Practice Exam

G8A01

1. What is the name of the process that changes the envelope of an RF wave to carry information?

• A. Spread spectrum modulation
• B. Frequency modulation
• C. Phase modulation
• D. Amplitude modulation

G6A06

2. What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased?

• A. It will stay the same
• B. It will change depending on the resistor's reactance coefficient
• C. It will become time dependent
• D. It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient

G5A12

3. What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer?

• A. To maximize the transfer of power
• B. To reduce power supply ripple
• C. To minimize transmitter power output
• D. To minimize radiation resistance

G2D05

4. When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

• A. When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English
• B. Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC
• C. Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union
• D. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

G5B03

5. How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

• A. 3200 watts
• B. 400 watts
• C. 0.5 watts
• D. 200 watts

G1B05

6. When may music be transmitted by an amateur station?

• A. When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz
• B. At any time, as long as it produces no spurious emissions
• C. When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission
• D. When it is unintentionally transmitted from the background at the transmitter

G2A02

7. Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands?

• A. Upper sideband
• B. Vestigial sideband
• C. Double sideband
• D. Lower sideband

G2E13

8. In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

• A. The entire file has been received correctly
• B. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error
• C. The receiver is requesting the packet be re-transmitted
• D. The receiver is busy decoding the packet

G9D10

9. Which of the following describes a Beverage antenna?

• A. A vertical antenna constructed from beverage cans
• B. A broad-band mobile antenna
• C. A helical antenna for space reception
• D. A very long and low directional receiving antenna

G9C02

10. What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

• A. 3/4 wavelength
• B. 1/4 wavelength
• C. 1 wavelength
• D. 1/2 wavelength

G9A01

11. Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor antenna feed line?

• A. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
• B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
• C. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
• D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

G8B03

12. What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

• A. Cancellation
• B. Phase inverting
• C. Heterodyning
• D. Synthesizing

G0B14

13. Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

• A. Electrical safety inside the ham shack
• B. Acceptable modulation limits
• C. RF exposure limits of the human body
• D. Acceptable bandwidth limits

G7B12

14. Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

• A. Class C
• B. Class AB
• C. Class A
• D. Class B

G1C02

15. What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12 meter band?

• A. An effective radiated power equivalent to 50 watts from a half-wave dipole
• B. 200 watts PEP output
• C. 1500 PEP output, except for 200 watts PEP output in the Novice portion
• D. 1500 watts PEP output

G4A10

16. What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

• A. VOX operation
• B. Automatic transmit/receive switching
• C. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
• D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

G7A10

17. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

• A. Symbol 11
• B. Symbol 1
• C. Symbol 5
• D. Symbol 4

G4B16

18. What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

• A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90-degrees
• B. Two swept frequency tones
• C. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
• D. Two non-harmonically related audio signals

G3A11

19. Approximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle?

• A. 8 minutes
• B. 40 hours
• C. 28 days
• D. 11 years

G9B05

20. How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna?

• A. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
• B. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
• C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
• D. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable

G1D02

21. What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General Class operator license?

• A. General only
• B. Technician only
• C. Extra, General and Technician
• D. General and Technician

G4E03

22. Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

• A. To the battery using heavy gauge wire
• B. To the battery using resistor wire
• C. To the alternator or generator using heavy gauge wire
• D. To the alternator or generator using resistor wire

G1E06

23. Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater?

• A. The licensee of the coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
• B. The licensee of the non-coordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference
• C. Both repeater licensees share equal responsibility to resolve the interference
• D. The frequency coordinator bears primary responsibility to resolve the interference

G7C05

24. Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

• A. Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
• B. Relatively high power output
• C. Relatively low power consumption
• D. Wide tuning range and no need for band switching

G0A10

25. What is one thing that can be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might receive more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

• A. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
• B. Change from horizontal polarization to circular polarization
• C. Change from horizontal polarization to vertical polarization
• D. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction

G6C02

26. What is meant by the term MMIC?

• A. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
• B. Military-specification Manufactured Integrated Circuit
• C. Multi Megabyte Integrated Circuit
• D. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit

G3B07

27. What does LUF stand for?

• A. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24 hour period
• B. The Longest Universal Function during a 24 hour period
• C. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points
• D. The Longest Universal Function for communications between two points

G2C09

28. What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

• A. We have worked before
• B. We have already confirmed by card
• C. I acknowledge receipt
• D. Send slower

G1A14

29. Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the Amateur Service as a secondary user on a band?

• A. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
• B. Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users
• C. Amateur stations are allowed to use the band only during emergencies
• D. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24 hour use of the band

G5C14

30. Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

• A. An inductor in parallel
• B. A capacitor in series
• C. An inductor in series
• D. A resistor in parallel

G2B05

31. What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

• A. Approximately 3 kHz
• B. Approximately 6 kHz
• C. Approximately 10 kHz
• D. Between 150 and 500 Hz

G4C05

32. What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

• A. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
• B. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
• C. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
• D. The ground rod is resonant

G4D07

33. How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S- meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

• A. Approximately 2 times
• B. Approximately 8 times
• C. Approximately 4 times
• D. Approximately 1.5 times

G3C06

34. What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals?

• A. They have high intelligibility
• B. All of these choices are correct
• C. They have very large swings in signal strength
• D. They have a wavering sound

G6B12

35. What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

• A. To increase efficiency
• B. To increase the control grid resistance
• C. To decrease plate resistance
• D. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance