Practice Exam

E9D08

1. What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

• A. Gain is reduced
• B. SWR bandwidth decreases
• C. More common-mode current is present on the feed line
• D. SWR bandwidth increases

E7E06

2. Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers?

• A. To remove third-order distortion products
• B. To reduce impulse noise reception
• C. For higher efficiency
• D. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation

E2B08

3. What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70- centimeter band?

• A. Using USB and demodulating the signal with a computer sound card
• B. Transmitting on channels shared with cable TV
• C. Using converted satellite TV dishes
• D. Transmitting on the abandoned TV channel 2

E1B03

4. Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

• A. 1 mile
• B. 10 miles
• C. 3 miles
• D. 30 miles

E4D06

5. What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

• A. Reciprocal mixing
• B. Quieting
• C. Cross modulation interference
• D. Desensitization

E7C10

6. Which of the following filters is used in a 2-meter band repeater duplexer?

• A. A cavity filter
• B. A crystal filter
• C. An L-C filter
• D. A DSP filter

E7H13

7. Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

• A. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
• B. Use a GPS signal reference
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator

E9A12

8. How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half-wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?

• A. 8.15 dB
• B. 3.85 dB
• C. 2.79 dB
• D. 6.0 dB

E8A11

9. Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter?

• A. Power factor
• B. Reciprocal mixing
• C. Total harmonic distortion
• D. Peak envelope power

E6E06

10. What characteristics of MMICs make them a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

• A. Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
• B. The ability to retrieve information from a single signal, even in the presence of other strong signals
• C. Extremely high Q factor and high stability over a wide temperature range
• D. Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range

E8B03

11. What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency if the highest modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

• A. 6
• B. 0.3
• C. 3
• D. 0.6

E1C06

12. Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

• A. You must have a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 16-1048
• B. You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
• C. The US embassy must approve of your operation
• D. You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating

E6F10

13. What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells?

• A. Selenium
• B. Indium arsenide
• C. Cadmium sulfide
• D. Silicon

E7B09

14. What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier?

• A. Acts as an OR circuit if one input is grounded
• B. Differential inputs and single output
• C. Input and output signals in-phase
• D. Low input impedance and phase inversion from input to output

E5D05

15. What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF?

• A. Shunt capacitance
• B. Skin effect
• C. Inductance
• D. Dielectric leakage

E5A06

16. What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

• A. It equals 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)
• B. It is at a maximum
• C. It is at a minimum
• D. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)

E9F01

17. What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

• A. The velocity of a wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
• B. The ratio of its characteristic impedance to its termination impedance
• C. The ratio of its termination impedance to its characteristic impedance
• D. The velocity of a wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum

E2E05

18. Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

• A. RTTY
• B. MFSK16
• C. WSPR
• D. PSK31

E2C01

19. What indicator is required to be used by US-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the US?

• A. / followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
• B. /R# where # is the district of the remote station
• C. No additional indicator is required
• D. / followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station

E5C02

20. How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

• A. By magnitude and phase angle
• B. By X and R values
• C. By Y and G values
• D. By real and imaginary parts

E6C11

21. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inversion)?

• A. 5
• B. 2
• C. 4
• D. 6

E9B03

22. What is the front-to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

• A. 14 dB
• B. 24 dB
• C. 12 dB
• D. 18 dB

E6A03

23. Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

• A. Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
• B. Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
• C. Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
• D. Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current

E1D09

24. Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

• A. 70 centimeters only
• B. 70 centimeters and 33 centimeters
• C. 70 centimeters and 13 centimeters
• D. 33 centimeters and 13 centimeters

E9H01

25. When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

• A. It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
• B. It should be at least one wavelength long
• C. Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
• D. It should be configured as a four-sided loop

E8D09

26. What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

• A. +15 dB
• B. -30 dB
• C. +10 dB
• D. +5 dB

E3C11

27. What does VOACAP software model?

• A. AC voltage and impedance
• B. AC current and impedance
• C. HF propagation
• D. VHF radio propagation

E7A11

28. What does "positive logic" mean in reference to logic devices?

• A. The logic devices have high noise immunity
• B. The logic circuit is in the "true" condition
• C. High voltage represents a 1, low voltage a 0
• D. 1s and 0s are defined as different positive voltage levels

E8C11

29. What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

• A. The relationship depends on the specific code used
• B. Baud rate is half the symbol rate
• C. They are the same
• D. Baud is twice the symbol rate

E0A03

30. Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?

• A. 300 - 3000 MHz
• B. 300 kHz - 3 MHz
• C. 3 - 30 MHz
• D. 30 - 300 MHz

E9C01

31. What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2- wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

• A. Omni-directional
• B. A figure-eight oriented along the axis of the array
• C. Cardioid
• D. A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array

E1E05

32. What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

• A. Destroy the application form
• B. Return the application document to the examinee
• C. Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
• D. Maintain the application form with the VEC's records

E3A08

33. When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what region of the ionosphere?

• A. The D region
• B. The F1 region
• C. The E region
• D. The F2 region

E4E11

34. What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals combining to generate spurious signals on the MF or HF bands?

• A. You are receiving skywave signals from a distant station
• B. Nearby corroded metal connections are mixing and reradiating the broadcast signals
• C. One or more of the broadcast stations is transmitting an over-modulated signal
• D. Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is overloaded

E6D03

35. Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

• A. Mechanical deformation of material due to the application of a voltage
• B. Mechanical deformation of material due to the application of a magnetic field
• C. Increased conductivity in the presence of light
• D. Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light

E2D09

36. What type of modulation is used by JT65?

• A. Multitone AFSK
• B. RTTY
• C. PSK
• D. QAM

E4B07

37. What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

• A. The relative time between measurements
• B. Relative quality of the data
• C. Frequency order of the measurements
• D. The port or ports at which measurements are made

E2A03

38. How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder?

• A. The signal is detected and remodulated on the reverse sideband
• B. The signal is passed through a nonlinear filter
• C. The signal is reduced to I and Q components, and the Q component is filtered out
• D. The signal is mixed with a local oscillator signal and the difference product is transmitted

E1F06

39. Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

• A. To allow a VE group with less than three VEs to administer examinations in a remote, sparsely populated area
• B. To allow a licensee who has passed an upgrade exam to operate with upgraded privileges while waiting for posting on the FCC database
• C. To allow use of a special event call sign
• D. To provide for experimental amateur communications

E7G03

40. What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?

• A. 10,000 ohms
• B. Very low
• C. Very high
• D. 100 ohms

E5B11

41. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

• A. 27 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• B. 63 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• C. 27 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• D. 63 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E4A03

42. Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products generated by an SSB transmitter?

• A. Logic analyzer
• B. Network analyzer
• C. Differential resolver
• D. Spectrum analyzer

E4C09

43. Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?

• A. Improved receiver noise figure
• B. Reduced drift
• C. Fewer components in the receiver
• D. Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses

E6B11

44. What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

• A. Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor
• B. Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
• C. Forward DC bias current
• D. A variable RF reference voltage

E9G06

45. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

• A. Reactance axis
• B. Polar axis
• C. Prime axis
• D. Impedance axis

E3B07

46. What effect does lowering a signal's transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propagation?

• A. The critical frequency increases
• B. The distance covered by each hop increases
• C. The MUF decreases
• D. Faraday rotation becomes stronger

E1A02

47. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

• A. 300 Hz above the lower band edge
• B. The exact lower band edge
• C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
• D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge

E7D05

48. Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator operates by loading the unregulated voltage source?

• A. A series regulator
• B. A shunt regulator
• C. A constant current source
• D. A shunt current source

E9E07

49. What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line?

• A. Characteristic impedance
• B. Dielectric constant
• C. Velocity factor
• D. Reflection coefficient

E7F05

50. How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced?

• A. At least twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
• B. At four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
• C. At the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal
• D. At least half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal