Practice Exam

G4E07

1. Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

• A. The control computers
• B. The battery charging system
• C. The fuel delivery system
• D. All these choices are correct

G9B09

2. Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

• A. Lower feed point impedance
• B. Lower radiation resistance
• C. Lower ground losses
• D. Shorter radials

G1C04

3. Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

• A. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
• B. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
• C. You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
• D. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

G3A10

4. What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

• A. Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
• B. Cyclic variation in Earth's radiation belts
• C. The position of the Moon in its orbit
• D. Rotation of the Sun's surface layers around its axis

G5C14

5. Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

• A. An inductor in parallel
• B. A capacitor in parallel
• C. An inductor in series
• D. A capacitor in series

G8C13

6. What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

• A. Backscatter propagation
• B. Overmodulation
• C. Insufficient modulation
• D. Long path propagation

G5B12

7. What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

• A. 173 volts
• B. 692 volts
• C. 245 volts
• D. 346 volts

G0B05

8. Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
• C. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
• D. Overvoltage on the hot wires

G9A09

9. What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

• A. 4:1
• B. 2:1
• C. 1:4
• D. 1:2

G6A08

10. Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

• A. High stability
• B. Tight tolerance
• C. High capacitance for given volume
• D. Comparatively low cost

G1E08

11. What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

• A. 1500 watts
• B. 10 watts
• C. 100 milliwatts
• D. 100 watts

G8A03

12. What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

• A. Frequency modulation
• B. Frequency conversion
• C. Frequency transformation
• D. Frequency convolution

G2B08

13. What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

• A. Only SSTV contacts
• B. Only digital contacts
• C. Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
• D. Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states

G7C11

14. Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

• A. Filtering
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Detection
• D. Modulation

G9D04

15. What is the primary function of antenna traps?

• A. To provide balanced feed point impedance
• B. To prevent out-of-band operation
• C. To enable multiband operation
• D. To notch spurious frequencies

G1A07

16. On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

• A. 28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
• B. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
• C. The entire band
• D. 28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only

G8B07

17. What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

• A. 101.75 Hz
• B. 416.7 Hz
• C. 5 kHz
• D. 60 kHz

G0A09

18. What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

• A. A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
• B. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
• C. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
• D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

G7B04

19. In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

• A. More than 50% but less than 100%
• B. Less than 50%
• C. 100%
• D. 50%

G7A04

20. What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

• A. The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
• B. Only one diode is required
• C. More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
• D. The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage

G2E14

21. What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
• C. You may have selected the wrong baud rate
• D. You may be listening on the wrong sideband

G1B05

22. Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

• A. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
• B. Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
• C. Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
• D. All these choices are correct

G4B04

23. What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

• A. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
• B. The transmitter balanced mixer output
• C. The local oscillator of the transmitter
• D. An external RF oscillator

G4A03

24. How does a noise blanker work?

• A. By clipping noise peaks
• B. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
• C. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
• D. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

G2C09

25. What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

• A. I have received and understood
• B. Send slower
• C. We have worked before
• D. We have already confirmed the contact

G5A01

26. What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

• A. Resonance causes impedance to be very low
• B. Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
• C. Resonance causes impedance to be very high
• D. Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance

G9C08

27. What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

• A. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
• B. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
• C. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
• D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

G2D04

28. Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

• A. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
• B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
• C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
• D. A map that shows accurate land masses

G2A01

29. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

• A. Double sideband
• B. Lower sideband
• C. Suppressed sideband
• D. Upper sideband

G3B02

30. What factors affect the MUF?

• A. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
• B. Path distance and location
• C. Time of day and season
• D. All these choices are correct

G3C08

31. Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

• A. Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
• B. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
• C. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
• D. Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy

G1D09

32. How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

• A. 30 days
• B. 365 days
• C. 180 days
• D. For as long as your current license is valid

G4C12

33. Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

• A. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
• B. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
• C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
• D. It prevents signal overload

G6B11

34. What is an SMA connector?

• A. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
• B. A type-S to type-M adaptor
• C. A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
• D. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

G4D11

35. How close to the upper edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

• A. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
• B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
• C. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
• D. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band