Practice Exam

E7H03

1. What is a phase-locked loop?

• A. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential phase input
• B. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
• C. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
• D. An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator

E1D01

2. What is the definition of telemetry?

• A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
• B. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
• C. Two-way transmissions of data
• D. Two-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet

E5D09

3. What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors?

• A. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
• B. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
• C. Energy is stored in magnetic or electric fields, but power is not dissipated
• D. It is canceled by Coulomb forces in the capacitor and inductor

E9A03

4. What term describing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses?

• A. Apparent power
• B. Half-power bandwidth
• C. Power factor
• D. Effective radiated power

E6B02

5. Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power supply rectifier?

• A. More constant reverse avalanche voltage
• B. Longer carrier retention time
• C. Lower forward voltage drop
• D. Much higher reverse voltage breakdown

E7E09

6. What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high?

• A. Spurious mixer products are generated
• B. Mixer blanking occurs
• C. Automatic limiting occurs
• D. Excessive AGC voltage levels are generated

E4E01

7. What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

• A. Excessive ringing
• B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier

E2A02

8. Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder?

• A. Signal position in the band is reversed
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Doppler shift is reduced because the uplink and downlink shifts are in opposite directions
• D. Upper sideband on the uplink becomes lower sideband on the downlink, and vice versa

E5B12

9. What is admittance?

• A. The inverse of impedance
• B. The inverse of reactance
• C. The term for the on-impedance of a field effect transistor
• D. The term for the gain of a field effect transistor

E7A06

10. What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

• A. It switches temporarily to an alternate state for a set time
• B. It stores one bit of data
• C. It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
• D. It produces a continuous square wave

E3B12

11. What is chordal-hop propagation?

• A. Successive ionospheric refractions without an intermediate reflection from the ground
• B. Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations
• C. Propagation across the geomagnetic equator
• D. Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station

E9H04

12. What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small-loop direction-finding antenna?

• A. It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
• B. It eliminates unbalanced capacitive coupling to the antenna's surroundings, improving the depth of its nulls
• C. It adds capacitive loading, increasing the bandwidth of the antenna
• D. It increases signal strength by providing a better match to the feed line

E9D06

13. What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?

• A. It is increased
• B. It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at a voltage maximum point
• C. It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at the feed point
• D. It is decreased

E1A05

14. Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

• A. Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio license grant
• B. Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
• C. Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
• D. Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation

E5C03

15. Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

• A. A negative 45 degree phase angle
• B. A negative 90 degree phase angle
• C. A positive 45 degree phase angle
• D. A positive 90 degree phase angle

E9G11

16. In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

• A. In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
• B. In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
• C. In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
• D. In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

E8B02

17. How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?

• A. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
• B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
• C. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
• D. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency

E8A05

18. What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true-RMS calculating meter?

• A. The signal's RMS noise factor is also calculated
• B. An inverse Fourier transform can be used
• C. RMS is measured for both sinusoidal and non-sinusoidal signals
• D. The calculated RMS value can be converted directly into phasor form

E7B05

19. What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

• A. Use a phase inverter in the output filter
• B. Tune the stage for minimum loading
• C. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
• D. Tune both the input and output for maximum power

E7F02

20. What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

• A. A crystal-lattice filter
• B. A Hilbert-transform filter
• C. A phase-inverting filter
• D. An adaptive filter

E4D06

21. What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

• A. Desensitization
• B. Quieting
• C. Cross modulation interference
• D. Reciprocal mixing

E6D04

22. Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers?

• A. To simplify assembly during manufacturing
• B. To reduce power loss from eddy currents in the core
• C. To save cost by reducing the amount of magnetic material
• D. To increase the cutoff frequency by reducing capacitance

E9C09

23. Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

• A. A multi-band trap antenna
• B. A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
• C. A wire antenna center-fed through a specific length of open-wire line connected to a balun and coaxial feed line
• D. A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun

E4B08

24. Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series-tuned circuit?

• A. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
• B. The resonant frequency of the circuit
• C. The frequency shift
• D. The ratio of inductive reactance to capacitive reactance

E2C01

25. What indicator is required to be used by US-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the US?

• A. / followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station
• B. / followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
• C. No additional indicator is required
• D. /R# where # is the district of the remote station

E9F09

26. What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. Very high impedance
• B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
• C. The same as the generator output impedance
• D. Very low impedance

E1E06

27. Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

• A. The designated monitoring VE
• B. The VEC coordinating the session
• C. Each administering VE
• D. Only the VE session manager

E9B07

28. What is the difference in radiated power between a lossless antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the same power?

• A. The power radiated from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna
• B. They are the same
• C. The power radiated from the isotropic radiator is 2.15 dB greater than that from the directional antenna
• D. The power radiated from the directional antenna is stronger by its front-to-back ratio

E7C04

29. How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

• A. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
• B. Reactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances
• C. It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to the desired value
• D. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance

E9E03

30. What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

• A. Gamma match
• B. T-match
• C. Stub match
• D. Delta match

E8D05

31. What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

• A. Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
• B. Insert low-pass filters at the transmitter output
• C. Insert high-pass filters at the transmitter output
• D. Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times

E2B11

32. What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

• A. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
• B. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
• C. To identify the SSTV mode being used
• D. To provide vertical synchronization

E2D04

33. What technology is used for real-time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

• A. PACTOR III
• B. APRS
• C. FT8
• D. Bandwidth compressed LORAN

E6A09

34. What is a depletion-mode field-effect transistor (FET)?

• A. An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
• B. An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
• C. An FET for which holes are the majority carriers
• D. An FET that exhibits very high electron mobility due to a lack of holes in the N-type material

E1F10

35. Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

• A. Only General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators
• B. Only Amateur Extra class operators
• C. Any licensed amateur operator
• D. Only Technician, General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators

E4C09

36. Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?

• A. Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
• B. Improved receiver noise figure
• C. Fewer components in the receiver
• D. Reduced drift

E5A12

37. What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

• A. 15.7 kHz
• B. 218.3 kHz
• C. 436.6 kHz
• D. 31.4 kHz

E6C08

38. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

• A. 1
• B. 3
• C. 2
• D. 4

E0A10

39. When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters?

• A. When the output power from the transmitter is less than 100 watts
• B. An evaluation must always be performed
• C. When the station's operating mode is CW
• D. When the ERP of the station is less than 10 watts

E3C01

40. What is the cause of short-term radio blackouts?

• A. Coronal mass ejections
• B. Sunspots on the solar equator
• C. Solar flares
• D. North-oriented interplanetary magnetic field

E7G05

41. How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp audio filter?

• A. Restrict gain but increase Q
• B. Restrict Q but increase gain
• C. Increase both gain and Q
• D. Restrict both gain and Q

E6F05

42. Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

• A. An optical computing device in which light is coupled between devices by fiber optics
• B. A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
• C. A device that detects rotation by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
• D. A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog-to-digital conversion

E8C13

43. What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal?

• A. The possible phase and amplitude states for each symbol
• B. The number of bits used for error correction in the protocol
• C. Frequency response of the signal stream
• D. How many carriers may be present at the same time

E1B04

44. What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70-centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?

• A. File an FAA NOTAM (Notice to Air Missions) with the repeater system's ERP, call sign, and six-character grid locator
• B. Reduce the repeater antenna HAAT (Height Above Average Terrain)
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Cease operation or make changes to the repeater that mitigate the interference

E3A05

45. How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented?

• A. They are at right angles
• B. They are parallel
• C. They are 90 degrees out of phase
• D. They are tangential

E2E07

46. How does Q65 differ from JT65?

• A. Keyboard-to keyboard operation is supported
• B. Quadrature modulation is used
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Multiple receive cycles are averaged

E1C09

47. What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

• A. 3.0
• B. 2.0
• C. 1.0
• D. 0.5

E4A08

48. Which of the following is used to measure SWR?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Vector network analyzer
• C. Directional wattmeter
• D. Antenna analyzer

E7D01

49. How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work?

• A. The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
• B. It has a ramp voltage as its output
• C. The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
• D. It eliminates the need for a pass transistor

E6E10

50. What advantage does surface-mount technology offer at RF compared to using through-hole components?

• A. Smaller circuit area
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Components have less parasitic inductance and capacitance
• D. Shorter circuit board traces