Practice Exam

Element 4: Extra (EXPIRED)

E9C03

1. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

E4D05

2. What transmitter frequencies would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

E6E06

3. What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

E1F12

4. Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

E5B11

5. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

E9A13

6. How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?

E7F05

7. Which of the following is a technique for providing high stability oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

E6C06

8. Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

E9B11

9. What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

E4B09

10. What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?

E6D12

11. How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?

E1A03

12. With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency?

E5D14

13. What is reactive power?

E2A04

14. What is meant by the term mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?

E9H09

15. Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

E7B06

16. Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order harmonics?

E9E08

17. Which of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched transmission line?

E9G04

18. What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

E4A10

19. Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

E9D14

20. Which of the following types of conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?

E7A12

21. What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a high voltage?

E1C10

22. What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

E2C03

23. From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

E8C10

24. What spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels?

E2E09

25. Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency?

E4C02

26. Which of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image signal interference?

E9F14

27. What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

E6A04

28. What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

E3A08

29. When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

E2D03

30. Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

E7E07

31. What is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?

E5A08

32. What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

E4E12

33. What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?

E3C11

34. From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

E1B05

35. What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

E3B10

36. What is the cause of gray-line propagation?

E0A02

37. When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

Figure

E5C23

38. Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?

E6B08

39. Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

E7D04

40. Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most efficient use of the primary power source?

E8D04

41. What is the PEP output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm load?

E8B11

42. Which of the following describes frequency division multiplexing?

E2B09

43. What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

E8A14

44. Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

E7G06

45. Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active filter?

E6F10

46. What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

E1E09

47. What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

E1D11

48. Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

E7H02

49. What condition must exist for a circuit to oscillate?

E7C05

50. Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?