Practice Exam

E3B03

1. At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur?

• A. Late at night
• B. Afternoon or early evening
• C. Noon
• D. Morning

E9C10

2. Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

• A. An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
• B. A horizontal array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
• C. An end-fed half-wavelength dipole
• D. A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines

E4E01

3. What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

• A. Excessive ringing
• B. Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
• C. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
• D. All these choices are correct

E5B10

4. What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

• A. Voltage and current are in phase
• B. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
• C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
• D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

E4D10

5. What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

• A. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
• B. A pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals
• C. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
• D. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

E8A11

6. Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter?

• A. Power factor
• B. Total harmonic distortion
• C. Peak envelope power
• D. Reciprocal mixing

E1F11

7. Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

• A. It must exhibit a gain of less than 23 dB when driven by 10 watts or less
• B. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
• C. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
• D. It must have received an Underwriters Laboratory certification for electrical safety as well as having met IEEE standard 14.101(B)

E2C12

8. What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corresponding change in the transmitted signal?

• A. Anti-VOX
• B. Jitter
• C. Hang time
• D. Latency

E2B10

9. What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

• A. Sync frequency
• B. Sync amplitude
• C. Tone amplitude
• D. Tone frequency

E2E07

10. How does Q65 differ from JT65?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Quadrature modulation is used
• C. Multiple receive cycles are averaged
• D. Keyboard-to keyboard operation is supported

E7E09

11. What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high?

• A. Automatic limiting occurs
• B. Spurious mixer products are generated
• C. Mixer blanking occurs
• D. Excessive AGC voltage levels are generated

E8D03

12. Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping?

• A. RF signals are clipped to generate a wide band of harmonics which provides redundancy to correct errors
• B. A binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence
• C. If interference is detected by the receiver, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
• D. Rapidly varying the frequency of a transmitted signal according to a pseudorandom sequence

E6F10

13. What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells?

• A. Cadmium sulfide
• B. Indium arsenide
• C. Silicon
• D. Selenium

E6D06

14. What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

• A. Permittivity
• B. Reactivity
• C. Permeability
• D. Resistance

E6B05

15. What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?

• A. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
• B. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
• C. Low junction capacitance
• D. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power

E7D12

16. What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator?

• A. Maximum that the output voltage may decrease at rated load
• B. Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
• C. Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
• D. Maximum output voltage drop when the input voltage is varied over its specified range

E8C11

17. What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

• A. They are the same
• B. Baud rate is half the symbol rate
• C. The relationship depends on the specific code used
• D. Baud is twice the symbol rate

E5D09

18. What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors?

• A. It is canceled by Coulomb forces in the capacitor and inductor
• B. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
• C. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
• D. Energy is stored in magnetic or electric fields, but power is not dissipated

E2D09

19. What type of modulation is used by JT65?

• A. QAM
• B. RTTY
• C. PSK
• D. Multitone AFSK

E3C02

20. What is indicated by a rising A-index or K-index?

• A. An increase in the critical frequency
• B. Higher levels of solar UV radiation
• C. Decreasing disturbance of the geomagnetic field
• D. Increasing disturbance of the geomagnetic field

E3A11

21. What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals?

• A. 10 miles to 50 miles
• B. 2,500 miles
• C. 100 miles to 300 miles
• D. 1,200 miles

E9E05

22. What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?

• A. Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)
• B. Purely resistive
• C. Purely reactive
• D. Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)

E9H05

23. What challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

• A. It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. It has a bidirectional null pattern
• D. It does not have a clearly defined null

E7B08

24. Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

• A. The switching device is at saturation or cutoff most of the time
• B. Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
• C. Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
• D. Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits

E9A05

25. What does the term "ground gain" mean?

• A. The gain of the antenna with respect to a dipole at ground level
• B. The change in signal strength caused by grounding the antenna
• C. To force net gain to 0 dB by grounding part of the antenna
• D. An increase in signal strength from ground reflections in the environment of the antenna

E5A04

26. What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

• A. Low compared to the circuit resistance
• B. High compared to the circuit resistance
• C. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
• D. Approximately equal to inductive reactance

E1B02

27. Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow-scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

• A. 20 kHz
• B. 10 kHz
• C. 15 kHz
• D. 3 kHz

E1A09

28. Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630-meter band?

• A. 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• B. 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• C. 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• D. 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)

E1C03

29. How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200-meter or 630-meter band?

• A. Operators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company
• B. Operators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 kilometer of PLC systems using those frequencies
• C. Operators must not operate until approval is received
• D. Operations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC

E9B03

30. What is the front-to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

• A. 24 dB
• B. 12 dB
• C. 18 dB
• D. 14 dB

E4A11

31. Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Cable length
• C. Resonant frequency of a tuned circuit
• D. Velocity factor

E9D05

32. Approximately how long is a Yagi's driven element?

• A. 1/4 wavelength
• B. 1005 divided by frequency in MHz
• C. 1/2 wavelength
• D. 234 divided by frequency in MHz

E7G08

33. How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

• A. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
• B. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
• C. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
• D. It does not vary with frequency

E4B02

34. What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

• A. The reading in volts multiplied by the ohms per volt rating will determine the power drawn by the device under test
• B. The reading in ohms divided by the ohms per volt rating will determine the voltage applied to the circuit
• C. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating is the input impedance of the voltmeter
• D. The full scale reading in amps divided by ohms per volt rating will determine the size of shunt needed

E6C07

35. What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

• A. A resistor that ensures that an oscillator frequency does not drift
• B. A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
• C. A resistor connected to an op-amp output that prevents signals from exceeding the power supply voltage
• D. A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks

E9F06

36. What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

• A. 7.0 meters
• B. 10.6 meters
• C. 13.3 meters
• D. 8.5 meters

E7C06

37. What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter?

• A. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop-band ripple
• B. Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop-band corners
• C. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop-band ripple
• D. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band

E2A10

38. What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

• A. LEO
• B. Geomagnetic
• C. HEO
• D. Geostationary

E0A04

39. When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

• A. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 25 percent
• B. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
• C. Each transmitter that produces 20 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
• D. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent

E5C08

40. What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance?

• A. Polar coordinates
• B. Faraday grid
• C. Elliptical coordinates
• D. Maidenhead grid

E7H07

41. How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

• A. Use NP0 capacitors
• B. Mechanically isolate the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
• C. Increase the gain
• D. Reduce noise on the oscillator's power supply

E4C03

42. What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?

• A. Frequency discrimination
• B. Capture effect
• C. Desensitization
• D. Cross-modulation interference

E6A10

43. In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

• A. 4
• B. 5
• C. 2
• D. 6

E1D09

44. Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

• A. 70 centimeters and 33 centimeters
• B. 70 centimeters only
• C. 70 centimeters and 13 centimeters
• D. 33 centimeters and 13 centimeters

E9G05

45. Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?

• A. Determine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials
• B. Determine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions
• C. Determine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters
• D. Determine the length and position of an impedance matching stub

E1E04

46. What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner?

• A. The prospective VE must obtain accreditation from the FCC
• B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
• C. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
• D. A VEC must confirm that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner

E6E09

47. Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range?

• A. TO-220
• B. Surface mount
• C. Axial lead
• D. Radial lead

E7F06

48. What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

• A. 10 bits
• B. 4 bits
• C. 8 bits
• D. 6 bits

E8B08

49. What describes orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)?

• A. A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
• B. A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
• C. A frequency modulation technique that uses non-harmonically related frequencies
• D. A digital mode for narrow-band, slow-speed transmissions

E7A10

50. What is a truth table?

• A. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
• B. A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp
• C. A diagram showing logic states when the digital gate output is true
• D. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for an op-amp