Practice Exam

E4D10

1. What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

• A. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
• B. A pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals
• C. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
• D. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

E5B03

2. How is impedance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance?

• A. Take the reciprocal of the angle and change the sign of the magnitude
• B. Take the reciprocal of the magnitude and change the sign of the angle
• C. Take the square root of the magnitude and add 180 degrees to the angle
• D. Square the magnitude and subtract 90 degrees from the angle

E7D06

3. What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

• A. It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
• B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source
• C. It provides regulation by switching or "chopping" the input DC voltage
• D. It controls the current to keep the output voltage constant

E6D01

4. What is piezoelectricity?

• A. The ability of materials to generate voltage when an electromagnetic wave of a certain frequency is applied
• B. The ability of materials to generate electromagnetic waves of a certain frequency when voltage is applied
• C. A characteristic of materials that generate a voltage when stressed and that flex when a voltage is applied
• D. A characteristic of materials that have an index of refraction which depends on the polarization of the electromagnetic wave passing through it

E7A02

5. What is the function of a decade counter?

• A. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
• B. It produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse
• C. It produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
• D. It decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display

E4A02

6. Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

• A. SWR and time
• B. SWR and frequency
• C. Signal amplitude and time
• D. Signal amplitude and frequency

E6E06

7. What characteristics of MMICs make them a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

• A. Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
• B. The ability to retrieve information from a single signal, even in the presence of other strong signals
• C. Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
• D. Extremely high Q factor and high stability over a wide temperature range

E3C12

8. Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

• A. Transequatorial propagation on 6 meters is likely
• B. Long-path propagation on the higher HF bands is likely
• C. A temperature inversion has occurred
• D. A coronal mass ejection impact or a solar flare has occurred

E7B02

9. What is a Class D amplifier?

• A. An amplifier biased to be relatively free from distortion
• B. An amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
• C. A low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity
• D. An amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency

E1C05

10. Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled?

• A. Only when transmitting SSB or CW
• B. On any mode approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
• C. Never
• D. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions

E9C02

11. What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4- wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

• A. A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array
• B. Omni-directional
• C. Cardioid
• D. A figure-eight end-fire along the axis of the array

E1B11

12. What does PRB-1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures?

• A. Such structures must be permitted if certified by a registered professional engineer
• B. Such structures must be permitted when use for emergency communications can be demonstrated
• C. No limitations may be placed on antenna size or placement
• D. Reasonable accommodations of amateur radio must be made

E9D03

13. What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip?

• A. Near the center of the vertical radiator
• B. At a voltage maximum
• C. At a voltage null
• D. As low as possible on the vertical radiator

E8B02

14. How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?

• A. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
• B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
• C. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
• D. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency

E4E12

15. What causes interference received as a series of carriers at regular intervals across a wide frequency range?

• A. Wireless security camera transmitters
• B. Switch-mode power supplies
• C. Radar transmitters
• D. Electric fences

E7H12

16. Which of the following ensures that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

• A. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
• B. Bias the crystal at a specified current
• C. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
• D. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage

E9F12

17. What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?

• A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• B. Very low impedance
• C. The same as the input impedance to the generator
• D. Very high impedance

E1A06

18. What is the required transmit frequency of a CW signal for channelized 60 meter operation?

• A. At the lowest frequency of the channel
• B. At the highest frequency of the channel
• C. At the center frequency of the channel
• D. On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel

E2D08

19. What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

• A. Burst
• B. Acknowledgement
• C. Connect
• D. Unnumbered Information

E2C11

20. How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

• A. Send your full call sign once or twice
• B. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is," then your call sign three times
• C. Send your full call sign and grid square
• D. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact

E4C14

21. What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control?

• A. To permit listening on a different frequency from the transmitting frequency
• B. To tune in stations slightly off frequency without changing the transmit frequency
• C. To reduce interference from stations transmitting on adjacent frequencies
• D. To change frequency rapidly

E1E06

22. Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

• A. The designated monitoring VE
• B. Only the VE session manager
• C. Each administering VE
• D. The VEC coordinating the session

E6F10

23. What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells?

• A. Selenium
• B. Cadmium sulfide
• C. Indium arsenide
• D. Silicon

E7G08

24. How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

• A. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
• B. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
• C. It does not vary with frequency
• D. It increases linearly with increasing frequency

E9A10

25. Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

• A. Installing a ground radial system
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Shortening the radiating element
• D. Isolating the coax shield from ground

E6C04

26. Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

• A. It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
• B. Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
• C. It is immune to electrostatic damage
• D. All these choices are correct

E9B04

27. What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 15 dB
• B. 28 dB
• C. 3 dB
• D. 38 dB

E1F11

28. Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

• A. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
• B. It must have received an Underwriters Laboratory certification for electrical safety as well as having met IEEE standard 14.101(B)
• C. It must exhibit a gain of less than 23 dB when driven by 10 watts or less
• D. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

E8D02

29. What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

• A. Binary phase-shift keying
• B. Direct sequence
• C. Phase compandored spread spectrum
• D. Frequency hopping

E7E01

30. Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals?

• A. Reactance modulation of the final amplifier
• B. Reactance modulation of a local oscillator
• C. Balanced modulation of a local oscillator
• D. Balanced modulation of the audio amplifier

E9E09

31. Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Beta or hairpin match
• C. Gamma match
• D. Double-bazooka match

E6A10

32. In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

• A. 5
• B. 4
• C. 2
• D. 6

E4B03

33. Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

• A. S21
• B. S22
• C. S12
• D. S11

E5D01

34. What is the result of conductor skin effect?

• A. Resistance decreases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient
• B. Resistance increases as frequency increases because RF current flows closer to the surface
• C. Resistance increases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient
• D. Resistance decreases as frequency increases because electron mobility increases

E9H09

35. What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?

• A. Omnidirectional
• B. Bidirectional
• C. Hyperbolic
• D. Cardioid

E1D11

36. Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

• A. Only those of Amateur Extra class operators
• B. Any amateur licensee who has successfully completed the AMSAT space communications course
• C. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operators
• D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

E0A07

37. What is meant by "100% tie-off" regarding tower safety?

• A. All loose ropes and guys secured to a fixed structure
• B. All tools secured to the climber's harness
• C. All circuit breakers feeding power to the tower must be tied closed with tape, cable, or ties
• D. At least one lanyard attached to the tower at all times

E5C12

38. Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

• A. Point 1
• B. Point 7
• C. Point 8
• D. Point 3

E8A08

39. Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
• C. Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
• D. Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies

E2E12

40. How do ALE stations establish contact?

• A. ALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter
• B. ALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received
• C. ALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on
• D. ALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use

E3A02

41. What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

• A. A fluttery, irregular fading
• B. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
• C. The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
• D. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal

E8C11

42. What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

• A. Baud is twice the symbol rate
• B. The relationship depends on the specific code used
• C. Baud rate is half the symbol rate
• D. They are the same

E6B06

43. Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

• A. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
• B. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
• C. In oscillator circuits as the negative resistance element
• D. In power supplies as a constant voltage reference

E9G01

44. Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

• A. Radio propagation
• B. Antenna radiation pattern
• C. Impedance along transmission lines
• D. Radiation resistance

E2A10

45. What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

• A. Geostationary
• B. HEO
• C. Geomagnetic
• D. LEO

E5A06

46. What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

• A. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)
• B. It equals 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)
• C. It is at a minimum
• D. It is at a maximum

E7F12

47. Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters?

• A. FIR filters can respond faster to impulses
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. FIR filters can delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount
• D. FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements

E3B12

48. What is chordal-hop propagation?

• A. Successive ionospheric refractions without an intermediate reflection from the ground
• B. Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station
• C. Propagation across the geomagnetic equator
• D. Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations

E7C08

49. Which of the following is most frequently used as a band-pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers?

• A. A Sallen-Key filter
• B. A helical filter
• C. A finite impulse response filter
• D. A swinging choke filter

E2B01

50. In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

• A. Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
• B. Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel
• C. 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval
• D. 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data