Practice Exam

G7C03

1. What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

• A. To minimize transmitter power output
• B. To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
• C. To minimize radiation resistance
• D. To reduce power supply ripple

G4B01

2. What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

• A. An ohmmeter
• B. An ammeter
• C. A signal generator
• D. An oscilloscope

G2E11

3. What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

• A. To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
• B. To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
• C. To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
• D. To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers

G3B08

4. What does MUF stand for?

• A. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• B. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• C. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• D. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points

G3A04

5. Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

• A. 60 meters and 40 meters
• B. 80 meters and 160 meters
• C. 30 meters and 20 meters
• D. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

G1D02

6. What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

• A. Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
• B. Technician only
• C. None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
• D. General and Technician

G1A02

7. On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

• A. 160 meters
• B. 17 meters
• C. 12 meters
• D. 30 meters

G2A02

8. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

• A. Suppressed sideband
• B. Lower sideband
• C. Upper sideband
• D. Double sideband

G1B10

9. What is the power limit for beacon stations?

• A. 20 watts PEP output
• B. 10 watts PEP output
• C. 200 watts PEP output
• D. 100 watts PEP output

G2B05

10. When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

• A. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
• B. 2 kHz to 3 kHz
• C. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
• D. Approximately 6 kHz

G6B03

11. Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

• A. Better suited for power supply regulation
• B. Low power consumption
• C. High power handling capability
• D. Better suited for RF amplification

G1C04

12. Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

• A. You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
• B. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
• C. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
• D. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

G4E01

13. What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

• A. To reduce radiation resistance
• B. To lower the radiation angle
• C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
• D. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna

G4A08

14. What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

• A. Minimum SWR on the antenna
• B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
• C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
• D. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

G8A04

15. What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

• A. Phase modulation
• B. Multiplex modulation
• C. Pulse modulation
• D. Amplitude modulation

G5B02

16. How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

• A. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
• B. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
• C. It equals the average of the branch currents
• D. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit

G8B10

17. What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

• A. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
• B. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
• C. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
• D. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth

G9D12

18. What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

• A. Lazy H
• B. Sloper
• C. Inverted L
• D. Inverted V

G0B10

19. Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

• A. Tin in the solder can "cold flow," causing shorts in the circuit
• B. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
• C. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
• D. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly

G3C11

20. Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

• A. The F1 region
• B. The D region
• C. The E region
• D. The F2 region

G2C03

21. What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

• A. Listening only for a specific station or stations
• B. Operating full break-in
• C. Closing station now
• D. No US stations should call

G8C15

22. What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

• A. The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
• B. The signal is 3 dB over S9
• C. The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
• D. The signal is S3 (weak signals)

G4C10

23. What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station's audio connections?

• A. You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
• B. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
• C. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
• D. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current

G0A05

24. What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

• A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
• B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
• C. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
• D. All these choices are correct

G5A11

25. What letter is used to represent reactance?

• A. Y
• B. Z
• C. X
• D. B

G9C01

26. Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

• A. Larger-diameter elements
• B. Loading coils in series with the element
• C. Tapered-diameter elements
• D. Closer element spacing

G1E06

27. The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

• A. Region 2
• B. Region 3
• C. Region 1
• D. Region 4

G6A03

28. What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

• A. 0.7 volts
• B. 0.1 volt
• C. 0.3 volts
• D. 1.0 volts

G5C07

29. What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna's 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

• A. 3.5 to 1
• B. 12 to 1
• C. 24 to 1
• D. 144 to 1

G9A01

30. Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

• A. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
• B. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
• C. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
• D. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

G7B03

31. Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

• A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
• B. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
• C. Output is high only when both inputs are high
• D. Output is low only when both inputs are high

G4D02

32. How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

• A. It reduces harmonic distortion
• B. It increases average power
• C. It increases peak power
• D. It reduces intermodulation distortion

G9B05

33. How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

• A. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
• B. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
• C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
• D. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

G2D06

34. How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

• A. 180 degrees from the station's short-path heading
• B. Along the gray line
• C. Toward the north
• D. Toward the rising sun

G7A13

35. Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

• A. Symbol 11
• B. Symbol 6
• C. Symbol 7
• D. Symbol 1