Practice Exam

E7C03

1. What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

• A. Higher efficiency
• B. Greater transformation range
• C. Lower losses
• D. Greater harmonic suppression

E6B09

2. What is a common use for point contact diodes?

• A. As a high voltage rectifier
• B. As an RF detector
• C. As a constant voltage source
• D. As a constant current source

E5D15

3. What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

• A. 0.5
• B. 0.866
• C. 0.707
• D. 1.0

E1E06

4. Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

• A. The FCC
• B. The VE session manager
• C. Each administering VE
• D. The VEC coordinating the session

E7E06

5. Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

• A. To remove third-order distortion products
• B. To reduce impulse noise reception
• C. For higher efficiency
• D. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation

E7D10

6. What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

• A. It provides fixed bias for Q1
• B. It provides brute force filtering of the output
• C. It prevents self-oscillation
• D. It clips the peaks of the ripple

E4E07

7. How can you determine if line noise interference is being generated within your home?

• A. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
• B. By checking the power line voltage with a time domain reflectometer
• C. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
• D. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery operated radio

E7H06

8. Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

• A. Negative feedback and balanced feedback
• B. Colpitts and Hartley
• C. Pierce and Zener
• D. Armstrong and deForest

E6D04

9. What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video camera?

• A. It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
• B. It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges corresponding to the image
• C. It stores photogenerated charges as signals corresponding to pixels
• D. It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF signal

E5A02

10. What is resonance in an electrical circuit?

• A. The highest frequency that will pass current
• B. The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
• C. The lowest frequency that will pass current
• D. The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance

E4D12

11. What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

• A. Cross-modulation interference
• B. Quieting
• C. Squelch gain rollback
• D. Desensitization

E6F07

12. What is a solid state relay?

• A. A passive delay line
• B. A device that uses semiconductor devices to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
• C. A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
• D. A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed

E4C03

13. What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?

• A. Desensitization
• B. Capture effect
• C. Cross-modulation interference
• D. Frequency discrimination

E7F09

14. What is the purpose of a frequency counter?

• A. To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency
• B. To display all frequency components of a transmitted signal
• C. To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
• D. To provide a digital representation of the frequency of a signal

E1A05

15. What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

• A. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
• B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
• C. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
• D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole

E9C13

16. What is the main effect of placing a vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?

• A. It changes the impedance angle of the matching network
• B. It causes increased SWR
• C. It reduces low-angle radiation
• D. It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna

E6E08

17. How is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?

• A. MMICs require no operating bias
• B. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
• C. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
• D. Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN) lead

E3C03

18. Where in the ionosphere does Aurora activity occur?

• A. In the E-region
• B. In the F2-region
• C. In the D-region
• D. In the F1-region

E0A11

19. Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

• A. Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits
• B. Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
• C. Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
• D. Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge

E7B18

20. Which of the following is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

• A. Low bandwidth
• B. High filament voltage
• C. High power gain
• D. Low input impedance

E9F09

21. What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

• A. 10 meters
• B. 24 meters
• C. 6.9 meters
• D. 50 meters

E8B02

22. How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency (the modulated frequency)?

• A. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
• B. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
• C. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
• D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency

E7G02

23. What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

• A. Partial cancellation of the signal over a range of frequencies
• B. A reduction in high frequency response
• C. Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
• D. An echo caused by a long time delay

E4B08

24. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?

• A. High reluctance input
• B. Low impedance input
• C. Low reluctance input
• D. High impedance input

E5B02

25. What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

• A. One time constant
• B. An exponential discharge rate of one
• C. A discharge factor of one
• D. One discharge period

E6A11

26. In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

• A. 3
• B. 1
• C. 2
• D. 6

E1D06

27. Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements?

• A. All of these choices are correct
• B. The space station must be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
• C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
• D. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years

E4A02

28. Which of the following parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?

• A. Time
• B. Q
• C. SWR
• D. Frequency

E1C06

29. Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

• A. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
• B. A control operator must be present at the control point
• C. A control operator need not be present at the control point
• D. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station

E9B06

30. If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly retuned, what usually occurs?

• A. The front-to-back ratio increases
• B. The gain increases
• C. The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly
• D. The SWR decreases

E9E04

31. What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

• A. To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
• B. To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
• C. To provide a rejection notch to prevent the radiation of harmonics
• D. To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network

E5C16

32. In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?

• A. 5.03 E-06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
• B. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
• C. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
• D. 19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees

E8C13

33. What is one advantage of using JT-65 coding?

• A. The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise ratio
• B. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
• C. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
• D. Easily copied by ear if necessary

E8A05

34. What would be the most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?

• A. By using a grid dip meter
• B. By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
• C. By using an absorption wavemeter
• D. By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor

E9H05

35. What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

• A. It is practical for use only on VHF bands
• B. It is non-rotatable
• C. It has a bidirectional pattern
• D. It receives equally well in all directions

E2C04

36. On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged?

• A. 14.020 MHz
• B. 146.52 MHz
• C. 28.330 MHz
• D. 3.525 MHz

E7A15

37. What is a D flip-flop?

• A. A dynamic memory storage element
• B. A differential class D amplifier used as a flip-flop circuit
• C. A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when the clock signal transitions from low to high
• D. A flip-flop whose output is capable of both positive and negative voltage excursions

E9D13

38. What happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna as the frequency of operation is lowered?

• A. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
• B. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
• C. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
• D. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases

E2B11

39. What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code transmitted as part of an SSTV transmission?

• A. To identify the SSTV mode being used
• B. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
• C. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
• D. To provide vertical synchronization

E2A06

40. On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V?

• A. 29.5 to 29.7 MHz
• B. 435-438 MHz
• C. 144-146 MHz
• D. 50.0-50.2 MHz

E1B12

41. What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation?

• A. 2.0
• B. 1.0
• C. .5
• D. 3.0

E1F11

42. Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

• A. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
• B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
• C. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
• D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power

E2D10

43. How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?

• A. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
• B. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
• C. All of these choices are correct
• D. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital

E8D04

44. What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?

• A. 18 watts
• B. 9 watts
• C. 16 watts
• D. 4.5 watts

E9A15

45. What is meant by the radiation resistance of an antenna?

• A. The combined losses of the antenna elements and feed line
• B. The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be able to radiate a signal
• C. The specific impedance of the antenna
• D. The value of a resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna

E9G01

46. Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

• A. Impedance along transmission lines
• B. Radio propagation
• C. Antenna radiation pattern
• D. Radiation resistance

E3A06

47. What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?

• A. 144.100 - 144.300 MHz
• B. 145.000 - 145.100 MHz
• C. 144.000 - 144.001 MHz
• D. 144.000 - 144.100 MHz

E3B09

48. At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?

• A. When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station
• B. When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations
• C. At sunrise and sunset
• D. When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station

E2E04

49. What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears?

• A. The mark and space signal have been inverted
• B. The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
• C. Selective fading has occurred
• D. One of the signal filters has saturated

E6C07

50. In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for an AND gate?

• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 3
• D. 1