Practice Exam

E7G05

1. How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp audio filter?

• A. Increase both gain and Q
• B. Restrict gain but increase Q
• C. Restrict both gain and Q
• D. Restrict Q but increase gain

E4D12

2. What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 10 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a cable loss of 3 dB, a path loss of 136 dB, a receiver minimum discernable signal of -103 dBm, and a required signal-to-noise ratio of 6 dB?

• A. -14dB
• B. +14dB
• C. +8dB
• D. -8dB

E2A07

3. Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. FM and CW
• C. PSK and packet
• D. SSB and SSTV

E1A05

4. Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

• A. Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
• B. Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
• C. Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
• D. Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio license grant

E6C09

5. What is used to design the configuration of a field-programmable gate array (FPGA)?

• A. Hardware description language (HDL)
• B. Machine and assembly language
• C. An auto-router
• D. Karnaugh maps

E9E03

6. What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

• A. Delta match
• B. Gamma match
• C. T-match
• D. Stub match

E4B05

7. What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

• A. 50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
• B. Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
• C. Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
• D. 50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms

E5B06

8. What is susceptance?

• A. The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
• B. The imaginary part of admittance
• C. A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
• D. The magnetic impedance of a circuit

E2C01

9. What indicator is required to be used by US-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the US?

• A. / followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
• B. /R# where # is the district of the remote station
• C. / followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station
• D. No additional indicator is required

E4C09

10. Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?

• A. Improved receiver noise figure
• B. Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
• C. Fewer components in the receiver
• D. Reduced drift

E6E03

11. Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

• A. Silicon
• B. Gallium nitride
• C. Silicon dioxide
• D. Silicon nitride

E1F11

12. Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

• A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
• B. It must have received an Underwriters Laboratory certification for electrical safety as well as having met IEEE standard 14.101(B)
• C. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
• D. It must exhibit a gain of less than 23 dB when driven by 10 watts or less

E5C01

13. Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation?

• A. 100 - j0
• B. 0 - j100
• C. 100 + j0
• D. 0 + j100

E0A04

14. When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

• A. Each transmitter that produces 20 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
• B. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
• C. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 25 percent
• D. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded

E7D03

15. What device is used as a stable voltage reference?

• A. A digital-to-analog converter
• B. A Zener diode
• C. An analog-to-digital converter
• D. An SCR

E6B09

16. What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

• A. As a constant current source
• B. As a constant voltage source
• C. As a high-voltage rectifier
• D. As an RF detector

E6F09

17. What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

• A. The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
• B. The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
• C. The output RF power divided by the input DC power
• D. The output in lumens divided by the input power in watts

E8C09

18. Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

• A. Binary Coded Decimal Code
• B. Gray code
• C. Extended ASCII
• D. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code

E7B08

19. Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

• A. The switching device is at saturation or cutoff most of the time
• B. Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
• C. Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits
• D. Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages

E7H04

20. How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

• A. Through a capacitive divider
• B. Through a neutralizing capacitor
• C. Through a tapped coil
• D. Through link coupling

E9B06

21. What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 75 degrees
• B. 45 degrees
• C. 7.5 degrees
• D. 25 degrees

E3C09

22. What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks?

• A. Magnetic declination
• B. Digital-mode and CW signals
• C. Solar flux
• D. Electric field intensity

E9D01

23. How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled?

• A. 2 dB
• B. 4 dB
• C. 6 dB
• D. 3 dB

E9C09

24. Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

• A. A multi-band trap antenna
• B. A wire antenna center-fed through a specific length of open-wire line connected to a balun and coaxial feed line
• C. A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
• D. A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun

E4A02

25. Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

• A. SWR and time
• B. Signal amplitude and frequency
• C. Signal amplitude and time
• D. SWR and frequency

E7A04

26. How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16?

• A. 16
• B. 4
• C. 6
• D. 8

E9G06

27. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

• A. Polar axis
• B. Reactance axis
• C. Impedance axis
• D. Prime axis

E1E04

28. What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner?

• A. The prospective VE must obtain accreditation from the FCC
• B. A VEC must confirm that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
• C. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
• D. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted

E5D05

29. What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF?

• A. Dielectric leakage
• B. Shunt capacitance
• C. Inductance
• D. Skin effect

E7C11

30. Which of the following measures a filter's ability to reject signals in adjacent channels?

• A. Phase response
• B. Noise factor
• C. Passband ripple
• D. Shape factor

E8D01

31. Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

• A. Built-in error correction codes minimize interference
• B. Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
• C. The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
• D. If the receiver detects interference, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

E8A11

32. Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter?

• A. Total harmonic distortion
• B. Power factor
• C. Peak envelope power
• D. Reciprocal mixing

E5A13

33. What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

• A. Internal voltages increase
• B. Parasitic effects are minimized
• C. Fewer components are needed for the same performance
• D. Phase shift can become uncontrolled

E2E02

34. Which of the following synchronizes WSJT-X digital mode transmit/receive timing?

• A. Synchronization of computer clocks
• B. Sync-field transmission
• C. Sync-pulse timing
• D. Alignment of frequency shifts

E9F05

35. What is microstrip?

• A. Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
• B. Special shielding material designed for microwave frequencies
• C. Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies
• D. Miniature coax used for low power applications

E1B07

36. To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

• A. FAA tower height limits
• B. Use of wireless devices in vehicles
• C. Homeowners associations
• D. State and local zoning

E7F13

37. What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

• A. Select the point at which baseband signals are generated
• B. Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
• C. To reduce excess signal pressure levels
• D. Provide access for debugging software

E6A12

38. What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes between a MOSFET gate and its source or drain?

• A. To protect the gate from static damage
• B. To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
• C. To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
• D. To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage

E2B05

39. Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast-scan TV transmissions?

• A. Vestigial sideband reduces the bandwidth while increasing the fidelity of low frequency video components
• B. Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
• C. The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
• D. The vestigial sideband contains chroma information

E2D03

40. Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications?

• A. Q65
• B. WSPR
• C. PACTOR III
• D. MSK144

E1C06

41. Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

• A. You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
• B. You must have a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 16-1048
• C. You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
• D. The US embassy must approve of your operation

E6D06

42. What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

• A. Reactivity
• B. Resistance
• C. Permeability
• D. Permittivity

E1D02

43. Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages?

• A. Auxiliary relay links carrying repeater audio
• B. Telecommand signals to terrestrial repeaters
• C. Telecommand signals from a space telecommand station
• D. Mesh network backbone nodes

E9H09

44. What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?

• A. Bidirectional
• B. Cardioid
• C. Omnidirectional
• D. Hyperbolic

E8B02

45. How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?

• A. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
• B. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
• C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
• D. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases

E9A08

46. Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone?

• A. 900 MHz
• B. 3.4 GHz
• C. 5.8 GHz
• D. 2.4 GHz

E7E06

47. Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers?

• A. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
• B. For higher efficiency
• C. To remove third-order distortion products
• D. To reduce impulse noise reception

E3B09

48. At what time of year is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

• A. Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
• B. Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
• C. Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice
• D. Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice

E3A12

49. What is most likely to result in auroral propagation?

• A. Quiet geomagnetic conditions
• B. Meteor showers
• C. Extreme low-pressure areas in polar regions
• D. Severe geomagnetic storms

E4E03

50. Which of the following types of noise are removed by a noise blanker?

• A. Impulse noise
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Broadband white noise
• D. Hum and buzz