Practice Exam

G7C14

1. The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

• A. Image and harmonic
• B. Cutoff and rolloff
• C. Pole and zero
• D. Upper and lower half-power

G2A09

2. Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

• A. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
• B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
• C. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
• D. It is commonly accepted amateur practice

G3B06

3. What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

• A. They pass through the ionosphere
• B. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
• C. They are attenuated before reaching the destination
• D. They are refracted back to Earth

G5A08

4. What is impedance?

• A. The ratio of voltage to current
• B. The product of current and voltage
• C. The ratio of current to voltage
• D. The product of current and reactance

G5B02

5. How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

• A. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
• B. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
• C. It equals the average of the branch currents
• D. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

G8A12

6. What is QPSK modulation?

• A. Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
• B. Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
• C. Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
• D. Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits

G3C08

7. Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

• A. Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
• B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
• C. Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
• D. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone

G4A01

8. What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

• A. To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
• B. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
• C. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
• D. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

G2E14

9. What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. You may have selected the wrong baud rate
• C. You may be listening on the wrong sideband
• D. The mark and space frequencies may be reversed

G3A06

10. What is a geomagnetic storm?

• A. A temporary disturbance in Earth's geomagnetic field
• B. Ripples in the geomagnetic force
• C. A sudden drop in the solar flux index
• D. A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation

G6B10

11. How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

• A. It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
• B. Ferrites expel magnetic fields
• C. By creating an impedance in the current's path
• D. By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current

G2B03

12. What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

• A. Switch to the opposite sideband
• B. Decrease power and continue to transmit
• C. Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
• D. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

G0B09

13. Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

• A. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
• B. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
• C. The generator must be insulated from ground
• D. All these choices are correct

G2D07

14. Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

• A. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
• B. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
• C. Adam, Boy, Charles, David
• D. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

G4C10

15. What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station's audio connections?

• A. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
• B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
• C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
• D. You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal

G9C11

16. What is a beta or hairpin match?

• A. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
• B. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
• C. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
• D. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching

G0A06

17. What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

• A. Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
• B. Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
• C. Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
• D. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65

G4B02

18. Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

• A. Complex impedances can be easily measured
• B. Greater precision
• C. Complex waveforms can be measured
• D. An oscilloscope uses less power

G7A03

19. Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

• A. Half-wave
• B. Full-wave
• C. Synchronous
• D. Full-wave bridge

G6A02

20. What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

• A. High discharge current
• B. High voltage
• C. Long life
• D. Rapid recharge

G1E05

21. What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

• A. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
• B. The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
• C. They must be for other licensed amateurs
• D. They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief

G1D09

22. How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

• A. 30 days
• B. 365 days
• C. For as long as your current license is valid
• D. 180 days

G4E09

23. What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

• A. 1.38 VDC
• B. 0.5 VDC
• C. 0.2 VDC
• D. 0.02 VDC

G9A05

24. How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

• A. Attenuation is independent of frequency
• B. Attenuation increases
• C. Attenuation decreases
• D. Attenuation follows Marconi's Law of Attenuation

G7B01

25. What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

• A. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
• B. To eliminate self-oscillations
• C. To keep the carrier on frequency
• D. To limit the modulation index

G5C06

26. What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

• A. 40 volts
• B. 25.5 volts
• C. 120 volts
• D. 360 volts

G9B01

27. What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

• A. Station equipment may carry significant RF current
• B. It produces only vertically polarized radiation
• C. It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
• D. It must be longer than 1 wavelength

G8C07

28. Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

• A. AMTOR
• B. FT8
• C. MFSK32
• D. MSK144

G9D07

29. Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

• A. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
• B. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
• C. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
• D. Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom

G8B10

30. What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

• A. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• B. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
• C. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
• D. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth

G2C05

31. What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

• A. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
• B. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
• C. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
• D. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

G1B05

32. Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

• A. Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
• B. Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code

G1C11

33. What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

• A. RMS output from the transmitter
• B. RMS input to the antenna
• C. PEP output from the transmitter
• D. PEP input to the antenna

G4D01

34. What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

• A. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
• B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
• C. Prevent distortion of voice signals
• D. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals

G1A11

35. When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

• A. The upper frequency portion
• B. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• C. The lower frequency portion
• D. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz