Practice Exam

E8D05

1. What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

• A. Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
• B. Insert low-pass filters at the transmitter output
• C. Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
• D. Insert high-pass filters at the transmitter output

E7D13

2. Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator?

• A. Input voltage multiplied by input current
• B. Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
• C. Input voltage divided by output current
• D. Output voltage multiplied by output current

E5D12

3. What is reactive power?

• A. Power consumed in circuit Q
• B. Wattless, nonproductive power
• C. Power consumed by an inductor's wire resistance
• D. The power consumed in inductors and capacitors

E3B02

4. What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

• A. 1,000 miles
• B. 7,500 miles
• C. 2,500 miles
• D. 5,000 miles

E4E06

5. What type of electrical interference can be caused by computer network equipment?

• A. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
• B. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
• C. A whining-type noise that continually pulses off and on
• D. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station's receiver

E1B09

6. Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

• A. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
• B. Only stations meeting the FCC Part 97 technical standards for operation during an emergency
• C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
• D. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators

E6F06

7. Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices?

• A. Crystalline semiconductor
• B. Polyphenol acetate
• C. Argon
• D. All these choices are correct

E7H07

8. How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

• A. Increase the gain
• B. Mechanically isolate the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
• C. Reduce noise on the oscillator's power supply
• D. Use NP0 capacitors

E0A02

9. When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

• A. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
• B. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
• C. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
• D. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits

E9B11

10. What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?

• A. The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
• B. The antenna will become mechanically unstable
• C. The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
• D. Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled

E6D09

11. What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?

• A. Steel-core toroids
• B. Ferrite beads
• C. Butterworth filters
• D. Electrolytic capacitors

E5B04

12. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

• A. 220 seconds
• B. 110 seconds
• C. 440 seconds
• D. 55 seconds

E8A04

13. What is "dither" with respect to analog-to-digital converters?

• A. A method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
• B. A small amount of noise added to the input signal to reduce quantization noise
• C. An abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal
• D. An error caused by irregular quantization step size

E3C11

14. What does VOACAP software model?

• A. AC current and impedance
• B. HF propagation
• C. AC voltage and impedance
• D. VHF radio propagation

E7C11

15. Which of the following measures a filter's ability to reject signals in adjacent channels?

• A. Noise factor
• B. Phase response
• C. Shape factor
• D. Passband ripple

E9D01

16. How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled?

• A. 2 dB
• B. 4 dB
• C. 3 dB
• D. 6 dB

E6B05

17. What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?

• A. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
• B. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
• C. Low junction capacitance
• D. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage

E1A04

18. May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone?

• A. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 75-meter phone band segment
• B. No, the sideband components will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
• C. No, US stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
• D. Yes, the entire signal will be inside the SSB allocation for Extra class operators

E9C11

19. How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?

• A. Additional lobes appear at higher elevation angles
• B. Separate elevation lobes will combine into a single lobe
• C. Radiation at low angles increases
• D. Radiation at low angles decreases

E7A05

20. Which of the following circuits continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal?

• A. J-K flip-flop
• B. Monostable multivibrator
• C. T flip-flop
• D. Astable multivibrator

E6A04

21. What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

• A. Donor impurity
• B. Insulator impurity
• C. Acceptor impurity
• D. N-type impurity

E4D03

22. What creates intermodulation interference between two repeaters in close proximity?

• A. The input frequencies are harmonically related
• B. The output signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
• C. The output signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
• D. The output frequencies are harmonically related

E6E10

23. What advantage does surface-mount technology offer at RF compared to using through-hole components?

• A. Shorter circuit board traces
• B. Smaller circuit area
• C. Components have less parasitic inductance and capacitance
• D. All these choices are correct

E8B04

24. What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the highest modulating frequency is 2 kHz?

• A. 3
• B. 0.6
• C. 0.3
• D. 6

E1C08

25. What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

• A. 10 minutes
• B. 3 minutes
• C. 30 seconds
• D. 5 minutes

E1F10

26. Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

• A. Only General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators
• B. Only Amateur Extra class operators
• C. Any licensed amateur operator
• D. Only Technician, General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators

E8C08

27. How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

• A. Special binary codes provide automatic correction
• B. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
• C. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
• D. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction

E7F01

28. What is meant by "direct sampling" in software defined radios?

• A. Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
• B. A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
• C. Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
• D. I and Q signals are generated by digital processing without the use of RF amplification

E7E05

29. What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies?

• A. A de-emphasis network
• B. A pre-emphasis network
• C. A harmonic enhancer
• D. A heterodyne enhancer

E2D04

30. What technology is used for real-time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

• A. FT8
• B. APRS
• C. Bandwidth compressed LORAN
• D. PACTOR III

E2E07

31. How does Q65 differ from JT65?

• A. Keyboard-to keyboard operation is supported
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Multiple receive cycles are averaged
• D. Quadrature modulation is used

E1D11

32. Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

• A. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operators
• B. Any amateur licensee who has successfully completed the AMSAT space communications course
• C. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
• D. Only those of Amateur Extra class operators

E2B11

33. What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

• A. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
• B. To provide vertical synchronization
• C. To identify the SSTV mode being used
• D. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting

E5A10

34. What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 10 picofarads?

• A. 7.12 MHz
• B. 23.5 kHz
• C. 7.12 kHz
• D. 23.5 MHz

E7B05

35. What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

• A. Use a phase inverter in the output filter
• B. Tune both the input and output for maximum power
• C. Tune the stage for minimum loading
• D. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage

E9H05

36. What challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

• A. It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
• B. It has a bidirectional null pattern
• C. It does not have a clearly defined null
• D. All these choices are correct

E2A05

37. What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

• A. The location of the ground control station
• B. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
• C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
• D. The uplink and downlink frequency ranges

E3A13

38. Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

• A. SSB
• B. RTTY
• C. CW
• D. FM

E7G05

39. How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp audio filter?

• A. Restrict gain but increase Q
• B. Restrict both gain and Q
• C. Increase both gain and Q
• D. Restrict Q but increase gain

E6C06

40. Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

• A. Large bypass capacitance is inherent
• B. Bandwidth is very limited
• C. The input switching threshold is about twice the power supply voltage
• D. The input switching threshold is about half the power supply voltage

E9F11

41. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?

• A. A capacitive reactance
• B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• C. An inductive reactance
• D. Infinite

E9G10

42. What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

• A. SWR
• B. Points with constant reactance
• C. Frequency
• D. Points with constant resistance

E5C01

43. Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation?

• A. 0 - j100
• B. 0 + j100
• C. 100 + j0
• D. 100 - j0

E1E09

44. What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

• A. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
• B. A sentence of up to one year in prison
• C. A fine of up to $1,000 per occurrence
• D. All these choices are correct

E4C04

45. What is the noise figure of a receiver?

• A. The ratio of the noise bandwidth in hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
• B. The ratio in dB of the noise generated in the receiver to atmospheric noise
• C. The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
• D. The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise

E9E05

46. What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?

• A. Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)
• B. Purely resistive
• C. Purely reactive
• D. Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)

E9A11

47. Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating on HF?

• A. The standing wave ratio
• B. Soil conductivity
• C. Distance from the transmitter
• D. Take-off angle

E4B03

48. Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

• A. S11
• B. S21
• C. S22
• D. S12

E4A03

49. Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products generated by an SSB transmitter?

• A. Spectrum analyzer
• B. Differential resolver
• C. Network analyzer
• D. Logic analyzer

E2C02

50. Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data?

• A. ADIF
• B. ARLD
• C. NEC
• D. OCF