Practice Exam

E9A11

1. Which of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

• A. Shorten the radiating element
• B. Reduce the diameter of the radiating element
• C. Isolate the coax shield from ground
• D. Install a good radial system

E2E05

2. How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

• A. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
• B. Special binary codes provide automatic correction
• C. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
• D. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

E1C07

3. What is meant by local control?

• A. Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link
• B. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
• C. Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
• D. Automatically manipulating local station controls

E9B05

4. What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum forward gain?

• A. The front-to-back ratio increases
• B. The SWR is reduced
• C. The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
• D. The front-to-back ratio decreases

E2C07

5. What is the Cabrillo format?

• A. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
• B. A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
• C. The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
• D. The most common set of contest rules

E4D03

6. How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

• A. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
• B. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
• C. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
• D. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters

E9C08

7. What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 75 degrees
• B. 45 degrees
• C. 7.5 degrees
• D. 25 degrees

E8A01

8. What type of wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?

• A. A cosine wave
• B. A square wave
• C. A sine wave
• D. A tangent wave

E7E03

9. How does an analog phase modulator function?

• A. By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
• B. By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
• C. By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
• D. By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals

E7F05

10. Which of the following is a technique for providing high stability oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

• A. All of these choices are correct
• B. Use a GPS signal reference
• C. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
• D. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator

E1A02

11. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

• A. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
• B. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
• C. 300 Hz above the lower band edge
• D. The exact lower band edge

E1D05

12. What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station?

• A. All except Technician Class
• B. All classes
• C. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class
• D. Only Amateur Extra Class

E2D07

13. Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?

• A. AX.25
• B. AMTOR
• C. 802.11
• D. PACTOR

E7B03

14. Which of the following forms the output of a class D amplifier circuit?

• A. A temperature-compensated load resistor to improve linearity
• B. A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
• C. A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
• D. A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components

E2A13

15. What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

• A. LEO
• B. HEO
• C. Geomagnetic
• D. Geostationary

E6C05

16. Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

• A. Lower power consumption
• B. Immune to damage from static discharge
• C. Lower distortion
• D. Differential output capability

E8B10

17. Which of these methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into a single analog radio frequency signal?

• A. Frequency division multiplexing
• B. A diversity combiner
• C. Pulse compression
• D. Frequency shift keying

E4B12

18. What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

• A. When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms/volt will determine the voltage applied to the circuit
• B. When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms/volt will determine the size of shunt needed
• C. When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms/volt will determine the power drawn by the device under test
• D. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating will provide the input impedance of the voltmeter

E0A11

19. Which of the following injuries can result from using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?

• A. Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
• B. Blood clotting from the intense magnetic field
• C. Ingestion of ozone gas from the cooling system
• D. Localized heating of the body from RF exposure in excess of the MPE limits

E1E09

20. What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

• A. All of these choices are correct
• B. A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence
• C. A sentence of up to one year in prison
• D. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant

E5A15

21. What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?

• A. 22.36 MHz
• B. 11.18 MHz
• C. 3.76 MHz
• D. 1.78 MHz

E1F03

22. Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

• A. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
• B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
• C. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government
• D. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station

E6E03

23. What is one aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

• A. The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
• B. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light
• C. Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltage
• D. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic field

E5D01

24. What is the result of skin effect?

• A. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
• B. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
• C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance
• D. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface

E5B13

25. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms?

• A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• B. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• C. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E6F09

26. What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

• A. The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
• B. The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
• C. The effective payback period
• D. The output RF power divided by the input dc power

E5C05

27. In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?

• A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
• B. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
• C. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
• D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees

E3C09

28. Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to propagate for hundreds of miles?

• A. Ground wave
• B. Faraday rotation
• C. D-region absorption
• D. Tropospheric ducting

E3B08

29. What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

• A. Sporadic-E
• B. Gray-line
• C. Transequatorial
• D. Long-path

E4E06

30. What is a major cause of atmospheric static?

• A. Solar radio frequency emissions
• B. Thunderstorms
• C. Meteor showers
• D. Geomagnetic storms

E7D05

31. Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?

• A. A shunt regulator
• B. A shunt current source
• C. A constant current source
• D. A series regulator

E4C12

32. What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?

• A. Output-offset overshoot
• B. Undesired signals may be heard
• C. Thermal-noise distortion
• D. Filter ringing

E4A06

33. Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?

• A. The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer
• B. Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
• C. All of these choices are correct
• D. The spectral output of a transmitter

E9F12

34. What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

• A. The same as the input impedance to the generator
• B. Very low impedance
• C. Very high impedance
• D. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line

E7C10

35. Which of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater duplexer?

• A. A DSP filter
• B. An L-C filter
• C. A cavity filter
• D. A crystal filter

E6B02

36. What is an important characteristic of a Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power supply rectifier?

• A. Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
• B. Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
• C. Enhanced carrier retention time
• D. Less forward voltage drop

E9H04

37. What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains and losses?

• A. Effective radiated power
• B. Power factor
• C. Apparent power
• D. Half-power bandwidth

E7A05

38. Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

• A. Astable multivibrator
• B. Monostable multivibrator
• C. T flip-flop
• D. J-K flip-flop

E2B14

39. What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

• A. Tone amplitude
• B. Sync amplitude
• C. Sync frequency
• D. Tone frequency

E9G01

40. Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

• A. Radiation resistance
• B. Antenna radiation pattern
• C. Impedance along transmission lines
• D. Radio propagation

E9D11

41. What is the function of a loading coil as used with an HF mobile antenna?

• A. To cancel capacitive reactance
• B. To lower the losses
• C. To lower the Q
• D. To increase the SWR bandwidth

E6A14

42. How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?

• A. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance
• B. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance
• C. They are both low impedance
• D. They are both high impedance

E7H01

43. What are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?

• A. Pierce, Fenner and Beane
• B. Taft, Hartley and Pierce
• C. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
• D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce

E8C12

44. What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

• A. The signal can overpower interfering signals
• B. Faster transmission rate
• C. Some types of errors can be detected
• D. Foreign language characters can be sent

E1B07

45. Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

• A. On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
• B. At the highest frequency of the channel
• C. At the lowest frequency of the channel
• D. At the center frequency of the channel

E6D13

46. What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are to be displayed on the screen?

• A. Electromagnetic
• B. Radar
• C. Tubular
• D. Electrostatic

E7G13

47. What is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?

• A. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
• B. The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition
• C. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
• D. The differential input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero

E3A08

48. When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?

• A. The D layer
• B. The F2 layer
• C. The E layer
• D. The F1 layer

E9E03

49. What is the name of the matching system that uses a section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at the feed point?

• A. The delta match
• B. The stub match
• C. The gamma match
• D. The omega match

E8D09

50. What is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

• A. Waves that circle the Earth
• B. Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
• C. Waves with a rotating electric field
• D. Waves produced by a loop antenna