Practice Exam

E6C11

1. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inversion)?

• A. 5
• B. 2
• C. 6
• D. 4

E8C10

2. How can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth?

• A. Increasing analog-to-digital conversion resolution
• B. It is impossible
• C. Using a more efficient digital code
• D. Using forward error correction

E6A04

3. What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

• A. Insulator impurity
• B. Acceptor impurity
• C. Donor impurity
• D. N-type impurity

E4C07

4. What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

• A. The maximum detectable spectrum
• B. The minimum discernible signal
• C. The modulation distortion specification
• D. The meter display sensitivity

E7D07

5. What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

• A. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
• B. It is a brute force filter for the output
• C. It bypasses rectifier output ripple around D1
• D. To prevent self-oscillation

E9F03

6. Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length?

• A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
• B. Electromagnetic waves move faster in coaxial cable than in air
• C. Electromagnetic waves move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
• D. Skin effect is more pronounced in the coaxial cable

E9D12

7. What is the purpose of making a Yagi's parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance?

• A. Control of phase shift
• B. Mechanical balance
• C. Wind torque cancellation
• D. Minimize losses

E5D07

8. What combines to create the self-resonance of a component?

• A. The component's nominal and parasitic reactance
• B. The component's electrical length and impedance
• C. The component's inductance and capacitance
• D. The component's resistance and reactance

E3C12

9. Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

• A. Long-path propagation on the higher HF bands is likely
• B. A coronal mass ejection impact or a solar flare has occurred
• C. Transequatorial propagation on 6 meters is likely
• D. A temperature inversion has occurred

E6B06

10. Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

• A. In oscillator circuits as the negative resistance element
• B. In power supplies as a constant voltage reference
• C. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
• D. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector

E3B12

11. What is chordal-hop propagation?

• A. Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station
• B. Propagation across the geomagnetic equator
• C. Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations
• D. Successive ionospheric refractions without an intermediate reflection from the ground

E8A06

12. What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

• A. 2.5 to 1
• B. 1 to 1
• C. 13 to 1
• D. 25 to 1

E1E08

13. To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

• A. Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Friends of the VE
• D. Employees of the VE

E4B01

14. Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

• A. Input attenuator accuracy
• B. Time base accuracy
• C. Decade divider accuracy
• D. Temperature coefficient of the logic

E9H08

15. What is the function of a sense antenna?

• A. It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
• B. It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
• C. It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna to provide a null in only one direction
• D. It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array

E7G03

16. What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?

• A. 100 ohms
• B. 10,000 ohms
• C. Very low
• D. Very high

E5C09

17. When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent?

• A. The X axis represents the resistive component, and the Y axis represents the reactive component
• B. The X axis represents the reactive component, and the Y axis represents the resistive component
• C. The X axis represents the magnitude, and the Y axis represents the phase angle
• D. The X axis represents the phase angle, and the Y axis represents the magnitude

E6E08

18. How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

• A. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
• B. Directly to the bias voltage (Vcc) lead
• C. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
• D. MMICs require no operating bias

E9C04

19. What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?

• A. The elevation angle increases, and the front-to-rear ratio decreases
• B. The elevation angle increases, while the front-to-rear ratio is unaffected
• C. Additional lobes form with major lobes increasingly aligned with the axis of the antenna
• D. Fewer lobes form with the major lobes increasing closer to broadside to the wire

E9B09

20. What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas?

• A. Graphical analysis
• B. Mutual impedance analysis
• C. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
• D. Method of Moments

E2C05

21. What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

• A. Communicate to a DXpedition about propagation, band openings, pileup conditions, etc.
• B. Handle the receiving and sending of confirmations for a DX station
• C. Run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
• D. Allocate frequencies for DXpeditions

E7A03

22. Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

• A. An OR gate
• B. An XOR gate
• C. A flip-flop
• D. A multiplexer

E2B11

23. What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

• A. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
• B. To identify the SSTV mode being used
• C. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
• D. To provide vertical synchronization

E7E02

24. What is the function of a reactance modulator?

• A. Produce AM signals by varying an inductance
• B. Produce PM or FM signals by varying a resistance
• C. Produce AM signals by varying a resistance
• D. Produce PM or FM signals by varying a capacitance

E7B02

25. What is a Class D amplifier?

• A. An amplifier biased to be relatively free from distortion
• B. An amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
• C. An amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
• D. A low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity

E9E11

26. What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines?

• A. To create a low-angle radiation pattern
• B. To prevent harmonic radiation from the transmitter
• C. To allow single-band antennas to operate on other bands
• D. To control the antenna's radiation pattern

E4E06

27. What type of electrical interference can be caused by computer network equipment?

• A. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station's receiver
• B. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
• C. A whining-type noise that continually pulses off and on
• D. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies

E2D01

28. Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?

• A. APRS
• B. Hellschreiber
• C. MSK144
• D. WSPR

E7F11

29. What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct-sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?

• A. Sample clock phase noise
• B. Reference voltage level and sample width in bits
• C. Data storage transfer rate
• D. Missing codes and jitter

E9G06

30. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

• A. Reactance axis
• B. Prime axis
• C. Impedance axis
• D. Polar axis

E1A04

31. May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone?

• A. Yes, the entire signal will be inside the SSB allocation for Extra class operators
• B. No, US stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
• C. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 75-meter phone band segment
• D. No, the sideband components will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment

E1F03

32. Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

• A. Gain is less than 23 dB when driven by power of 10 watts or less
• B. It was manufactured and certificated in a country which has a reciprocal certification agreement with the FCC
• C. The amplifier is constructed or modified by an amateur radio operator for use at an amateur station
• D. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit

E2A09

33. What do the terms "L band" and "S band" specify?

• A. FM and digital store-and-forward systems
• B. Which sideband to use
• C. The 23- and 13-centimeter bands
• D. The 2-meter and 70-centimeter bands

E4A05

34. What is the purpose of using a prescaler with a frequency counter?

• A. Prevent oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
• B. Reduce the signal frequency to within the counter's operating range
• C. Multiply a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
• D. Amplify low-level signals for more accurate counting

E1C11

35. Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?

• A. ITU reciprocal license
• B. IARP
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. CEPT

E5B09

36. What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

• A. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
• B. Voltage and current are in phase
• C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
• D. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees

E8D06

37. What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

• A. Some types of errors can be detected
• B. A larger character set is available
• C. Faster transmission rate
• D. Signal-to-noise ratio is improved

E9A04

38. Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

• A. Antenna height
• B. Transmission line length
• C. The input power level
• D. The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter

E7C07

39. Which describes a Pi-L network?

• A. A Pi-network with an additional output series inductor
• B. A Phase Inverter Load network
• C. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
• D. A network with only three discrete parts

E6D03

40. Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

• A. Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light
• B. Increased conductivity in the presence of light
• C. Mechanical deformation of material due to the application of a magnetic field
• D. Mechanical deformation of material due to the application of a voltage

E5A02

41. What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 40 picofarads?

• A. 44.72 MHz
• B. 3.56 MHz
• C. 22.36 MHz
• D. 1.78 MHz

E1D02

42. Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages?

• A. Telecommand signals from a space telecommand station
• B. Auxiliary relay links carrying repeater audio
• C. Telecommand signals to terrestrial repeaters
• D. Mesh network backbone nodes

E3A14

43. What are circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

• A. Waves with rotating electric and magnetic fields
• B. Waves that circle Earth
• C. Waves produced by a loop antenna
• D. Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape

E4D02

44. Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

• A. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
• B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
• C. Poor weak signal reception caused by insufficient local oscillator injection
• D. Spurious signals caused by cross modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals

E0A03

45. Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?

• A. 300 kHz - 3 MHz
• B. 3 - 30 MHz
• C. 300 - 3000 MHz
• D. 30 - 300 MHz

E2E08

46. Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

• A. PACTOR
• B. PSK31
• C. RTTY
• D. AMTOR

E7H02

47. What is a microphonic?

• A. Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
• B. Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
• C. Changes in oscillator frequency caused by mechanical vibration
• D. An IC used for amplifying microphone signals

E6F03

48. What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

• A. A lens and a photomultiplier
• B. A frequency-modulated helium-neon laser
• C. An amplitude-modulated helium-neon laser
• D. An LED and a phototransistor

E8B09

49. What is deviation ratio?

• A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
• B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
• C. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
• D. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency

E1B09

50. Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

• A. Only stations meeting the FCC Part 97 technical standards for operation during an emergency
• B. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
• C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
• D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class