Practice Exam

E6D01

1. What is piezoelectricity?

• A. A characteristic of materials that generate a voltage when stressed and that flex when a voltage is applied
• B. The ability of materials to generate electromagnetic waves of a certain frequency when voltage is applied
• C. A characteristic of materials that have an index of refraction which depends on the polarization of the electromagnetic wave passing through it
• D. The ability of materials to generate voltage when an electromagnetic wave of a certain frequency is applied

E3B11

2. At what time of day is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

• A. Between sunset and midnight
• B. Between sunrise and sunset
• C. Between midnight and sunrise
• D. Between sunset and sunrise

E1D04

3. Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

• A. Call sign
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator
• D. The output power of the balloon transmitter

E9H09

4. What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?

• A. Hyperbolic
• B. Cardioid
• C. Omnidirectional
• D. Bidirectional

E9D07

5. What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna?

• A. Greater structural strength
• B. Improved radiation efficiency
• C. Lower Q
• D. Higher losses

E4A02

6. Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

• A. SWR and frequency
• B. Signal amplitude and time
• C. SWR and time
• D. Signal amplitude and frequency

E7F08

7. What is the function of decimation?

• A. Removing unnecessary significant digits
• B. Converting data to binary-coded decimal form
• C. Attenuating the signal
• D. Reducing the effective sample rate by removing samples

E4B03

8. Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

• A. S12
• B. S22
• C. S11
• D. S21

E2C10

9. Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. To separate the calling stations from the DX station
• C. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
• D. To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference

E7C08

10. Which of the following is most frequently used as a band-pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers?

• A. A finite impulse response filter
• B. A swinging choke filter
• C. A helical filter
• D. A Sallen-Key filter

E3C03

11. Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A-index or K-index is elevated?

• A. NVIS
• B. Transequatorial
• C. Sporadic-E
• D. Through the auroral oval

E5D11

12. How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

• A. 100 watts
• B. 70.7 watts
• C. 200 watts
• D. 141.4 watts

E9C07

13. What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire half-wave folded dipole antenna?

• A. 450 ohms
• B. 72 ohms
• C. 50 ohms
• D. 300 ohms

E9G06

14. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

• A. Reactance axis
• B. Prime axis
• C. Impedance axis
• D. Polar axis

E7A02

15. What is the function of a decade counter?

• A. It produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse
• B. It produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
• C. It decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display
• D. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display

E1A09

16. Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630-meter band?

• A. 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• B. 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• C. 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• D. 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)

E4E01

17. What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

• A. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Excessive ringing
• D. Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier

E5C11

18. Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

• A. Point 3
• B. Point 1
• C. Point 7
• D. Point 8

E5A13

19. What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

• A. Parasitic effects are minimized
• B. Internal voltages increase
• C. Phase shift can become uncontrolled
• D. Fewer components are needed for the same performance

E7B02

20. What is a Class D amplifier?

• A. An amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
• B. An amplifier biased to be relatively free from distortion
• C. An amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
• D. A low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity

E2D03

21. Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications?

• A. WSPR
• B. MSK144
• C. Q65
• D. PACTOR III

E8A06

22. What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

• A. 25 to 1
• B. 2.5 to 1
• C. 13 to 1
• D. 1 to 1

E2B07

23. Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB-T signals?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. AM and OOK
• C. QAM and QPSK
• D. FM and FSK

E7D11

24. What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output?

• A. Prevent discharge when panel is not illuminated
• B. Maintain voltage with varying illumination levels
• C. Reduce AC ripple on the output
• D. Convert the panel's output from DC to AC

E7H12

25. Which of the following ensures that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

• A. Bias the crystal at a specified current
• B. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
• C. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
• D. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage

E9B09

26. What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas?

• A. Mutual impedance analysis
• B. Graphical analysis
• C. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
• D. Method of Moments

E2A01

27. What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

• A. From north to south
• B. From west to east
• C. From east to west
• D. From south to north

E6A01

28. In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?

• A. In very low-frequency RF circuits
• B. In high-power audio circuits
• C. In high-current rectifier circuits
• D. In microwave circuits

E8B05

29. What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

• A. 6
• B. 0.6
• C. 1.67
• D. 0.167

E1B09

30. Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

• A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
• B. Only stations meeting the FCC Part 97 technical standards for operation during an emergency
• C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
• D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served

E5B02

31. What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

• A. B
• B. G
• C. X
• D. Y

E9A08

32. Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone?

• A. 900 MHz
• B. 2.4 GHz
• C. 3.4 GHz
• D. 5.8 GHz

E4C09

33. Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?

• A. Fewer components in the receiver
• B. Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
• C. Reduced drift
• D. Improved receiver noise figure

E6E09

34. Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range?

• A. Surface mount
• B. Axial lead
• C. TO-220
• D. Radial lead

E6F10

35. What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells?

• A. Selenium
• B. Cadmium sulfide
• C. Indium arsenide
• D. Silicon

E6C07

36. What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

• A. A resistor connected to an op-amp output that prevents signals from exceeding the power supply voltage
• B. A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
• C. A resistor that ensures that an oscillator frequency does not drift
• D. A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks

E6B08

37. Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?

• A. Electrolytic rectifier
• B. Thermionic emission diode
• C. Metal-semiconductor junction
• D. PIN junction

E2E07

38. How does Q65 differ from JT65?

• A. Multiple receive cycles are averaged
• B. Quadrature modulation is used
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Keyboard-to keyboard operation is supported

E1C06

39. Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

• A. You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
• B. The US embassy must approve of your operation
• C. You must have a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 16-1048
• D. You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign

E9F08

40. Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

• A. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has higher velocity factor
• B. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower loss per unit of length
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower safe maximum operating voltage

E7G12

41. What is an operational amplifier?

• A. An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
• B. A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
• C. A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
• D. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance

E0A08

42. What does SAR measure?

• A. The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
• B. Signal attenuation ratio
• C. Signal amplification rating
• D. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body

E7E11

43. Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?

• A. Product detector
• B. Phase comparator
• C. Discriminator
• D. Phase detector

E1F07

44. When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

• A. When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $25
• B. When neither the amateur nor their employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
• C. When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $50
• D. At no time

E4D06

45. What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

• A. Cross modulation interference
• B. Desensitization
• C. Quieting
• D. Reciprocal mixing

E8C05

46. What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?

• A. 26 Hz
• B. 13 Hz
• C. 52 Hz
• D. 104 Hz

E8D05

47. What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

• A. Insert low-pass filters at the transmitter output
• B. Insert high-pass filters at the transmitter output
• C. Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
• D. Increase keying waveform rise and fall times

E3A06

48. What should be done to continue a long-distance contact when the MUF for that path decreases due to darkness?

• A. Change to an antenna with a higher takeoff angle
• B. Switch to a higher frequency HF band
• C. Change to an antenna with greater beam width
• D. Switch to a lower frequency HF band

E1E05

49. What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

• A. Return the application document to the examinee
• B. Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
• C. Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
• D. Destroy the application form

E9E04

50. What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match?

• A. To cancel unwanted inductive reactance
• B. To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
• C. To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
• D. To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value