Practice Exam

E9D03

1. What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip?

• A. As low as possible on the vertical radiator
• B. At a voltage null
• C. At a voltage maximum
• D. Near the center of the vertical radiator

E5D10

2. As a conductor's diameter increases, what is the effect on its electrical length?

• A. It varies randomly
• B. It decreases
• C. Thickness has no effect on electrical length
• D. It increases

E8D10

3. What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

• A. Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
• B. Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
• C. Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
• D. Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code

E7B07

4. Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

• A. Increased overall intelligibility
• B. Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
• C. Reduced third-order intermodulation
• D. Reduced intermodulation products

E8C14

5. What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network?

• A. Talk group
• B. Email
• C. Trust server
• D. Internet Protocol (IP)

E7H01

6. What are three common oscillator circuits?

• A. Pierce, Fenner, and Beane
• B. Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce
• C. Taft, Hartley, and Pierce
• D. Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback

E7C02

7. What is the frequency response of a T-network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor?

• A. High-pass
• B. Low-pass
• C. Notch
• D. Band-pass

E2C12

8. What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corresponding change in the transmitted signal?

• A. Latency
• B. Hang time
• C. Anti-VOX
• D. Jitter

E9H09

9. What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?

• A. Bidirectional
• B. Omnidirectional
• C. Hyperbolic
• D. Cardioid

E3A09

10. Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor-scatter communications?

• A. 220 MHz - 450 MHz
• B. 1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
• C. 10 MHz - 14 MHz
• D. 28 MHz - 148 MHz

E4A09

11. Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Minimize the length of the probe's ground connection
• C. Never use a high-impedance probe to measure a low-impedance circuit
• D. Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit

E9G07

12. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

• A. The reactance axis
• B. The resistance axis
• C. The current axis
• D. The voltage axis

E2B06

13. What is vestigial sideband modulation?

• A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
• B. A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
• C. Narrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
• D. Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation

E6C01

14. What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

• A. To cause the output to continually change states
• B. To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals
• C. To increase the sensitivity
• D. To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signals

E4D10

15. What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

• A. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
• B. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
• C. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
• D. A pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals

E1C07

16. What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630- or 2200-meter bands?

• A. An environmental impact statement must be filed with the Department of the Interior
• B. Operators must inform the FAA of their intent to operate, giving their call sign and distance to the nearest runway
• C. A special endorsement must be requested from the FCC
• D. Operators must inform the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of their call sign and coordinates of the station

E7G10

17. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

• A. 1
• B. 76
• C. 38
• D. 0.03

E1D01

18. What is the definition of telemetry?

• A. Two-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
• B. Two-way transmissions of data
• C. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
• D. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument

E4B05

19. What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

• A. 50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
• B. Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
• C. Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
• D. 50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable

E9C06

20. What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long-wire antenna?

• A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
• B. It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
• C. It decreases the ground loss
• D. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization

E0A06

21. Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz?

• A. Ground reflections and scattering cause the field strength to vary with location
• B. E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
• C. The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
• D. All these choices are correct

E8A01

22. What technique shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics?

• A. Fourier analysis
• B. Differential analysis
• C. Numerical analysis
• D. Vector analysis

E2D09

23. What type of modulation is used by JT65?

• A. PSK
• B. QAM
• C. Multitone AFSK
• D. RTTY

E9E11

24. What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines?

• A. To prevent harmonic radiation from the transmitter
• B. To create a low-angle radiation pattern
• C. To allow single-band antennas to operate on other bands
• D. To control the antenna's radiation pattern

E2A10

25. What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

• A. LEO
• B. Geostationary
• C. Geomagnetic
• D. HEO

E3C04

26. What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent?

• A. Duration of long-delayed echoes
• B. Critical frequency for vertical transmissions
• C. Geomagnetic field stability
• D. North-south strength of the interplanetary magnetic field

E5C01

27. Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation?

• A. 100 + j0
• B. 0 + j100
• C. 0 - j100
• D. 100 - j0

E7F04

28. Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing?

• A. A frequency synthesizer removes unwanted sidebands
• B. Signals are combined in quadrature phase relationship
• C. Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
• D. Varying quartz crystal characteristics are emulated in digital form

E1E09

29. What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

• A. A sentence of up to one year in prison
• B. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
• C. A fine of up to $1,000 per occurrence
• D. All these choices are correct

E4C11

30. Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?

• A. Atmospheric noise is generally greater than internally generated noise even after attenuation
• B. The attenuator has a noise filter to suppress interference
• C. The attenuator has a low-pass filter to increase the strength of lower frequency signals
• D. Signals are attenuated separately from the noise

E6F03

31. What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

• A. An LED and a phototransistor
• B. A frequency-modulated helium-neon laser
• C. An amplitude-modulated helium-neon laser
• D. A lens and a photomultiplier

E6A01

32. In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?

• A. In microwave circuits
• B. In high-power audio circuits
• C. In very low-frequency RF circuits
• D. In high-current rectifier circuits

E1A03

33. What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20-meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal?

• A. 14.1002 MHz
• B. 14.3490 MHz
• C. 14.0708 MHz
• D. 14.1472 MHz

E1B02

34. Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow-scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

• A. 15 kHz
• B. 10 kHz
• C. 20 kHz
• D. 3 kHz

E6E12

35. Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies?

• A. Unsuitable for combining analog and digital signals
• B. Excessive dielectric loss
• C. Excessive lead length
• D. Epoxy coating is conductive above 300 MHz

E5B11

36. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

• A. 27 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• B. 27 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• C. 63 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• D. 63 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E5A04

37. What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

• A. Low compared to the circuit resistance
• B. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
• C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
• D. High compared to the circuit resistance

E7D12

38. What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator?

• A. Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
• B. Maximum output voltage drop when the input voltage is varied over its specified range
• C. Maximum that the output voltage may decrease at rated load
• D. Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation

E7A01

39. Which circuit is bistable?

• A. A bipolar amplifier
• B. An OR gate
• C. An AND gate
• D. A flip-flop

E6D04

40. Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers?

• A. To simplify assembly during manufacturing
• B. To reduce power loss from eddy currents in the core
• C. To save cost by reducing the amount of magnetic material
• D. To increase the cutoff frequency by reducing capacitance

E2E01

41. Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz?

• A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
• B. FSK
• C. Spread spectrum
• D. Pulse modulation

E8B03

42. What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency if the highest modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

• A. 6
• B. 0.6
• C. 3
• D. 0.3

E9A02

43. What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

• A. 78.7 watts
• B. 469 watts
• C. 420 watts
• D. 286 watts

E9B06

44. What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 75 degrees
• B. 7.5 degrees
• C. 45 degrees
• D. 25 degrees

E4E07

45. Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

• A. Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
• B. Common-mode currents on the shield and conductors
• C. Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield
• D. Use of braided shielding material

E9F08

46. Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

• A. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower safe maximum operating voltage
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower loss per unit of length
• D. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has higher velocity factor

E7E11

47. Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?

• A. Phase detector
• B. Discriminator
• C. Phase comparator
• D. Product detector

E3B10

48. What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation?

• A. The MUF for chordal-hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
• B. Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
• C. The signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop propagation, which uses Earth as a reflector
• D. Atmospheric noise is reduced in the direction of chordal-hop propagation

E6B09

49. What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

• A. As a high-voltage rectifier
• B. As a constant voltage source
• C. As an RF detector
• D. As a constant current source

E1F06

50. Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

• A. To allow a licensee who has passed an upgrade exam to operate with upgraded privileges while waiting for posting on the FCC database
• B. To provide for experimental amateur communications
• C. To allow a VE group with less than three VEs to administer examinations in a remote, sparsely populated area
• D. To allow use of a special event call sign