Practice Exam

G4C02

1. Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

• A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
• B. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
• C. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
• D. Arcing at a poor electrical connection

G5A01

2. What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

• A. Resonance causes impedance to be very high
• B. Resonance causes impedance to be very low
• C. Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
• D. Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance

G4E07

3. Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

• A. The control computers
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The fuel delivery system
• D. The battery charging system

G2B03

4. What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

• A. Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
• B. Decrease power and continue to transmit
• C. Switch to the opposite sideband
• D. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

G7C08

5. Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

• A. Input amplifier noise figure
• B. Demodulator stage bandwidth
• C. Input amplifier gain
• D. All these choices are correct

G8A08

6. Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

• A. Insufficient bandwidth
• B. Excessive bandwidth
• C. Insufficient audio
• D. Frequency drift

G0A06

7. What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

• A. Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
• B. Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
• C. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
• D. Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines

G1D08

8. Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

• A. The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
• B. The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
• C. None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
• D. The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above

G2D11

9. Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

• A. To allow each station to operate according to conditions
• B. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
• C. To follow standard radiogram structure
• D. To be sure the contact will count for award programs

G5B10

10. What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

• A. 20.6 percent
• B. 12.2 percent
• C. 25.9 percent
• D. 10.9 percent

G8B10

11. What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

• A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
• B. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• C. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• D. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

G7B04

12. In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

• A. More than 50% but less than 100%
• B. 50%
• C. Less than 50%
• D. 100%

G1E07

13. In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

• A. Anywhere in the band
• B. Channels 42 through 45
• C. No part
• D. Channels 1 through 4

G2A01

14. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

• A. Lower sideband
• B. Upper sideband
• C. Double sideband
• D. Suppressed sideband

G3C09

15. What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?

• A. Short-path
• B. Scatter
• C. Chordal hop
• D. Faraday rotation

G2E12

16. Which of the following describes Winlink?

• A. A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
• B. All of the above
• C. A form of Packet Radio
• D. An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet

G3B08

17. What does MUF stand for?

• A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• D. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

G5C07

18. What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna's 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

• A. 3.5 to 1
• B. 12 to 1
• C. 24 to 1
• D. 144 to 1

G8C10

19. How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

• A. By transmitting redundant information with the data
• B. By using a parity bit with each character
• C. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
• D. By using the Varicode character set

G4D06

20. How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

• A. 6 dB
• B. 18 dB
• C. 12 dB
• D. 15 dB

G9A04

21. What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

• A. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
• B. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
• C. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
• D. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency

G6A09

22. Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

• A. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
• B. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
• C. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
• D. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer

G1B09

23. On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

• A. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
• B. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
• C. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
• D. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

G9D01

24. Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

• A. A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
• B. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
• C. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
• D. A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

G1A02

25. On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

• A. 30 meters
• B. 17 meters
• C. 160 meters
• D. 12 meters

G7A04

26. What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

• A. More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
• B. The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
• C. The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
• D. Only one diode is required

G2C07

27. When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

• A. 100 percent copy
• B. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
• C. Chirpy or unstable signal
• D. Key clicks

G3A06

28. What is a geomagnetic storm?

• A. A sudden drop in the solar flux index
• B. A temporary disturbance in Earth's geomagnetic field
• C. A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
• D. Ripples in the geomagnetic force

G1C11

29. What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

• A. PEP input to the antenna
• B. PEP output from the transmitter
• C. RMS output from the transmitter
• D. RMS input to the antenna

G0B03

30. Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

• A. 15 amperes
• B. 25 amperes
• C. 20 amperes
• D. 30 amperes

G9B02

31. Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

• A. Slope the radials upward
• B. Coil the radials
• C. Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
• D. Slope the radials downward

G6B03

32. Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

• A. Low power consumption
• B. Better suited for RF amplification
• C. High power handling capability
• D. Better suited for power supply regulation

G4B01

33. What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

• A. An oscilloscope
• B. An ohmmeter
• C. An ammeter
• D. A signal generator

G9C09

34. In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

• A. Approximately 9 dB higher
• B. Approximately 6 dB higher
• C. Approximately 3 dB higher
• D. Approximately 1.5 dB higher

G4A06

35. What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

• A. Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
• B. Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line