Practice Exam

G8C14

1. Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

• A. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
• B. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
• C. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
• D. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

G4A12

2. Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

• A. To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
• B. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
• C. To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
• D. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once

G8B10

3. What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

• A. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• B. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
• C. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• D. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

G9D08

4. How does a "screwdriver" mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

• A. By deploying a capacitance hat
• B. By varying the base loading inductance
• C. By varying its body capacitance
• D. By extending and retracting the whip

G1C01

5. What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

• A. 2000 watts PEP output
• B. 1500 watts PEP output
• C. 1000 watts PEP output
• D. 200 watts PEP output

G4B03

6. Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

• A. A sidetone monitor
• B. A wavemeter
• C. An oscilloscope
• D. A field strength meter

G3A13

7. What does the A-index measure?

• A. The long-term stability of Earth's geomagnetic field
• B. The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
• C. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
• D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

G1B04

8. Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

• A. Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
• B. Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
• C. Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
• D. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations

G3B10

9. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

• A. 1,200 miles
• B. 12,000 miles
• C. 180 miles
• D. 2,500 miles

G2B10

10. Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

• A. Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
• B. Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session

G5B12

11. What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

• A. 173 volts
• B. 692 volts
• C. 245 volts
• D. 346 volts

G4E11

12. What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

• A. Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
• B. Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
• C. A series resistor must be in place
• D. The solar panel must have a charge controller

G6B10

13. How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

• A. By creating an impedance in the current's path
• B. It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
• C. By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
• D. Ferrites expel magnetic fields

G7C11

14. Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Filtering
• C. Detection
• D. Modulation

G6A10

15. Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

• A. Suppressor grid
• B. Screen grid
• C. Trigger electrode
• D. Control grid

G2C05

16. What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

• A. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
• B. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
• C. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
• D. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

G2D03

17. What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
• C. Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
• D. Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater

G1D12

18. When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

• A. Those of the remote station's country and the FCC's third-party regulations
• B. Only those of the FCC
• C. Those of both the remote station's country and the FCC
• D. Only those of the remote station's country

G4D11

19. How close to the upper edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

• A. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
• B. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
• C. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
• D. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band

G9B09

20. Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

• A. Shorter radials
• B. Lower feed point impedance
• C. Lower ground losses
• D. Lower radiation resistance

G2E06

21. What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

• A. 425 Hz
• B. 850 Hz
• C. 170 Hz
• D. 85 Hz

G0A07

22. What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

• A. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
• B. A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
• C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
• D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

G1E04

23. Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

• A. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
• B. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station

G8A03

24. What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

• A. Frequency modulation
• B. Frequency transformation
• C. Frequency convolution
• D. Frequency conversion

G0B13

25. Where should lightning arrestors be located?

• A. Where the feed lines enter the building
• B. In series with each ground lead
• C. On the antenna, opposite the feed point
• D. At the closest power pole ground electrode

G9A02

26. What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

• A. There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
• B. High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
• C. High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
• D. High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss

G5A03

27. Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

• A. Conductance
• B. Reluctance
• C. Reactance
• D. Admittance

G2A07

28. Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

• A. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
• B. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
• C. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
• D. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands

G1A05

29. On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

• A. All of the above
• B. 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
• C. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
• D. 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz

G7A01

30. What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

• A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
• B. It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
• C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
• D. It eliminates ground loop current

G3C01

31. Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

• A. The F1 region
• B. The E region
• C. The F2 region
• D. The D region

G7B01

32. What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

• A. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
• B. To keep the carrier on frequency
• C. To eliminate self-oscillations
• D. To limit the modulation index

G5C09

33. What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

• A. 3.0 microfarads
• B. 0.33 microfarads
• C. 33.3 microfarads
• D. 300 microfarads

G9C03

34. How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

• A. Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
• B. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
• C. They are all the same length
• D. The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer

G4C06

35. What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

• A. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
• B. Corrosion of the ground rod
• C. Overheating of ground straps
• D. A ground loop