Practice Exam

Element 4: Extra (Expires June 30)

E6C09

1. What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?

E3C10

2. What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

E1C10

3. What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHz?

E6B05

4. What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?

Figure

E9G07

5. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

E3A01

6. What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by EME?

E5A10

7. How is the Q of an RLC series resonant circuit calculated?

E2B11

8. What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

E5B06

9. What is susceptance?

E2A12

10. What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?

E7F10

11. What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a Direct Digital Conversion SDR?

E4D04

12. Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

E9H06

13. What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

E2E01

14. Which of the following types of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

E1D09

15. Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

E2C10

16. Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another frequency?

E3B07

17. What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?

E2D11

18. Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate station location?

E7G06

19. What is the gain-bandwidth of an operational amplifier?

E1B09

20. Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

E7C04

21. How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

E6D08

22. What is one reason for using powdered-iron cores rather than ferrite cores in an inductor?

E7B09

23. Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?

E7H03

24. How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

E9D02

25. How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

E5C09

26. When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent?

E8D02

27. What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

E6E07

28. What type of transmission line is used for connections to MMICs?

E1F02

29. What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?

E4B11

30. Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?

Figure

E9B05

31. What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

E7E05

32. What circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?

E7D03

33. What device is typically used as a stable voltage reference in a linear voltage regulator?

E8C08

34. How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

E1A08

35. If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

E4A06

36. What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope caused by setting the time base too slow?

E9E08

37. What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?

E9A07

38. What is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?

E4C09

39. Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for the design of the IF in a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?

E9F09

40. What is the approximate physical length of a foam polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically 1/4 wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?

E0A04

41. When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

E4E03

42. Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

E5D09

43. What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?

E8B11

44. What is digital time division multiplexing?

E8A08

45. Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?

E1E06

46. Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

E6F02

47. What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

E6A04

48. What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

E9C14

49. How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?

E7A05

50. Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?