Practice Exam

E8D05

1. What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

• A. Insert high-pass filters at the transmitter output
• B. Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
• C. Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
• D. Insert low-pass filters at the transmitter output

E7D03

2. What device is used as a stable voltage reference?

• A. An SCR
• B. A digital-to-analog converter
• C. An analog-to-digital converter
• D. A Zener diode

E4E01

3. What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

• A. Excessive ringing
• B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
• C. Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
• D. All these choices are correct

E2C03

4. From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

• A. 70 centimeters
• B. 6 meters
• C. 30 meters
• D. 33 centimeters

E4C13

5. What is reciprocal mixing?

• A. Two out-of-band signals mixing to generate an in-band spurious signal
• B. Local oscillator phase noise mixing with adjacent strong signals to create interference to desired signals
• C. Two digital signals combining from alternate time slots
• D. In-phase signals cancelling in a mixer resulting in loss of receiver sensitivity

E4A11

6. Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

• A. Velocity factor
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Resonant frequency of a tuned circuit
• D. Cable length

E7C04

7. How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

• A. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
• B. Reactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances
• C. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
• D. It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to the desired value

E1A10

8. If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

• A. The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
• B. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
• C. The amateur station must operate only in specific segments of the amateur service HF and VHF bands
• D. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply

E4D07

9. Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

• A. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
• B. Insert attenuation before the first RF stage
• C. Increase the receiver's front-end gain
• D. Raise the receiver's IF frequency

E9A06

10. What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

• A. 2,000 watts
• B. 300 watts
• C. 126 watts
• D. 317 watts

E2B11

11. What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

• A. To provide vertical synchronization
• B. To identify the SSTV mode being used
• C. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
• D. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images

E5C07

12. Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coordinates?

• A. On a line through the origin, slanted at 45 degrees
• B. On a horizontal line, offset vertically above the horizontal axis
• C. On the horizontal axis
• D. On the vertical axis

E2A02

13. Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Doppler shift is reduced because the uplink and downlink shifts are in opposite directions
• C. Upper sideband on the uplink becomes lower sideband on the downlink, and vice versa
• D. Signal position in the band is reversed

E9H08

14. What is the function of a sense antenna?

• A. It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
• B. It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
• C. It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
• D. It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna to provide a null in only one direction

E9E07

15. What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line?

• A. Velocity factor
• B. Dielectric constant
• C. Characteristic impedance
• D. Reflection coefficient

E9G08

16. How is a Smith chart normalized?

• A. Reassign the prime center's impedance value
• B. Reassign the resistance axis with reactance values
• C. Reassign the reactance axis with resistance values
• D. Reassign the prime center to the reactance axis

E6F10

17. What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells?

• A. Selenium
• B. Silicon
• C. Cadmium sulfide
• D. Indium arsenide

E9D01

18. How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled?

• A. 6 dB
• B. 2 dB
• C. 4 dB
• D. 3 dB

E8B06

19. What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

• A. 2.14
• B. 0.214
• C. 0.47
• D. 47

E7H13

20. Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

• A. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
• B. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Use a GPS signal reference

E5A01

21. What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire circuit?

• A. Low quality factor (Q)
• B. Resonance
• C. Resistance
• D. Capacitance

E7A02

22. What is the function of a decade counter?

• A. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
• B. It produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse
• C. It produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
• D. It decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display

E2E08

23. Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

• A. PSK31
• B. RTTY
• C. AMTOR
• D. PACTOR

E5B04

24. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

• A. 55 seconds
• B. 110 seconds
• C. 220 seconds
• D. 440 seconds

E6A02

25. Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

• A. Bipolar
• B. N-type
• C. Insulated gate
• D. P-type

E6D10

26. What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

• A. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
• B. Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
• C. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
• D. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

E2D05

27. What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode?

• A. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
• B. Decodes signals with a very low signal-to-noise ratio
• C. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
• D. Symbol rate is 65 baud

E7B06

28. What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

• A. High power gain
• B. Low bandwidth
• C. Low input impedance
• D. High electrostatic damage protection

E6B01

29. What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

• A. A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
• B. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
• C. A negative resistance region
• D. A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current

E0A11

30. To what should lanyards be attached while climbing?

• A. Tower legs
• B. Antenna mast
• C. Tower rungs
• D. Guy brackets

E6E04

31. Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs?

• A. 450 ohms
• B. 75 ohms
• C. 300 ohms
• D. 50 ohms

E4B11

32. Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?

• A. Output impedance
• B. Reflection coefficient
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Input impedance

E7G02

33. What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7-3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor?

• A. Band-pass filter
• B. High-pass filter
• C. Low-pass filter
• D. Notch filter

E9B09

34. What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas?

• A. Mutual impedance analysis
• B. Method of Moments
• C. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
• D. Graphical analysis

E3B08

35. How does the maximum range of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

• A. It peaks at roughly 8 MHz
• B. It increases
• C. It stays the same
• D. It decreases

E1C08

36. What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

• A. 10 minutes
• B. 3 minutes
• C. 30 seconds
• D. 5 minutes

E8A09

37. How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?

• A. 256
• B. 256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
• C. 8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
• D. 8

E3A05

38. How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented?

• A. They are tangential
• B. They are at right angles
• C. They are parallel
• D. They are 90 degrees out of phase

E7F04

39. Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing?

• A. Varying quartz crystal characteristics are emulated in digital form
• B. Signals are combined in quadrature phase relationship
• C. A frequency synthesizer removes unwanted sidebands
• D. Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits

E1F05

40. Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

• A. 420 MHz - 430 MHz
• B. 53 MHz - 54 MHz
• C. 440 MHz - 450 MHz
• D. 222 MHz - 223 MHz

E7E03

41. What is a frequency discriminator?

• A. An FM generator circuit
• B. A circuit for filtering closely adjacent signals
• C. An automatic band-switching circuit
• D. A circuit for detecting FM signals

E8C15

42. What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?

• A. Acting as store-and-forward digipeaters
• B. Discovery and link establishment protocols
• C. Custom code plugs for the local trunking systems
• D. Forward error correction and Viterbi codes

E1B01

43. Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

• A. An amateur station transmission made without the proper call sign identification
• B. An emission outside the signal's necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
• C. Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station and whose levels exceed 40 dB below the fundamental power level
• D. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient

E1D07

44. Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations?

• A. 30 meters, 17 meters, and 10 meters
• B. Satellite operation is permitted on all HF bands
• C. Only 10 meters
• D. 40 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

E9F11

45. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?

• A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• B. An inductive reactance
• C. Infinite
• D. A capacitive reactance

E6C01

46. What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

• A. To increase the sensitivity
• B. To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals
• C. To cause the output to continually change states
• D. To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signals

E3C05

47. What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charged particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

• A. Southward
• B. Northward
• C. Westward
• D. Eastward

E9C09

48. Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

• A. A wire antenna center-fed through a specific length of open-wire line connected to a balun and coaxial feed line
• B. A multi-band trap antenna
• C. A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun
• D. A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops

E5D09

49. What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors?

• A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
• B. Energy is stored in magnetic or electric fields, but power is not dissipated
• C. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
• D. It is canceled by Coulomb forces in the capacitor and inductor

E1E02

50. Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of questions for all US amateur license examinations?

• A. The FCC
• B. The VEs
• C. The ARRL
• D. The VECs