Practice Exam

G4D06

1. How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

• A. 6 dB
• B. 15 dB
• C. 18 dB
• D. 12 dB

G0A10

2. What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

• A. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
• B. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
• C. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
• D. All these choices are correct

G6A10

3. Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

• A. Control grid
• B. Trigger electrode
• C. Suppressor grid
• D. Screen grid

G7B05

4. How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

• A. 3
• B. 8
• C. 6
• D. 16

G1B02

5. With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

• A. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
• B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location

G2B05

6. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 2 kHz to 3 kHz
• B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• C. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• D. Approximately 6 kHz

G8C13

7. What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

• A. Overmodulation
• B. Insufficient modulation
• C. Backscatter propagation
• D. Long path propagation

G1E06

8. The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

• A. Region 3
• B. Region 1
• C. Region 4
• D. Region 2

G2D06

9. How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

• A. Toward the rising sun
• B. Toward the north
• C. 180 degrees from the station's short-path heading
• D. Along the gray line

G4C09

10. How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

• A. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
• B. Bond equipment enclosures together
• C. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
• D. Connect all ground conductors in series

G7C05

11. Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

• A. Extremely narrow tuning range
• B. Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
• C. Pure sine wave output
• D. Relatively high-power output

G5B11

12. What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

• A. 2.00
• B. 0.707
• C. 1.414
• D. 1.00

G8B04

13. What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

• A. Balanced converter
• B. Mixer
• C. Multiplier
• D. Reactance modulator

G9C11

14. What is a beta or hairpin match?

• A. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
• B. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
• C. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
• D. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

G3A10

15. What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

• A. Rotation of the Sun's surface layers around its axis
• B. Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
• C. The position of the Moon in its orbit
• D. Cyclic variation in Earth's radiation belts

G6B05

16. What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

• A. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
• B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
• C. Large values of inductance may be obtained
• D. All these choices are correct

G4B03

17. Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

• A. A wavemeter
• B. An oscilloscope
• C. A sidetone monitor
• D. A field strength meter

G5C09

18. What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

• A. 300 microfarads
• B. 33.3 microfarads
• C. 0.33 microfarads
• D. 3.0 microfarads

G9D07

19. Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

• A. Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
• B. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
• C. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
• D. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

G0B02

20. According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

• A. AWG number 16
• B. AWG number 12
• C. AWG number 20
• D. AWG number 8

G3B08

21. What does MUF stand for?

• A. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• B. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• C. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• D. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

G2C03

22. What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

• A. No US stations should call
• B. Closing station now
• C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
• D. Operating full break-in

G5A08

23. What is impedance?

• A. The ratio of current to voltage
• B. The product of current and voltage
• C. The ratio of voltage to current
• D. The product of current and reactance

G4A04

24. What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier's TUNE control?

• A. No change will be observed
• B. A slow, rhythmic oscillation
• C. A pronounced dip
• D. A pronounced peak

G2E04

25. Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

• A. Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
• B. Always call on the station's frequency
• C. Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station's frequency
• D. Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

G4E08

26. In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

• A. Full-wave bridge
• B. Bypass
• C. Shunt
• D. Series-parallel

G8A06

27. Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

• A. It is sideband sensitive
• B. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
• C. Its encoding provides error correction
• D. All these choices are correct

G9B03

28. Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

• A. Hemispherical
• B. Omnidirectional in azimuth
• C. Isotropic
• D. Bi-directional in azimuth

G1D03

29. On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

• A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
• B. Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
• C. On any General or Technician class band segment
• D. On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

G9A04

30. What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

• A. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
• B. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
• C. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
• D. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

G1A08

31. Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

• A. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
• B. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
• C. All HF bands
• D. All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters

G2A12

32. What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

• A. Antenna inductance or capacitance
• B. Attenuator level
• C. Transmit audio or microphone gain
• D. RF clipping level

G1C06

33. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

• A. 1000 watts PEP output
• B. 1500 watts PEP output
• C. 200 watts PEP output
• D. 1200 watts PEP output

G3C02

34. What is meant by the term "critical frequency" at a given incidence angle?

• A. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
• B. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
• C. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
• D. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth

G7A02

35. Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Transformers and transducers
• C. Capacitors and inductors
• D. Diodes