Practice Exam

Element 4: Extra (EXPIRED)

E4D03

1. How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

E8A04

2. What is equivalent to the root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?

E5C06

3. In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?

E9E05

4. How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

Figure

E9C09

5. What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

E7H06

6. Which of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?

E6A06

7. What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

E8C04

8. What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

E1D05

9. What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

E2C08

10. Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference?

E9A05

11. Which of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

E1F01

12. On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

E1E11

13. What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

E4B14

14. What happens if a dip meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?

E5B04

15. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

E9D12

16. What is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?

E5D01

17. What is the result of skin effect?

E3B07

18. Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station?

E4A11

19. Which of these instruments could be used for detailed analysis of digital signals?

E1A02

20. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

E3A09

21. Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter communications?

E2D10

22. How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?

E2E02

23. What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

E9F06

24. What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

E9H10

25. How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

Figure

E7D08

26. What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-3?

E7C14

27. Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a receiver IF filter?

E6B02

28. What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

E7F05

29. Which of the following is a technique for providing high stability oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

E6D09

30. What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of transistorized HF amplifiers?

E5A14

31. What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?

Figure

E7B11

32. In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

E0A09

33. Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

Figure

E6C08

34. In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

E6E05

35. Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

E2A03

36. What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?

E7A04

37. How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

E1B04

38. What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places?

E3C04

39. Which emission mode is best for Aurora propagation?

E7G15

40. What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?

E4E12

41. What is one disadvantage of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals?

E8D03

42. What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier?

E9G03

43. Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

E8B06

44. What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

E9B09

45. What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?

E1C08

46. What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

E7E13

47. Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?

E6F01

48. What is photoconductivity?

E2B09

49. What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?

E4C15

50. What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?