio
• D. Standing wave ratio

G5C11

5. What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

• A. 1,000 millihenries
• B. 14.3 millihenries
• C. 70 millihenries
• D. 7 millihenries

G0A12

6. What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

• A. All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
• B. Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
• C. All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
• D. Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground

G3B03

7. Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

• A. Just below the critical frequency
• B. Just below the MUF
• C. Just above the LUF
• D. Just above the critical frequency

G2E07

8. Which of the following is required when using FT8?

• A. Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
• B. A special hardware modem
• C. Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
• D. A vertically polarized antenna

G4A10

9. What is the function of an electronic keyer?

• A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
• B. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
• C. Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
• D. To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter

G1C04

10. Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

• A. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
• B. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
• C. You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
• D. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

G2B05

11. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• B. 2 kHz to 3 kHz
• C. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• D. Approximately 6 kHz

G7A11

12. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

• A. Symbol 2
• B. Symbol 11
• C. Symbol 7
• D. Symbol 1

G6A04

13. Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

• A. High capacitance for a given volume
• B. Tight tolerance
• C. Inexpensive RF capacitor
• D. Much less leakage than any other type

G2A08

14. What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

• A. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station
• B. Say "Breaker Breaker"
• C. Say "QRZ" several times, followed by your call sign
• D. Say your call sign once

G9C11

15. What is a beta or hairpin match?

• A. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
• B. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
• C. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
• D. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

G7B01

16. What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

• A. To eliminate self-oscillations
• B. To keep the carrier on frequency
• C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
• D. To limit the modulation index

G4D07

17. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

• A. Approximately 4 times
• B. Approximately 1.5 times
• C. Approximately 2 times
• D. Approximately 8 times

G3A10

18. What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

• A. The position of the Moon in its orbit
• B. Rotation of the Sun's surface layers around its axis
• C. Cyclic variation in Earth's radiation belts
• D. Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere

G2D08

19. Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

• A. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
• B. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
• C. The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
• D. The FCC requires a log of all international contacts

G8A03

20. What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

• A. Frequency convolution
• B. Frequency modulation
• C. Frequency transformation
• D. Frequency conversion

G4C08

21. Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

• A. Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
• B. Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
• C. Place a ferrite choke on the cable
• D. Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference

G1A02

22. On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

• A. 17 meters
• B. 12 meters
• C. 30 meters
• D. 160 meters

G5B11

23. What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

• A. 2.00
• B. 0.707
• C. 1.00
• D. 1.414

G0B08

24. What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

• A. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Unground the base of the tower
• D. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged

G7C11

25. Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

• A. Modulation
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Filtering
• D. Detection

G8B09

26. Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

• A. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
• B. It is required by FCC rules
• C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna
• D. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

G5A10

27. Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

• A. A length of transmission line
• B. A transformer
• C. A Pi-network
• D. All these choices are correct

G9B08

28. How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

• A. It steadily increases
• B. It steadily decreases
• C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
• D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

G1B03

29. Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

• A. Automatic identification of repeaters
• B. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Observation of propagation and reception

G3C01

30. Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

• A. The E region
• B. The F1 region
• C. The F2 region
• D. The D region

G1D03

31. On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

• A. On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
• B. Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
• C. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
• D. On any General or Technician class band segment

G9D01

32. Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

• A. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
• B. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
• C. A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
• D. A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

G6B05

33. What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Large values of inductance may be obtained
• C. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
• D. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

G4E11

34. What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

• A. A series resistor must be in place
• B. The solar panel must have a charge controller
• C. Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
• D. Ground the solar panel outer metal framework

G1E11

35. On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

• A. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
• B. On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
• C. Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
• D. Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands