Practice Exam

G2E15

1. Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

• A. Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
• B. Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
• C. Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
• D. Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz

G0A01

2. What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

• A. It heats body tissue
• B. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
• C. It cools body tissue
• D. It causes radiation poisoning

G5B05

3. How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

• A. Approximately 11 milliwatts
• B. Approximately 61 watts
• C. Approximately 11 watts
• D. Approximately 61 milliwatts

G9B06

4. Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

• A. As high as possible above the ground
• B. Parallel to the antenna element
• C. At the center of the antenna
• D. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground

G4E10

5. Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

• A. To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
• B. To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
• C. To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
• D. To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage

G4D07

6. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

• A. Approximately 2 times
• B. Approximately 4 times
• C. Approximately 1.5 times
• D. Approximately 8 times

G2D02

7. Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

• A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
• B. To provide emergency and public safety communications
• C. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
• D. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

G8C06

8. What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

• A. The connection is dropped
• B. Packets will be routed incorrectly
• C. The checksum overflows
• D. Encoding reverts to the default character set

G4A08

9. What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

• A. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
• B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
• C. Minimum SWR on the antenna
• D. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

G9C07

10. What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

• A. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
• B. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
• C. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
• D. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors

G6B05

11. What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

• A. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
• D. Large values of inductance may be obtained

G1B02

12. With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
• C. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
• D. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

G7C02

13. What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

• A. Audio extracted from the modulation signal
• B. Double-sideband modulated RF
• C. Audio with equalized frequency response
• D. Frequency modulated RF

G0B04

14. Where should the station's lightning protection ground system be located?

• A. Next to the closest power pole
• B. Outside the building
• C. As close to the station equipment as possible
• D. Parallel to the water supply line

G9A01

15. Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

• A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
• B. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
• C. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
• D. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors

G8A09

16. What type of modulation is used by FT8?

• A. Amplitude compressed AM
• B. Vestigial sideband
• C. 8-tone frequency shift keying
• D. 8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum

G1D04

17. Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

• A. At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
• B. At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
• C. At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
• D. At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher

G3A09

18. How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

• A. Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
• B. Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
• C. Improve HF long path propagation
• D. Reduce long delayed echoes

G5A05

19. How does an inductor react to AC?

• A. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G2A06

20. Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

• A. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
• B. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
• C. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
• D. Very high-fidelity voice modulation

G5C12

21. What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

• A. 1,000 microfarads
• B. 70 microfarads
• C. 0.07 microfarads
• D. 14.3 microfarads

G4B08

22. What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

• A. Percentage of frequency modulation
• B. Linearity
• C. Percentage of carrier phase shift
• D. Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB

G1C02

23. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

• A. 200 watts PEP output
• B. 50 watts PEP output
• C. 1500 watts PEP output
• D. An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

G7B09

24. What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

• A. The number of stages in the divider
• B. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
• C. The number of stages in the counter
• D. The time delay of the lag circuit

G9D11

25. Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

• A. They must be used with an antenna tuner
• B. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
• C. They must be fed with open wire line
• D. They have poor harmonic rejection

G2C07

26. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

• A. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
• B. Key clicks
• C. 100 percent copy
• D. Chirpy or unstable signal

G8B13

27. Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. 3F1-F2
• C. 2F1-F2
• D. 5F1-3F2

G3C03

28. Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

• A. Because it is the densest
• B. Because of the Doppler effect
• C. Because of temperature inversions
• D. Because it is the highest

G6A10

29. Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

• A. Control grid
• B. Screen grid
• C. Trigger electrode
• D. Suppressor grid

G1A11

30. When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

• A. The upper frequency portion
• B. The lower frequency portion
• C. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• D. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

G1E12

31. When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

• A. Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
• B. Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
• C. Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
• D. Under no circumstances except for emergencies

G7A12

32. Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

• A. Symbol 4
• B. Symbol 1
• C. Symbol 6
• D. Symbol 7

G3B05

33. How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

• A. They are refracted back to Earth
• B. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
• C. They pass through the ionosphere
• D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

G4C06

34. What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

• A. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
• B. A ground loop
• C. Overheating of ground straps
• D. Corrosion of the ground rod

G2B05

35. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 2 kHz to 3 kHz
• B. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• C. Approximately 6 kHz
• D. 150 Hz to 500 Hz