Practice Exam

E1C07

1. What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630- or 2200-meter bands?

• A. A special endorsement must be requested from the FCC
• B. Operators must inform the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of their call sign and coordinates of the station
• C. An environmental impact statement must be filed with the Department of the Interior
• D. Operators must inform the FAA of their intent to operate, giving their call sign and distance to the nearest runway

E1B02

2. Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow-scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

• A. 20 kHz
• B. 10 kHz
• C. 3 kHz
• D. 15 kHz

E2B10

3. What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

• A. Tone amplitude
• B. Tone frequency
• C. Sync frequency
• D. Sync amplitude

E2A04

4. What is meant by the "mode" of an amateur radio satellite?

• A. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
• B. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
• C. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
• D. Whether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit

E7H08

5. Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

• A. Wirewound resistors
• B. Non-inductive resistors
• C. NP0 capacitors
• D. Toroidal inductors

E3C12

6. Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

• A. A coronal mass ejection impact or a solar flare has occurred
• B. Long-path propagation on the higher HF bands is likely
• C. A temperature inversion has occurred
• D. Transequatorial propagation on 6 meters is likely

E5A13

7. What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

• A. Phase shift can become uncontrolled
• B. Internal voltages increase
• C. Fewer components are needed for the same performance
• D. Parasitic effects are minimized

E4C04

8. What is the noise figure of a receiver?

• A. The ratio in dB of the noise generated in the receiver to atmospheric noise
• B. The ratio of the noise bandwidth in hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
• C. The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
• D. The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise

E8B01

9. What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

• A. The modulating signal frequency divided by the bandwidth of the transmitted signal
• B. The bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency
• C. The ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
• D. The ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency

E5B06

10. What is susceptance?

• A. A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
• B. The magnetic impedance of a circuit
• C. The imaginary part of admittance
• D. The ratio of magnetic field to electric field

E6F02

11. What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it?

• A. Reflectivity increases
• B. Resistance decreases
• C. Reflectivity decreases
• D. Resistance increases

E6E07

12. What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMICs?

• A. Circular waveguide
• B. Miniature coax
• C. Parallel wire
• D. Microstrip

E8D09

13. What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

• A. +10 dB
• B. +15 dB
• C. -30 dB
• D. +5 dB

E5C03

14. Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

• A. A positive 90 degree phase angle
• B. A negative 45 degree phase angle
• C. A negative 90 degree phase angle
• D. A positive 45 degree phase angle

E2D10

15. What does the packet path WIDE3-1 designate?

• A. Three stations are allowed on frequency, one transmitting at a time
• B. Three digipeater hops are requested with one remaining
• C. Three internet gateway stations may receive one transmission
• D. Three subcarriers are permitted, subcarrier one is being used

E4D08

16. What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

• A. Lack of neutralization
• B. Positive feedback
• C. Negative feedback
• D. Nonlinear circuits or devices

E1D10

17. Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station?

• A. Any amateur station approved by AMSAT
• B. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
• C. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee
• D. All these choices are correct

E9A04

18. Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

• A. Antenna height
• B. The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
• C. Transmission line length
• D. The input power level

E1E04

19. What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner?

• A. A VEC must confirm that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
• B. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
• C. The prospective VE must obtain accreditation from the FCC
• D. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

E4E10

20. Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference?

• A. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
• B. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence

E1A02

21. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

• A. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
• B. 300 Hz above the lower band edge
• C. The exact lower band edge
• D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge

E7A03

22. Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

• A. An OR gate
• B. An XOR gate
• C. A multiplexer
• D. A flip-flop

E1F02

23. What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?

• A. The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed US Amateur Extra class license privileges
• B. Full privileges, up to and including those of the Amateur Extra class license, on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands
• C. Full privileges of the General class license on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands
• D. None, they must obtain a US license

E5D07

24. What combines to create the self-resonance of a component?

• A. The component's electrical length and impedance
• B. The component's inductance and capacitance
• C. The component's resistance and reactance
• D. The component's nominal and parasitic reactance

E9H04

25. What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small-loop direction-finding antenna?

• A. It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
• B. It increases signal strength by providing a better match to the feed line
• C. It eliminates unbalanced capacitive coupling to the antenna's surroundings, improving the depth of its nulls
• D. It adds capacitive loading, increasing the bandwidth of the antenna

E4B10

26. Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

• A. Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
• B. Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
• C. Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
• D. Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer

E6B07

27. What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current?

• A. Charge carrier depletion
• B. Insufficient forward voltage
• C. Excessive junction temperature
• D. Excessive inverse voltage

E6D04

28. Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers?

• A. To increase the cutoff frequency by reducing capacitance
• B. To simplify assembly during manufacturing
• C. To reduce power loss from eddy currents in the core
• D. To save cost by reducing the amount of magnetic material

E7C02

29. What is the frequency response of a T-network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor?

• A. Band-pass
• B. High-pass
• C. Notch
• D. Low-pass

E8C01

30. What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM?

• A. A technique for digital data compression used in digital television which removes redundancy in the data by comparing bit amplitudes
• B. Transmission of data by modulating the amplitude of two carriers of the same frequency but 90 degrees out of phase
• C. A method of performing single sideband modulation by shifting the phase of the carrier and modulation components of the signal
• D. A technique for analog modulation of television video signals using phase modulation and compression

E9F10

31. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• B. An inductive reactance
• C. Zero
• D. A capacitive reactance

E6C03

32. What is tri-state logic?

• A. Logic devices with 0, 1, and high-impedance output states
• B. Logic devices that utilize ternary math
• C. A counter with eight states
• D. Logic with three output impedances which can be selected to better match the load impedance

E8A03

33. Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain?

• A. Discrete impulses in time order
• B. Frequency at different times
• C. Amplitude at different times
• D. Power at intervals of phase

E9B04

34. What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 15 dB
• B. 3 dB
• C. 38 dB
• D. 28 dB

E7B11

35. In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

• A. Emitter bypass
• B. Self bias
• C. Output load resistor
• D. Fixed bias

E7G07

36. What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

• A. 24
• B. 47
• C. 4700
• D. 0.21

E9D06

37. What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?

• A. It is increased
• B. It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at the feed point
• C. It is decreased
• D. It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at a voltage maximum point

E6A09

38. What is a depletion-mode field-effect transistor (FET)?

• A. An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
• B. An FET that exhibits very high electron mobility due to a lack of holes in the N-type material
• C. An FET for which holes are the majority carriers
• D. An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

E7E09

39. What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high?

• A. Automatic limiting occurs
• B. Excessive AGC voltage levels are generated
• C. Mixer blanking occurs
• D. Spurious mixer products are generated

E2E12

40. How do ALE stations establish contact?

• A. ALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on
• B. ALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use
• C. ALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received
• D. ALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter

E9C11

41. How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?

• A. Additional lobes appear at higher elevation angles
• B. Separate elevation lobes will combine into a single lobe
• C. Radiation at low angles increases
• D. Radiation at low angles decreases

E7F10

42. What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct-sampling software defined radio (SDR)?

• A. Sample rate
• B. Integral non-linearity
• C. Differential non-linearity
• D. Sample width in bits

E9G06

43. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

• A. Reactance axis
• B. Polar axis
• C. Impedance axis
• D. Prime axis

E7D14

44. What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series?

• A. Provide a minimum load on the supply
• B. Equalize the voltage across each capacitor
• C. Discharge the capacitors when voltage is removed
• D. All these choices are correct

E9E07

45. What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line?

• A. Characteristic impedance
• B. Velocity factor
• C. Dielectric constant
• D. Reflection coefficient

E0A08

46. What does SAR measure?

• A. Signal amplification rating
• B. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
• C. The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
• D. Signal attenuation ratio

E3B10

47. What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation?

• A. The signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop propagation, which uses Earth as a reflector
• B. The MUF for chordal-hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
• C. Atmospheric noise is reduced in the direction of chordal-hop propagation
• D. Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords

E3A02

48. What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

• A. The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
• B. A fluttery, irregular fading
• C. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
• D. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal

E2C12

49. What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corresponding change in the transmitted signal?

• A. Latency
• B. Hang time
• C. Anti-VOX
• D. Jitter

E4A08

50. Which of the following is used to measure SWR?

• A. Directional wattmeter
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Vector network analyzer
• D. Antenna analyzer