Practice Exam

E9B06

1. What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 7.5 degrees
• B. 75 degrees
• C. 25 degrees
• D. 45 degrees

E6E01

2. Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?

• A. Higher noise figures
• B. Higher electron mobility
• C. Lower junction voltage drop
• D. Lower transconductance

E6F11

3. What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

• A. 1.5 volts
• B. 0.7 volts
• C. 1.1 volts
• D. 0.5 volts

E3B03

4. At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur?

• A. Morning
• B. Late at night
• C. Afternoon or early evening
• D. Noon

E2C12

5. What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corresponding change in the transmitted signal?

• A. Latency
• B. Hang time
• C. Jitter
• D. Anti-VOX

E8A07

6. What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

• A. Amplifier gain
• B. The frequency of the modulating signal
• C. The degree of carrier suppression
• D. Speech characteristics

E7F11

7. What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct-sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?

• A. Missing codes and jitter
• B. Reference voltage level and sample width in bits
• C. Data storage transfer rate
• D. Sample clock phase noise

E5A10

8. What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 10 picofarads?

• A. 23.5 MHz
• B. 7.12 MHz
• C. 7.12 kHz
• D. 23.5 kHz

E1C05

9. Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled?

• A. Never
• B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
• C. Only when transmitting SSB or CW
• D. On any mode approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E9G11

10. In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

• A. In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
• B. In fractions of antenna electrical frequency
• C. In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
• D. In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency

E6C09

11. What is used to design the configuration of a field-programmable gate array (FPGA)?

• A. Machine and assembly language
• B. Hardware description language (HDL)
• C. An auto-router
• D. Karnaugh maps

E4C13

12. What is reciprocal mixing?

• A. In-phase signals cancelling in a mixer resulting in loss of receiver sensitivity
• B. Local oscillator phase noise mixing with adjacent strong signals to create interference to desired signals
• C. Two digital signals combining from alternate time slots
• D. Two out-of-band signals mixing to generate an in-band spurious signal

E9D09

13. What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna?

• A. To lower the losses
• B. To resonate the antenna by cancelling the capacitive reactance
• C. To lower the Q
• D. To increase the SWR bandwidth by increasing net reactance

E7D14

14. What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Discharge the capacitors when voltage is removed
• C. Provide a minimum load on the supply
• D. Equalize the voltage across each capacitor

E1A03

15. What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20-meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal?

• A. 14.0708 MHz
• B. 14.3490 MHz
• C. 14.1002 MHz
• D. 14.1472 MHz

E8B09

16. What is deviation ratio?

• A. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
• B. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
• C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
• D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency

E5B05

17. What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance?

• A. It is replaced by its reciprocal
• B. The sign is reversed
• C. It is shifted by 90 degrees
• D. It is unchanged

E7H13

18. Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

• A. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
• D. Use a GPS signal reference

E1D08

19. Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

• A. 2 meters
• B. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
• C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters
• D. 6 meters and 2 meters

E1B10

20. What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

• A. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF, and UHF bands
• B. Specific local government channels
• C. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
• D. All these choices are correct

E9F03

21. Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length?

• A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
• B. Electromagnetic waves move faster in coaxial cable than in air
• C. Skin effect is more pronounced in the coaxial cable
• D. Electromagnetic waves move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air

E7B05

22. What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

• A. Tune both the input and output for maximum power
• B. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
• C. Tune the stage for minimum loading
• D. Use a phase inverter in the output filter

E4A10

23. Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply's output ripple?

• A. Edge
• B. Single-shot
• C. Level
• D. Line

E4B06

24. How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

• A. 75 watts
• B. 125 watts
• C. 100 watts
• D. 112.5 watts

E2A13

25. Which of the following techniques is used by digital satellites to relay messages?

• A. Store-and-forward
• B. Digipeating
• C. Multisatellite relaying
• D. Node hopping

E4D14

26. What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of -100 dBm represent?

• A. 0.001 microwatts
• B. 0.1 microwatt
• C. 0.1 picowatts
• D. 100 microwatts

E0A11

27. To what should lanyards be attached while climbing?

• A. Tower rungs
• B. Antenna mast
• C. Guy brackets
• D. Tower legs

E9C09

28. Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

• A. A wire antenna center-fed through a specific length of open-wire line connected to a balun and coaxial feed line
• B. A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
• C. A multi-band trap antenna
• D. A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun

E9H10

29. How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

• A. By utilizing high impedance wire for the coupling loop
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
• D. By increasing the number of turns and/or the area enclosed by the loop

E9E01

30. Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom?

• A. Shunt-fed
• B. Gamma
• C. T-match
• D. Beta or hairpin

E5C05

31. What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

• A. Phasor diagram
• B. Near field diagram
• C. Far field diagram
• D. Venn diagram

E9A06

32. What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

• A. 317 watts
• B. 126 watts
• C. 2,000 watts
• D. 300 watts

E7A10

33. What is a truth table?

• A. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for an op-amp
• B. A diagram showing logic states when the digital gate output is true
• C. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
• D. A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp

E3C08

34. Which of the following is the space-weather term for an extreme geomagnetic storm?

• A. X5
• B. B9
• C. G5
• D. M9

E5D12

35. What is reactive power?

• A. The power consumed in inductors and capacitors
• B. Power consumed in circuit Q
• C. Power consumed by an inductor's wire resistance
• D. Wattless, nonproductive power

E7G10

36. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

• A. 0.03
• B. 76
• C. 38
• D. 1

E2B03

37. How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

• A. By scanning lines from left-to-right in one field and right-to-left in the next
• B. By scanning odd-numbered lines in one field and even-numbered lines in the next
• C. By scanning two fields simultaneously
• D. By scanning each field from bottom-to-top

E6B02

38. Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power supply rectifier?

• A. Lower forward voltage drop
• B. More constant reverse avalanche voltage
• C. Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
• D. Longer carrier retention time

E7E02

39. What is the function of a reactance modulator?

• A. Produce AM signals by varying a resistance
• B. Produce PM or FM signals by varying a resistance
• C. Produce AM signals by varying an inductance
• D. Produce PM or FM signals by varying a capacitance

E2E07

40. How does Q65 differ from JT65?

• A. Multiple receive cycles are averaged
• B. Quadrature modulation is used
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Keyboard-to keyboard operation is supported

E1F05

41. Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

• A. 420 MHz - 430 MHz
• B. 53 MHz - 54 MHz
• C. 440 MHz - 450 MHz
• D. 222 MHz - 223 MHz

E1E05

42. What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

• A. Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
• B. Return the application document to the examinee
• C. Destroy the application form
• D. Maintain the application form with the VEC's records

E8C14

43. What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network?

• A. Internet Protocol (IP)
• B. Trust server
• C. Talk group
• D. Email

E8D07

44. What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

• A. Excessive numbers of retries
• B. Excessive frequency deviation
• C. Excessive transmit audio levels
• D. Bit errors in the modem

E3A06

45. What should be done to continue a long-distance contact when the MUF for that path decreases due to darkness?

• A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band
• B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band
• C. Change to an antenna with greater beam width
• D. Change to an antenna with a higher takeoff angle

E6D11

46. Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

• A. Ferrite
• B. Brass
• C. Aluminum
• D. Ceramic

E4E01

47. What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
• C. Excessive ringing
• D. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal

E6A10

48. In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

• A. 5
• B. 2
• C. 6
• D. 4

E7C05

49. Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

• A. A passive op-amp filter
• B. A Chebyshev filter
• C. A Butterworth filter
• D. An active LC filter

E2D09

50. What type of modulation is used by JT65?

• A. PSK
• B. QAM
• C. RTTY
• D. Multitone AFSK