Practice Exam

Element 4: Extra (EXPIRED)

E8B09

1. What is meant by deviation ratio?

E6E09

2. Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

E9A01

3. Which of the following describes an isotropic antenna?

E1B07

4. Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

E9F10

5. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

E4B12

6. What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

Figure

E9B03

7. In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

E1E14

8. For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

Figure

E6C10

9. In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

E7E09

10. What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

E6B08

11. Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

E4C14

12. On which of the following frequencies might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

E6F10

13. What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

E4E11

14. Which of the following is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

E2A09

15. What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?

E2E10

16. Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

E1F03

17. Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

E9G11

18. How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

E7G02

19. What is the effect of ringing in a filter?

E8D11

20. What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?

E7A07

21. What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

E7H10

22. What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital frequency synthesizer?

E3B01

23. What is transequatorial propagation?

E2C07

24. What is the Cabrillo format?

E2B07

25. What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

E8A14

26. Which of these methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?

E5D15

27. What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

E0A02

28. When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

E2D05

29. Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

E9E05

30. How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

E9C05

31. What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF bands?

E5A11

32. What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

E4A10

33. Which of the following tests establishes that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

E4D08

34. What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

E3A01

35. What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

E1C08

36. What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

E3C05

37. Which of the following describes selective fading?

E7B09

38. Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a pi-network output circuit?

E9D06

39. Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

E7F05

40. Which of the following is a technique for providing high stability oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

Figure

E5C20

41. Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

E5B04

42. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

E1A04

43. With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency?

E9H02

44. What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?

E8C07

45. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

Figure

E7D07

46. What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

E6A12

47. Why do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?

E7C02

48. A T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the following properties?

E1D04

49. What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?

E6D02

50. Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to generate X-rays?