Practice Exam

E6B04

1. What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

• A. Zener diode
• B. Varactor diode
• C. Silicon-controlled rectifier
• D. Tunnel diode

E0A09

2. Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

• A. Uranium Hexafluoride
• B. Zinc oxide
• C. Mica
• D. Beryllium Oxide

E3A09

3. Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

• A. 28 MHz - 148 MHz
• B. 10 MHz - 14 MHz
• C. 220 MHz - 450 MHz
• D. 1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz

E9C07

4. What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

• A. 450 ohms
• B. 300 ohms
• C. 72 ohms
• D. 50 ohms

E7E09

5. What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer circuit?

• A. Spurious mixer products are generated
• B. Mixer blanking occurs
• C. Automatic limiting occurs
• D. A beat frequency is generated

E8C01

6. How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

• A. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
• B. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
• C. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
• D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

E4C14

7. What transmit frequency might generate an image response signal in a receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and that uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?

• A. 14.755 MHz
• B. 14.445 MHz
• C. 15.210 MHz
• D. 13.845 MHz

E5D08

8. How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?

• A. 200 watts
• B. 600 watts
• C. 1000 watts
• D. 1600 watts

E9B01

9. In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the beamwidth?

• A. 30 degrees
• B. 25 degrees
• C. 50 degrees
• D. 75 degrees

E7A02

10. What is the function of a decade counter?

• A. It produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
• B. It decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display
• C. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
• D. It produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse

E6A10

11. In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

• A. 2
• B. 5
• C. 4
• D. 6

E7B12

12. What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

• A. Common collector
• B. Emitter follower
• C. Common base
• D. Common emitter

E9H02

13. Which is generally true for low band (160 meter and 80 meter) receiving antennas?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Low loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
• C. They must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
• D. Atmospheric noise is so high that gain over a dipole is not important

E9A02

14. What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

• A. 286 watts
• B. 78.7 watts
• C. 420 watts
• D. 1977 watts

E7G03

15. What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?

• A. Very high
• B. Very low
• C. 100 ohms
• D. 1000 ohms

E7F12

16. Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?

• A. FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. FIR filters can respond faster to impulses
• D. FIR filters can delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount

E5B10

17. What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

• A. Voltage and current are in phase
• B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
• C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
• D. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees

E4E07

18. Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

• A. Common-mode currents on the shield and conductors
• B. Use of braided shielding material
• C. Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
• D. Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield

E9E10

19. Which of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?

• A. Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twinlead in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
• B. Insert a 1/4-wavelength piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
• C. Connect a 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna
• D. Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twinlead in parallel with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna

E3B06

20. Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation?

• A. 80 meters
• B. 20 meters
• C. 6 meters
• D. 10 meters

E5A12

21. What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

• A. 15.7 kHz
• B. 31.4 kHz
• C. 218.3 kHz
• D. 436.6 kHz

E2B06

22. What is vestigial sideband modulation?

• A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
• B. Narrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
• C. A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
• D. Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation

E1A03

23. What is the maximum legal carrier frequency on the 20 meter band for transmitting USB AFSK digital signals having a 1 kHz bandwidth?

• A. 14.100 MHz
• B. 14.349 MHz
• C. 14.149 MHz
• D. 14.070 MHz

E7D03

24. What device is typically used as a stable voltage reference in a linear voltage regulator?

• A. An SCR
• B. A varactor diode
• C. A Zener diode
• D. A tunnel diode

E2E08

25. Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

• A. Hellschreiber
• B. PACTOR
• C. AMTOR
• D. RTTY

E5C08

26. What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

• A. Polar coordinates
• B. Faraday grid
• C. Maidenhead grid
• D. Elliptical coordinates

E6C10

27. In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

• A. 2
• B. 1
• C. 3
• D. 4

E6D02

28. What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

• A. Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
• B. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in series
• C. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, and loss resistance in series, all in parallel with a shunt capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance
• D. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel

E2A07

29. Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

• A. FM and CW
• B. PSK and packet
• C. SSB and SSTV
• D. All these choices are correct

E1D06

30. What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand?

• A. 2 watts
• B. 1 watt
• C. 5 watts
• D. 100 watts

E7C08

31. Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

• A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
• B. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
• C. The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
• D. The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter

E4D10

32. What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

• A. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
• B. A pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals
• C. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
• D. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E9D07

33. What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna?

• A. Improved radiation efficiency
• B. Lower Q
• C. Greater structural strength
• D. Higher losses

E6E01

34. Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?

• A. Lower transconductance
• B. Higher noise figures
• C. Lower junction voltage drop
• D. Higher electron mobility

E1B05

35. What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

• A. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
• B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
• C. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Arecibo Radio Telescope
• D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral

E8B10

36. What is frequency division multiplexing?

• A. The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
• B. Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
• C. The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
• D. Two or more information streams are merged into a baseband, which then modulates the transmitter

E2D10

37. How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?

• A. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. An APRS station with a Global Positioning System unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
• D. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital

E1C12

38. On what portion of the 630 meter band are phone emissions permitted?

• A. Only the top 3 kHz
• B. None
• C. The entire band
• D. Only the bottom 3 kHz

E8D10

39. What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

• A. Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
• B. Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
• C. Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
• D. Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code

E9F10

40. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. A capacitive reactance
• B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• C. An inductive reactance
• D. Zero

E8A06

41. What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

• A. 2.5 to 1
• B. 25 to 1
• C. 100 to 1
• D. 1 to 1

E9G04

42. What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

• A. Reactance and voltage
• B. Voltage and impedance
• C. Resistance and reactance
• D. Resistance and voltage

E2C07

43. What is the Cabrillo format?

• A. A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
• B. The most common set of contest rules
• C. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
• D. The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors

E4A01

44. Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?

• A. Sampling rate of the analog-to-digital converter
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Q of the circuit
• D. Amount of memory

E4B07

45. What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

• A. Relative quality of the data
• B. The port or ports at which measurements are made
• C. The relative time between measurements
• D. Frequency order of the measurements

E3C01

46. What does the radio communication term "ray tracing" describe?

• A. Modeling a radio wave's path through the ionosphere
• B. Evaluating high voltage sources for x-rays
• C. Determining the radiation pattern from an array of antennas
• D. The process in which an electronic display presents a pattern

E1E07

47. What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

• A. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
• B. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session
• C. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
• D. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results

E1F10

48. Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

• A. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
• B. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
• C. Any licensed amateur operator
• D. Only Amateur Extra Class operators

E6F06

49. Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices?

• A. A crystalline semiconductor
• B. An ordinary metal
• C. A liquid semiconductor
• D. A heavy metal

E7H01

50. What are three oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment?

• A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
• B. Pierce, Fenner and Beane
• C. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
• D. Taft, Hartley and Pierce