Practice Exam

G8C14

1. Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

• A. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
• B. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
• C. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
• D. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal

G4D05

2. How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

• A. It is 100 times more powerful
• B. It is 10 times less powerful
• C. It is 20 times less powerful
• D. It is 20 times more powerful

G9C11

3. What is a beta or hairpin match?

• A. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
• B. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
• C. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
• D. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna

G5B06

4. What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

• A. 100 watts
• B. 353.5 watts
• C. 400 watts
• D. 1.4 watts

G0A12

5. What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

• A. All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
• B. All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
• C. Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
• D. Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP

G3B07

6. What does LUF stand for?

• A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
• B. Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
• C. Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
• D. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

G1A08

7. Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

• A. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
• B. All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
• C. All HF bands
• D. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

G3A13

8. What does the A-index measure?

• A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
• B. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
• C. The long-term stability of Earth's geomagnetic field
• D. The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field

G7C13

9. What term specifies a filter's maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

• A. Ultimate rejection
• B. Rolloff
• C. Insertion loss
• D. Notch depth

G7A11

10. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

• A. Symbol 1
• B. Symbol 7
• C. Symbol 2
• D. Symbol 11

G1E03

11. What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

• A. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
• B. No third-party traffic may be transmitted
• C. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
• D. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

G1C04

12. Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

• A. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
• B. You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
• C. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
• D. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked

G8B11

13. What combination of a mixer's Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

• A. The ratio
• B. The arithmetic product
• C. The sum and difference
• D. The average

G2B08

14. What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

• A. Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
• B. Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
• C. Only SSTV contacts
• D. Only digital contacts

G2C08

15. What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

• A. SK
• B. BK
• C. AR
• D. KN

G6A01

16. What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

• A. 8.5 volts
• B. 6 volts
• C. 12 volts
• D. 10.5 volts

G3C09

17. What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?

• A. Faraday rotation
• B. Short-path
• C. Scatter
• D. Chordal hop

G4B04

18. What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

• A. An external RF oscillator
• B. The local oscillator of the transmitter
• C. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
• D. The transmitter balanced mixer output

G2A01

19. Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

• A. Lower sideband
• B. Suppressed sideband
• C. Double sideband
• D. Upper sideband

G9B04

20. What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

• A. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
• B. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
• C. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
• D. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna

G9D02

21. What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

• A. Approximately 50 ohms
• B. Very low
• C. Very high
• D. Approximately 300 ohms

G4E04

22. Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

• A. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
• B. The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
• C. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
• D. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable

G1B08

23. When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

• A. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
• B. Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
• C. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
• D. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

G1D02

24. What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

• A. None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
• B. Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
• C. Technician only
• D. General and Technician

G2E14

25. What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
• C. You may have selected the wrong baud rate
• D. You may be listening on the wrong sideband

G4A08

26. What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

• A. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
• B. Minimum SWR on the antenna
• C. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
• D. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current

G9A04

27. What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

• A. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
• B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
• C. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
• D. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance

G6B05

28. What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

• A. Large values of inductance may be obtained
• B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core

G4C11

29. What technique helps to minimize RF "hot spots" in an amateur station?

• A. Using surge suppressor power outlets
• B. Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
• C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together
• D. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure

G2D11

30. Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

• A. To be sure the contact will count for award programs
• B. To follow standard radiogram structure
• C. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
• D. To allow each station to operate according to conditions

G8A10

31. What is meant by the term "flat-topping," when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

• A. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
• B. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
• C. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed
• D. The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted

G5A06

32. How does a capacitor react to AC?

• A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
• C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
• D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

G0B11

33. Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

• A. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
• B. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
• C. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
• D. They must be bonded together with all other grounds

G5C10

34. What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

• A. 0.30 henries
• B. 30 millihenries
• C. 3.3 henries
• D. 3.3 millihenries

G7B02

35. Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

• A. Class B
• B. Class A
• C. Class C
• D. Class AB