Practice Exam

E7G11

1. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

• A. 28
• B. 14
• C. 0.07
• D. 7

E4E05

2. How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed?

• A. By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor
• B. By installing a high pass filter in series with the motor's power leads
• C. By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
• D. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads

E5B07

3. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

• A. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• C. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E3B06

4. Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

• A. 10 meters
• B. 80 meters
• C. 20 meters
• D. 6 meters

E1D03

5. What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service?

• A. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space
• B. An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
• C. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station
• D. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface

E4D08

6. What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

• A. Too little gain
• B. Positive feedback
• C. Lack of neutralization
• D. Nonlinear circuits or devices

E8D01

7. Which of the following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?

• A. DC voltage
• B. Average voltage
• C. Peak-to-peak voltage
• D. RMS voltage

E2E07

8. What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal?

• A. 316 Hz
• B. 2.16 kHz
• C. 31 Hz
• D. 550 Hz

E2B07

9. What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

• A. Spectral Intensity
• B. Luminance
• C. Chroma
• D. Hue

E3C13

10. What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?

• A. Vertical
• B. Circular
• C. Horizontal
• D. Elliptical

E7E13

11. Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB signal when using digital signal processing?

• A. Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics
• B. Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
• C. The quadrature method
• D. A frequency synthesizer removes the unwanted sidebands

E4B15

12. Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?

• A. The inductance to capacitance ratio
• B. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
• C. The resonant frequency of the circuit
• D. The frequency shift

E7C05

13. Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

• A. A passive op-amp filter
• B. A Chebyshev filter
• C. An active LC filter
• D. A Butterworth filter

E3A03

14. When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

• A. When the Moon is at perigee
• B. When the Moon is full
• C. When the Moon is at apogee
• D. When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E5D13

15. How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

• A. 70.7 Watts
• B. 100 Watts
• C. 141.4 Watts
• D. 200 Watts

E7D10

16. What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

• A. It provides brute force filtering of the output
• B. It provides fixed bias for Q1
• C. It prevents self-oscillation
• D. It clips the peaks of the ripple

E6E09

17. Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

• A. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
• B. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
• C. Bias the crystal at a specified current
• D. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance

E2C05

18. What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

• A. To handle the receiving and sending of confirmation cards for a DX station
• B. To relay calls to and from a DX station
• C. To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
• D. To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station

E7A10

19. What is a truth table?

• A. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp
• B. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
• C. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
• D. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true

E5A01

20. What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

• A. Resistance
• B. Resonance
• C. Conductance
• D. Capacitance

E7B04

21. Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

• A. At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
• B. Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
• C. Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
• D. At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor

E6B05

22. What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?

• A. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
• B. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
• C. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
• D. A large region of intrinsic material

E9D04

23. Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?

• A. To rotate antenna polarization to match that of the satellite
• B. So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday rotation
• C. In order to track the satellite as it orbits the Earth
• D. So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals

E6D07

24. What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores, assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?

• A. From approximately 10 Hz to no more than 3000 kHz
• B. From less than 20 Hz to approximately 300 MHz
• C. From about 100 kHz to at least 1000 GHz
• D. From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz

E4C15

25. What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver with an antenna connected?

• A. Induction motor noise
• B. Atmospheric noise
• C. Receiver front-end noise
• D. Detector noise

E9F15

26. What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

• A. The same as the output impedance of the generator
• B. Very high impedance
• C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• D. Very low impedance

E7F08

27. Which of the following is performed by a frequency counter?

• A. Counting the number of input pulses occurring within a specific period of time
• B. Determining the frequency deviation with an FM discriminator
• C. Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
• D. Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is proportional to the frequency

E0A05

28. What is one of the potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?

• A. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
• B. Microwaves are ionizing radiation
• C. The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
• D. Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection

E7H04

29. How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

• A. Through a neutralizing capacitor
• B. Through a tapped coil
• C. Through a capacitive divider
• D. Through link coupling

E5C07

30. In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?

• A. 91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
• B. 31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees
• C. 71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
• D. 51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees

E6C12

31. What is BiCMOS logic?

• A. An FET logic family based on bimetallic semiconductors
• B. A logic family based on bismuth CMOS devices
• C. An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors
• D. A logic device with two CMOS circuits per package

E9E04

32. What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna matching network?

• A. To provide a rejection notch to prevent the radiation of harmonics
• B. To cancel the inductive reactance of the matching network
• C. To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
• D. To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna

E9G08

33. What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

• A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
• B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
• C. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
• D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis

E9B01

34. In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB beamwidth?

• A. 30 degrees
• B. 50 degrees
• C. 75 degrees
• D. 25 degrees

E2A07

35. Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

• A. FM and CW
• B. PSK and Packet
• C. All of these choices are correct
• D. SSB and SSTV

E1B11

36. What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

• A. At least 73 dB below
• B. At least 63 dB below
• C. At least 43 dB below
• D. At least 53 dB below

E1C10

37. What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations?

• A. Only earth stations, repeater stations or model craft
• B. Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
• C. Only beacon, repeater or space stations
• D. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations

E9A11

38. Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

• A. Reduce the diameter of the radiating element
• B. Isolate the coax shield from ground
• C. Install a good radial system
• D. Shorten the radiating element

E8C11

39. What spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

• A. Phase compandored spread-spectrum
• B. Frequency hopping
• C. Binary phase-shift keying
• D. Direct sequence

E2D12

40. How does JT65 improve EME communications?

• A. It controls the receiver to track Doppler shift
• B. All of these choices are correct
• C. It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using FEC
• D. It supplies signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon

E8A12

41. What type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?

• A. Video signals
• B. Human speech
• C. All of these choices are correct
• D. Data

E6F01

42. What is photoconductivity?

• A. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
• B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
• C. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
• D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor

E1F03

43. Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

• A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
• B. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
• C. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
• D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government

E8B12

44. What is digital time division multiplexing?

• A. Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
• B. Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
• C. Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
• D. Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency

E9H05

45. What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

• A. It is non-rotatable
• B. It receives equally well in all directions
• C. It is practical for use only on VHF bands
• D. It has a bidirectional pattern

E9C01

46. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

• A. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
• B. A figure-8 oriented along the axis of the array
• C. A cardioid
• D. Omnidirectional

E1A13

47. Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

• A. Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio
• B. Any person holding an FCC-issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
• C. Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
• D. Only a person named in an amateur station license grant

E4A08

48. Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?

• A. A spectrum analyzer
• B. An ohmmeter
• C. An antenna analyzer
• D. A Q meter

E6A17

49. What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?

• A. Emitter, base 1, base 2
• B. Gate, drain, source
• C. Emitter, base, collector
• D. Gate 1, gate 2, drain

E1E02

50. Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?

• A. In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
• B. In FCC Part 97
• C. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
• D. In a question pool maintained by the FCC