Practice Exam

E1A02

1. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

• A. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
• B. The exact lower band edge
• C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
• D. 300 Hz above the lower band edge

E2A04

2. What is meant by the "mode" of an amateur radio satellite?

• A. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
• B. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
• C. Whether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit
• D. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth

E7A06

3. What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

• A. It produces a continuous square wave
• B. It switches temporarily to an alternate state for a set time
• C. It stores one bit of data
• D. It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage

E7D04

4. Which of the following describes a three-terminal voltage regulator?

• A. A series current source
• B. A shunt current source
• C. A shunt regulator
• D. A series regulator

E0A11

5. To what should lanyards be attached while climbing?

• A. Guy brackets
• B. Tower rungs
• C. Antenna mast
• D. Tower legs

E5D10

6. As a conductor's diameter increases, what is the effect on its electrical length?

• A. It increases
• B. It decreases
• C. Thickness has no effect on electrical length
• D. It varies randomly

E2C08

7. Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (LoTW)?

• A. Contacts for Worked All States credit
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Special event contacts between stations in the US
• D. Contacts between a US station and a non-US station

E9H07

8. What is the function of a Beverage antenna's termination resistor?

• A. Eliminate harmonic reception
• B. Increase the front-to-side ratio
• C. Absorb signals from the reverse direction
• D. Decrease SWR bandwidth

E9G10

9. What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

• A. SWR
• B. Points with constant resistance
• C. Frequency
• D. Points with constant reactance

E7C03

10. What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi-network to create a Pi-L-network?

• A. Greater transformation range
• B. Greater harmonic suppression
• C. To eliminate one capacitor
• D. Higher efficiency

E8A06

11. What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

• A. 1 to 1
• B. 25 to 1
• C. 13 to 1
• D. 2.5 to 1

E5A04

12. What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

• A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
• B. Low compared to the circuit resistance
• C. High compared to the circuit resistance
• D. Approximately equal to inductive reactance

E6A04

13. What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

• A. N-type impurity
• B. Insulator impurity
• C. Acceptor impurity
• D. Donor impurity

E1D09

14. Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

• A. 70 centimeters and 13 centimeters
• B. 70 centimeters and 33 centimeters
• C. 33 centimeters and 13 centimeters
• D. 70 centimeters only

E4C05

15. What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

• A. The receiver noise is 6 dB above the theoretical minimum
• B. The receiver noise is 3 dB above theoretical minimum
• C. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
• D. The theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature

E6D02

16. What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

• A. Parallel RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
• B. Parallel RLC, where C is the series combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
• C. Series RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
• D. Series RLC in parallel with a shunt C representing electrode and stray capacitance

E1C09

17. What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

• A. 1.0
• B. 2.0
• C. 0.5
• D. 3.0

E4E13

18. Where should a station AC surge protector be installed?

• A. At an AC outlet
• B. On the single point ground panel
• C. On a ground rod outside the station
• D. At the AC service panel

E7G09

19. What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

• A. -2.3 volts
• B. 0.23 volts
• C. 2.3 volts
• D. -0.23 volts

E7H09

20. What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital-to-analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

• A. A direct conversion synthesizer
• B. A direct digital synthesizer
• C. A hybrid synthesizer
• D. A phase-locked loop synthesizer

E8C06

21. What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal?

• A. 600 Hz
• B. 10 Hz
• C. 2.4 kHz
• D. 50 Hz

E8D09

22. What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

• A. +15 dB
• B. -30 dB
• C. +5 dB
• D. +10 dB

E3A14

23. What are circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

• A. Waves with rotating electric and magnetic fields
• B. Waves produced by a loop antenna
• C. Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
• D. Waves that circle Earth

E9C10

24. Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

• A. An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
• B. A horizontal array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
• C. An end-fed half-wavelength dipole
• D. A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines

E1F11

25. Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

• A. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
• B. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
• C. It must have received an Underwriters Laboratory certification for electrical safety as well as having met IEEE standard 14.101(B)
• D. It must exhibit a gain of less than 23 dB when driven by 10 watts or less

E2D06

26. Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts?

• A. Storing and forwarding digital messages
• B. Time-synchronous transmissions alternating between stations
• C. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
• D. High-speed CW identification to avoid fading

E6C09

27. What is used to design the configuration of a field-programmable gate array (FPGA)?

• A. Hardware description language (HDL)
• B. Machine and assembly language
• C. An auto-router
• D. Karnaugh maps

E8B03

28. What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency if the highest modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

• A. 3
• B. 6
• C. 0.6
• D. 0.3

E4D11

29. Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

• A. Odd-order products are more likely to overload the IF filters
• B. Odd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
• C. Odd-order products of two signals in the band being received are also likely to be within the band
• D. Odd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

E6F01

30. What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

• A. Photons
• B. Electrons
• C. Protons
• D. Holes

E3B11

31. At what time of day is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

• A. Between sunrise and sunset
• B. Between sunset and midnight
• C. Between midnight and sunrise
• D. Between sunset and sunrise

E4B08

32. Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series-tuned circuit?

• A. The frequency shift
• B. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
• C. The ratio of inductive reactance to capacitive reactance
• D. The resonant frequency of the circuit

E4A08

33. Which of the following is used to measure SWR?

• A. Antenna analyzer
• B. Directional wattmeter
• C. Vector network analyzer
• D. All these choices are correct

E2E02

34. Which of the following synchronizes WSJT-X digital mode transmit/receive timing?

• A. Sync-field transmission
• B. Alignment of frequency shifts
• C. Synchronization of computer clocks
• D. Sync-pulse timing

E9E01

35. Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom?

• A. Shunt-fed
• B. Gamma
• C. T-match
• D. Beta or hairpin

E3C12

36. Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

• A. Long-path propagation on the higher HF bands is likely
• B. Transequatorial propagation on 6 meters is likely
• C. A coronal mass ejection impact or a solar flare has occurred
• D. A temperature inversion has occurred

E7B06

37. What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

• A. Low bandwidth
• B. High electrostatic damage protection
• C. Low input impedance
• D. High power gain

E1B07

38. To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

• A. FAA tower height limits
• B. State and local zoning
• C. Homeowners associations
• D. Use of wireless devices in vehicles

E9D06

39. What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?

• A. It is increased
• B. It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at a voltage maximum point
• C. It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at the feed point
• D. It is decreased

E5B12

40. What is admittance?

• A. The inverse of impedance
• B. The inverse of reactance
• C. The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
• D. The term for the on-impedance of a field effect transistor

E9B04

41. What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 28 dB
• B. 3 dB
• C. 15 dB
• D. 38 dB

E6E12

42. Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies?

• A. Excessive lead length
• B. Epoxy coating is conductive above 300 MHz
• C. Excessive dielectric loss
• D. Unsuitable for combining analog and digital signals

E9A11

43. Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating on HF?

• A. Soil conductivity
• B. Take-off angle
• C. Distance from the transmitter
• D. The standing wave ratio

E9F05

44. What is microstrip?

• A. Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
• B. Miniature coax used for low power applications
• C. Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies
• D. Special shielding material designed for microwave frequencies

E5C12

45. Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

• A. Point 1
• B. Point 8
• C. Point 3
• D. Point 7

E2B01

46. In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

• A. Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
• B. Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel
• C. 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data
• D. 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval

E7E10

47. How does a diode envelope detector function?

• A. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
• B. By breakdown of the Zener voltage
• C. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
• D. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode

E7F12

48. Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters?

• A. FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
• B. FIR filters can respond faster to impulses
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. FIR filters can delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount

E6B10

49. In Figure E6-2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode?

• A. 3
• B. 2
• C. 1
• D. 6

E1E06

50. Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

• A. Only the VE session manager
• B. The designated monitoring VE
• C. The VEC coordinating the session
• D. Each administering VE