Practice Exam

E9G08

1. What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

• A. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
• B. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
• C. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
• D. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis

E7D03

2. What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear voltage regulator?

• A. A Zener diode
• B. A tunnel diode
• C. An SCR
• D. A varactor diode

E1D09

3. Which UHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for a space station?

• A. 33 cm and 13 cm
• B. 70 cm and 13 cm
• C. 70 cm and 33 cm
• D. 70 cm only

E2E01

4. Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

• A. Pulse modulation
• B. Spread spectrum
• C. FSK
• D. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal

E5C08

5. What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

• A. Maidenhead grid
• B. Faraday grid
• C. Elliptical coordinates
• D. Polar coordinates

E9C10

6. Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

• A. A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
• B. An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
• C. An end fed dipole antenna
• D. A dipole constructed from zip cord

E7H11

7. What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

• A. Broadband noise
• B. Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
• C. Digital conversion noise
• D. Nyquist limit noise

E1E14

8. For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

• A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license
• B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
• C. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
• D. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement

E3A01

9. What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by Moon bounce?

• A. 5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
• B. 500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
• C. 12,000 miles, if the Moon is visible by both stations
• D. 2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee

E9A07

10. What is meant by antenna gain?

• A. The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power
• B. The ratio of the radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to that of a reference antenna
• C. The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the opposite direction
• D. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses

E9B10

11. What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?

• A. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
• B. A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
• C. A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct location in space
• D. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it

E8A06

12. What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

• A. 2.5 to 1
• B. 100 to 1
• C. 25 to 1
• D. 1 to 1

E7E06

13. Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

• A. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
• B. To reduce impulse noise reception
• C. To remove third-order distortion products
• D. For higher efficiency

E7C12

14. Which describes a Pi-L-network used for matching a vacuum tube final amplifier to a 50 ohm unbalanced output?

• A. A network with only three discrete parts
• B. A Pi-network with an additional series inductor on the output
• C. A Phase Inverter Load network
• D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

E1F03

15. Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

• A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
• B. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government
• C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
• D. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit

E6E07

16. Which of the following is typically used to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?

• A. Ground-plane construction
• B. Wave-soldering construction
• C. Point-to-point construction
• D. Microstrip construction

E7B11

17. In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

• A. Emitter bypass
• B. Fixed bias
• C. Self bias
• D. Output load resistor

E1A06

18. Where must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for 60 meter operation?

• A. On any frequency where the signal's sidebands are within the channel
• B. At the lowest frequency of the channel
• C. At the highest frequency of the channel
• D. At the center frequency of the channel

E4C07

19. What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

• A. The meter display sensitivity
• B. The minimum discernible signal
• C. The maximum detectable spectrum
• D. The multiplex distortion stability

E9H08

20. What is the function of a sense antenna?

• A. It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
• B. It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
• C. It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one direction
• D. It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles

E8B03

21. What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

• A. 3000
• B. 1000
• C. 0.3
• D. 3

E7A04

22. How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

• A. 8
• B. 2
• C. 4
• D. 1

E6A08

23. What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

• A. Beta cutoff frequency
• B. Alpha cutoff frequency
• C. Alpha rejection frequency
• D. Corner frequency

E4B15

24. Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?

• A. The inductance to capacitance ratio
• B. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
• C. The resonant frequency of the circuit
• D. The frequency shift

E2D11

25. Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate your location?

• A. Polar coordinates
• B. Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
• C. Time and frequency
• D. Latitude and longitude

E2A02

26. What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite?

• A. From north to south
• B. From east to west
• C. From west to east
• D. From south to north

E3B01

27. What is transequatorial propagation?

• A. Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
• B. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator
• C. Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
• D. Propagation between two stations at the same latitude

E8D12

28. What is the advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?

• A. The signal can overpower interfering signals
• B. Some types of errors can be detected
• C. Foreign language characters can be sent
• D. Faster transmission rate

E2C11

29. How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

• A. Send your full call sign once or twice
• B. Send your full call sign and grid square
• C. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is", then your call sign three times
• D. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact

E4E03

30. Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

• A. Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
• B. Signals which appear at one IF but not another
• C. Signals which are constant at all IF levels
• D. Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth

E5B03

31. What happens to the phase angle of a reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

• A. The sign is reversed
• B. The susceptance phase angle is the inverse of the reactance phase angle
• C. It is shifted by 90 degrees
• D. It is unchanged

E7G09

32. What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

• A. -0.23 volts
• B. 2.3 volts
• C. -2.3 volts
• D. 0.23 volts

E6C03

33. What is tri-state logic?

• A. Logic devices that utilize ternary math
• B. Proprietary logic devices manufactured by Tri-State Devices
• C. Low power logic devices designed to operate at 3 volts
• D. Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states

E2B19

34. What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions?

• A. They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type
• B. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies
• C. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345 MHz, and 28.945 MHz
• D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz

E8C01

35. How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

• A. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
• B. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
• C. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
• D. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters

E5A09

36. How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

• A. Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
• B. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
• C. Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
• D. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance

E4A09

37. When using a computer's soundcard input to digitize signals, what is the highest frequency signal that can be digitized without aliasing?

• A. It depends on how the data is stored internally
• B. The same as the sample rate
• C. One-half the sample rate
• D. One-tenth the sample rate

E7F14

38. Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

• A. Complex phasor representations
• B. Higher data rate
• C. More taps
• D. Double-precision math routines

E9E02

39. What is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?

• A. The gamma match
• B. The epsilon match
• C. The stub match
• D. The delta match

E9F07

40. How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?

• A. Smaller reflection coefficient
• B. Lower loss
• C. Lower velocity factor
• D. Higher SWR

E6F03

41. What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

• A. A lens and a photomultiplier
• B. A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
• C. An LED and a phototransistor
• D. An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser

E9D01

42. How does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

• A. Gain does not change
• B. Gain increases by 3 dB
• C. Gain is multiplied by 0.707
• D. Gain increases by 6 dB

E4D07

43. Which describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?

• A. The desired signal can no longer be heard
• B. A large increase in background noise
• C. A reduction in apparent signal strength
• D. The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal

E3C04

44. What does the value of Bz (B sub Z) represent?

• A. Critical frequency for vertical transmissions
• B. Duration of long-delayed echoes
• C. Direction and strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
• D. Geomagnetic field stability

E1C06

45. Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?

• A. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station
• B. A control operator need not be present at the control point
• C. A control operator must be present at the control point
• D. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled

E6B10

46. In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

• A. 7
• B. 5
• C. 1
• D. 6

E1B05

47. What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

• A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Arecibo Radio Telescope
• B. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
• C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
• D. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area

E5D01

48. What is the result of skin effect?

• A. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
• B. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance
• C. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
• D. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface

E0A03

49. Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

• A. All of the choices are correct
• B. Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
• C. Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
• D. Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields

E6D10

50. What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

• A. Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
• B. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
• C. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
• D. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics