Practice Exam

G7B09

1. What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

• A. The number of stages in the divider
• B. The time delay of the lag circuit
• C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
• D. The number of stages in the counter

G4A09

2. What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter's keying line to an external amplifier?

• A. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
• B. To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
• C. To prevent transient overmodulation
• D. To prevent key clicks on CW

G1B08

3. When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

• A. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
• B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
• C. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
• D. Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC

G5B03

4. How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

• A. 400 watts
• B. 0.5 watts
• C. 200 watts
• D. 3200 watts

G4B13

5. Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

• A. Power output from a transmitter
• B. Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
• C. Gain of a directional antenna
• D. Impedance of coaxial cable

G1C05

6. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

• A. 1500 watts PEP output
• B. 1000 watts PEP output
• C. 100 watts PEP output
• D. 2000 watts PEP output

G2E07

7. Which of the following is required when using FT8?

• A. A special hardware modem
• B. Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
• C. A vertically polarized antenna
• D. Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB

G4C05

8. What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

• A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
• B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
• C. The ground rod is resonant
• D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

G0B13

9. Where should lightning arrestors be located?

• A. At the closest power pole ground electrode
• B. On the antenna, opposite the feed point
• C. Where the feed lines enter the building
• D. In series with each ground lead

G7A05

10. What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

• A. 360 degrees
• B. 270 degrees
• C. 180 degrees
• D. 90 degrees

G0A06

11. What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

• A. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
• B. Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
• C. Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
• D. Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

G1A11

12. When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

• A. The upper frequency portion
• B. The lower frequency portion
• C. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
• D. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

G7C04

13. How is a product detector used?

• A. Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
• B. Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
• C. Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
• D. Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands

G3B09

14. What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

• A. 180 miles
• B. 2,500 miles
• C. 1,200 miles
• D. 12,000 miles

G2C03

15. What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

• A. No US stations should call
• B. Closing station now
• C. Operating full break-in
• D. Listening only for a specific station or stations

G2D04

16. Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

• A. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
• B. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
• C. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
• D. A map that shows accurate land masses

G3A01

17. How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

• A. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
• B. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
• C. A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
• D. A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

G9A07

18. What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

• A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
• B. The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
• C. The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
• D. The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

G6A06

19. Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

• A. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit
• B. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate
• C. The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
• D. The resistor could overheat

G9C02

20. What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

• A. 1/2 wavelength
• B. 3/4 wavelength
• C. 1 wavelength
• D. 1/4 wavelength

G5C12

21. What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

• A. 70 microfarads
• B. 1,000 microfarads
• C. 14.3 microfarads
• D. 0.07 microfarads

G2B02

22. What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

• A. Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
• B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
• C. Immediately cease all transmissions
• D. Inform your local emergency coordinator

G9B04

23. What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

• A. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
• B. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
• C. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
• D. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

G1E04

24. Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

• A. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
• B. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
• C. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
• D. All these choices are correct

G4E04

25. Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

• A. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
• B. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
• C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
• D. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

G2A01

26. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

• A. Double sideband
• B. Suppressed sideband
• C. Upper sideband
• D. Lower sideband

G1D07

27. Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

• A. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
• B. The Universal Licensing System
• C. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
• D. The Federal Communications Commission

G6B11

28. What is an SMA connector?

• A. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
• B. A type-S to type-M adaptor
• C. A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
• D. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals

G8A03

29. What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

• A. Frequency convolution
• B. Frequency modulation
• C. Frequency transformation
• D. Frequency conversion

G4D11

30. How close to the upper edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

• A. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
• B. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
• C. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
• D. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

G5A09

31. What unit is used to measure reactance?

• A. Farad
• B. Ampere
• C. Siemens
• D. Ohm

G8B02

32. What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

• A. Image response
• B. Intermediate interference
• C. Mixer interference
• D. Quadrature response

G9D09

33. What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

• A. Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
• B. Directional transmitting for low HF bands
• C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
• D. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies

G3C04

34. What does the term "critical angle" mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

• A. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
• B. The short path azimuth of a distant station
• C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
• D. The long path azimuth of a distant station

G8C08

35. Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

• A. Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
• B. Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
• C. Upper case letters are sent with more power
• D. Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception