Practice Exam

G9A02

1. What are the typical characteristic impedances of coaxial cables used for antenna feed lines at amateur stations?

• A. 50 and 75 ohms
• B. 25 and 30 ohms
• C. 80 and 100 ohms
• D. 500 and 750 ohms

G2C05

2. What is the best speed to use answering a CQ in Morse Code?

• A. A slow speed until contact is established
• B. The speed at which the CQ was sent
• C. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying
• D. 5 wpm, as all operators licensed to operate CW can copy this speed

G2A04

3. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?

• A. Double sideband
• B. Upper sideband
• C. Lower sideband
• D. Vestigial sideband

G2E09

4. In what segment of the 20 meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

• A. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz
• B. At the top of the SSB phone segment near 14.325 MHz
• C. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
• D. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

G3B01

5. How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation?

• A. Signal strength increased by 3 dB
• B. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
• C. A well-defined echo might be heard
• D. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds

G0B09

6. Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

• A. The resistance of solder is too high
• B. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
• C. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
• D. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

G2D11

7. Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

• A. A quarter wave vertical antenna
• B. An omnidirectional antenna
• C. A unidirectional antenna
• D. An isotropic antenna

G9B02

8. What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a quarter wave ground-plane antenna?

• A. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms
• B. They lower the radiation angle
• C. They increase the radiation angle
• D. They bring the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms

G5B10

9. What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB?

• A. 12.2%
• B. 10.9%
• C. 25.9%
• D. 20.5%

G2B08

10. What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

• A. A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
• B. An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band
• C. An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions on that band segment
• D. A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only

G8B01

11. What receiver stage combines a 14.250 MHz input signal with a 13.795 MHz oscillator signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal?

• A. VFO
• B. Mixer
• C. BFO
• D. Discriminator

G8A04

12. What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?

• A. Phase modulation
• B. Amplitude modulation
• C. Pulse modulation
• D. Multiplex modulation

G1D01

13. Which of the following is a proper way to identify when transmitting using phone on General Class frequencies if you have a CSCE for the required elements but your upgrade from Technician has not appeared in the FCC database?

• A. Give your call sign followed by "slant AG"
• B. Give your call sign followed by the words "General Class"
• C. No special identification is needed
• D. Give your call sign followed the abbreviation "CSCE"

G6B12

14. What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

• A. To increase the control grid resistance
• B. To increase efficiency
• C. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
• D. To decrease plate resistance

G5A10

15. What unit is used to measure impedance?

• A. Watt
• B. Volt
• C. Ohm
• D. Ampere

G1B07

16. What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the Amateur Service?

• A. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
• B. Only "Q" codes are permitted
• C. They are not permitted
• D. Only "10 codes" are permitted

G4C05

17. What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

• A. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
• B. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
• C. The ground rod is resonant
• D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

G7A03

18. What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply?

• A. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply
• B. Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
• C. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply
• D. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply

G6C14

19. Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in Amateur Radio stations?

• A. RCA Phono
• B. PL-259
• C. BNC
• D. Type N

G1A08

20. Which of the following frequencies is within the General Class portion of the 20 meter phone band?

• A. 14005 kHz
• B. 14105 kHz
• C. 14405 kHz
• D. 14305 kHz

G3C05

21. Why is long distance communication on the 40, 60, 80 and 160 meter bands more difficult during the day?

• A. The F layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
• B. The F layer is unstable during daylight hours
• C. The D layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
• D. The E layer is unstable during daylight hours

G9C04

22. Which statement about a three-element; single-band Yagi antenna is true?

• A. The reflector is normally the longest parasitic element
• B. The director is normally the longest parasitic element
• C. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element
• D. All of the elements must be the same length

G9D06

23. Which of the following is an advantage of a log periodic antenna?

• A. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
• B. Wide bandwidth
• C. Polarization diversity
• D. Harmonic suppression

G1E10

24. What portion of the 10 meter band is available for repeater use?

• A. The portion above 29.5 MHz
• B. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
• C. The entire band
• D. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz

G7C11

25. What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

• A. A computer model which can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
• B. A radio which provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
• C. A radio which uses crystal filters designed using software
• D. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software

G5C08

26. What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5000 picofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

• A. 10750 picofarads
• B. 576.9 picofarads
• C. 3583 picofarads
• D. 1733 picofarads

G6A06

27. What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

• A. It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
• B. It will become time dependent
• C. It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient
• D. It will stay the same

G4E01

28. What is a "capacitance hat", when referring to a mobile antenna?

• A. A device that allows automatic band-changing for a mobile antenna
• B. A device that allows remote tuning of a mobile antenna
• C. A device to increase the power handling capacity of a mobile whip antenna
• D. A device to electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

G4A06

29. What type of device is often used to enable matching the transmitter output to an impedance other than 50 ohms?

• A. Antenna coupler
• B. Q Multiplier
• C. SWR Bridge
• D. Balanced modulator

G7B12

30. Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

• A. Class C
• B. Class A
• C. Class B
• D. Class AB

G4B04

31. What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

• A. The local oscillator of the transmitter
• B. The transmitter balanced mixer output
• C. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
• D. An external RF oscillator

G3A14

32. How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes?

• A. VHF/UHF ducting is improved
• B. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
• C. HF communications are improved
• D. HF communications are disturbed

G0A05

33. What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows RF energy radiated from your station exceeds permissible limits?

• A. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
• B. All of these choices are correct
• C. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
• D. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits

G4D07

34. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S- meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

• A. Approximately 1.5 times
• B. Approximately 4 times
• C. Approximately 2 times
• D. Approximately 8 times

G1C08

35. What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?

• A. 56 kilobaud
• B. 1200 baud
• C. 300 baud
• D. 19.6 kilobaud