Practice Exam

G3C11

1. Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

• A. Right-hand circularly polarized antenna
• B. Horizontal dipoles placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
• C. Left-hand circularly polarized antennas
• D. Vertical antennas

G9B06

2. Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

• A. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
• B. At the top of the antenna
• C. As high as possible above the ground
• D. Parallel to the antenna element

G3B12

3. What factors affect the Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)?

• A. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
• B. All of these choices are correct
• C. Time of day and season
• D. Path distance and location

G0B05

4. Which of the following conditions will cause a Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect the 120 or 240 Volt AC line power to a device?

• A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
• B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
• C. Over-voltage on the hot wire
• D. All of these choices are correct

G2E04

5. What segment of the 20 meter band is most often used for data transmissions?

• A. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz
• B. 14.070 - 14.100 MHz
• C. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz
• D. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz

G3A13

6. What does the A-index indicate?

• A. The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
• B. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
• C. The long term stability of the Earth's geomagnetic field
• D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

G5C10

7. What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

• A. 3.3 Henrys
• B. 3.3 millihenrys
• C. 30 millihenrys
• D. .30 Henrys

G1B06

8. When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes?

• A. During a declared communications emergency
• B. Only with Special Temporary Authorization from the FCC
• C. To control a space station
• D. Only when the information is of a routine, personal nature

G1D04

9. Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician Class operator examination?

• A. At least two VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present
• B. At least three VEC accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present
• C. At least three VEs of Technician Class or higher must be present
• D. At least two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC accredited

G9A07

10. What must be done to prevent standing waves on an antenna feed line?

• A. The feed line must be cut to an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
• B. The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
• C. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
• D. The feed line must be cut to an even number of physical half wavelengths long

G9D03

11. At what height above ground is an NVIS antenna typically installed?

• A. Height is not critical as long as it is significantly more than 1/2 wavelength
• B. As close to one wavelength as possible
• C. As close to one-half wave as possible
• D. Between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength

G2D05

12. When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

• A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
• B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
• C. When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
• D. Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union

G1E02

13. When may a 10 meter repeater retransmit the 2 meter signal from a station having a Technician Class control operator?

• A. Only if the 10 meter repeater control operator holds at least a General Class license
• B. Under no circumstances
• C. Only during an FCC declared general state of communications emergency
• D. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission

G6A07

14. Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit?

• A. The resistor could overheat
• B. The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
• C. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit
• D. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit

G4C03

15. What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single-sideband phone transmitter?

• A. On-and-off humming or clicking
• B. Distorted speech
• C. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
• D. Clearly audible speech

G8B02

16. If a receiver mixes a 13.800 MHz VFO with a 14.255 MHz received signal to produce a 455 kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of interference will a 13.345 MHz signal produce in the receiver?

• A. Intermediate interference
• B. Mixer interference
• C. Image response
• D. Quadrature noise

G0A09

17. What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field?

• A. A receiver with an S meter
• B. A calibrated field-strength meter with a calibrated antenna
• C. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
• D. A betascope with a dummy antenna calibrated at 50 ohms

G4A10

18. What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

• A. VOX operation
• B. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
• C. Automatic transmit/receive switching
• D. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation

G2C11

19. What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

• A. I am ready to receive messages
• B. You are sending too fast
• C. There is interference on the frequency
• D. I am quitting for the day

G7A13

20. Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

• A. Symbol 11
• B. Symbol 7
• C. Symbol 6
• D. Symbol 1

G4D07

21. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S- meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

• A. Approximately 2 times
• B. Approximately 1.5 times
• C. Approximately 8 times
• D. Approximately 4 times

G1C09

22. What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25 meter and 70 centimeter bands

• A. 56 kilobaud
• B. 300 baud
• C. 1200 baud
• D. 19.6 kilobaud

G9C03

23. Which statement about a three-element, single-band Yagi antenna is true?

• A. The director is normally the shortest parasitic element
• B. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element
• C. Low feed-point impedance increases bandwidth
• D. The driven element is the longest parasitic element

G6C12

24. Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

• A. DE-9
• B. PL-259
• C. Type N
• D. Type SMA

G5B06

25. What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output?

• A. 400 watts
• B. 353.5 watts
• C. 1.4 watts
• D. 100 watts

G5A12

26. What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

• A. To maximize the transfer of power
• B. To reduce power supply ripple
• C. To minimize transmitter power output
• D. To minimize radiation resistance

G7C11

27. What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SDR)?

• A. A radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
• B. A radio which provides computer interface for automatic logging of band and frequency
• C. A computer model which can simulate performance of a radio to aid in the design process
• D. A radio which uses crystal filters designed using software

G1A02

28. On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

• A. 160 meters
• B. 17 meters
• C. 30 meters
• D. 12 meters

G2A08

29. Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?

• A. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations
• B. Say "QRZ" several times followed by your call sign
• C. Say "Break. Break. Break." and wait for a response
• D. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station

G7B03

30. Which of the following describes the function of a two input AND gate?

• A. Output is high only when both inputs are high
• B. Output is low only when both inputs are high
• C. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
• D. Output is low when either or both inputs are high

G4B16

31. What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

• A. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
• B. Two swept frequency tones
• C. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90-degrees
• D. Two non-harmonically related audio signals

G6B14

32. What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery?

• A. 8.5 volts
• B. 6 volts
• C. 12 volts
• D. 10.5 volts

G2B08

33. What is the "DX window" in a voluntary band plan?

• A. An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions on that band segment
• B. A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States
• C. A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only
• D. An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band

G8A04

34. What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier?

• A. Phase modulation
• B. Pulse modulation
• C. Multiplex modulation
• D. Amplitude modulation

G4E09

35. What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a modern, well-illuminated photovoltaic cell?

• A. 0.2 VDC
• B. 0.02 VDC
• C. 1.38 VDC
• D. 0.5 VDC