Practice Exam

E7E05

1. What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies?

• A. A de-emphasis network
• B. A pre-emphasis network
• C. A harmonic enhancer
• D. A heterodyne enhancer

E1A05

2. Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

• A. Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
• B. Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
• C. Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio license grant
• D. Only a person named in an amateur station license grant

E7B01

3. For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull, Class AB amplifier conduct?

• A. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
• B. Exactly 180 degrees
• C. Less than 180 degrees
• D. The entire cycle

E4D10

4. What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

• A. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
• B. A pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals
• C. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
• D. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

E4A02

5. Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

• A. Signal amplitude and time
• B. SWR and time
• C. SWR and frequency
• D. Signal amplitude and frequency

E5A03

6. What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

• A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
• B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
• C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
• D. High, compared to the circuit resistance

E7A07

7. What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

• A. It produces a 0 at its output if some but not all inputs are 1
• B. It produces a 0 at its output only if all inputs are 1
• C. It produces a 1 at its output only if all inputs are 1
• D. It produces a 0 at its output only if all inputs are 0

E2C01

8. What indicator is required to be used by US-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the US?

• A. / followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
• B. /R# where # is the district of the remote station
• C. / followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station
• D. No additional indicator is required

E9E03

9. What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

• A. T-match
• B. Stub match
• C. Delta match
• D. Gamma match

E7C02

10. What is the frequency response of a T-network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor?

• A. Notch
• B. Low-pass
• C. High-pass
• D. Band-pass

E6E02

11. Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

• A. DIP
• B. PLCC
• C. SOT
• D. BGA

E3B07

12. What effect does lowering a signal's transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propagation?

• A. The critical frequency increases
• B. Faraday rotation becomes stronger
• C. The MUF decreases
• D. The distance covered by each hop increases

E3A04

13. In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel?

• A. It depends on the phase angle of the electric field
• B. It depends on the phase angle of the magnetic field
• C. It travels at a right angle to the electric and magnetic fields
• D. It travels parallel to the electric and magnetic fields

E9H05

14. What challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. It has a bidirectional null pattern
• C. It does not have a clearly defined null
• D. It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands

E9D08

15. What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

• A. SWR bandwidth decreases
• B. SWR bandwidth increases
• C. Gain is reduced
• D. More common-mode current is present on the feed line

E4E07

16. Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

• A. Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield
• B. Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
• C. Common-mode currents on the shield and conductors
• D. Use of braided shielding material

E3C10

17. What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

• A. The ratio of X-ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
• B. The solar wind velocity at an angle of 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to geomagnetic storms
• C. UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to the solar flux index
• D. The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-ray flare levels

E1F07

18. When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

• A. When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $25
• B. At no time
• C. When neither the amateur nor their employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
• D. When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $50

E2E05

19. Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

• A. PSK31
• B. MFSK16
• C. WSPR
• D. RTTY

E7H11

20. What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

• A. Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
• B. Broadband noise
• C. Harmonics of the local oscillator
• D. Digital conversion noise

E6A05

21. How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor?

• A. An FET has higher input impedance
• B. They are both high impedance
• C. An FET has lower input impedance
• D. They are both low impedance

E5C06

22. What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent?

• A. 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
• B. 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance
• C. 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
• D. 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance

E5D03

23. What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power?

• A. They are in phase
• B. They are 90 degrees out of phase
• C. They are out of phase
• D. They are 45 degrees out of phase

E0A02

24. When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

• A. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
• B. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
• C. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
• D. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits

E2B01

25. In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

• A. Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
• B. 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval
• C. Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel
• D. 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data

E9F08

26. Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

• A. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has higher velocity factor
• B. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower loss per unit of length
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower safe maximum operating voltage

E2A12

27. What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?

• A. To upload operational software for the transponder
• B. To relay messages between satellites
• C. To delay download of telemetry between satellites
• D. To hold digital messages in the satellite for later download

E4B10

28. Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

• A. Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
• B. Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
• C. Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
• D. Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter

E8A02

29. Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion?

• A. Level shifting
• B. Successive approximation
• C. Phase reversal
• D. Harmonic regeneration

E6D05

30. How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core?

• A. Ferrite cores generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
• B. Ferrite cores generally have better temperature stability
• C. Ferrite cores are easier to use with surface-mount technology
• D. Ferrite cores generally have lower initial permeability

E1B11

31. What does PRB-1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures?

• A. No limitations may be placed on antenna size or placement
• B. Such structures must be permitted when use for emergency communications can be demonstrated
• C. Such structures must be permitted if certified by a registered professional engineer
• D. Reasonable accommodations of amateur radio must be made

E9C09

32. Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

• A. A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun
• B. A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
• C. A multi-band trap antenna
• D. A wire antenna center-fed through a specific length of open-wire line connected to a balun and coaxial feed line

E5B12

33. What is admittance?

• A. The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
• B. The inverse of impedance
• C. The term for the on-impedance of a field effect transistor
• D. The inverse of reactance

E2D06

34. Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts?

• A. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
• B. Time-synchronous transmissions alternating between stations
• C. Storing and forwarding digital messages
• D. High-speed CW identification to avoid fading

E1E06

35. Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

• A. Each administering VE
• B. Only the VE session manager
• C. The designated monitoring VE
• D. The VEC coordinating the session

E9B04

36. What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 15 dB
• B. 38 dB
• C. 28 dB
• D. 3 dB

E6F07

37. What is a solid-state relay?

• A. A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
• B. A device that uses semiconductors to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
• C. A semiconductor switch that uses a monostable multivibrator circuit
• D. A relay that uses transistors to drive the relay coil

E7F09

38. Why is an anti-aliasing filter required in a decimator?

• A. It removes high-frequency signal components that would otherwise be reproduced as lower frequency components
• B. It notches out the sampling frequency to avoid sampling errors
• C. It peaks the response of the decimator, improving bandwidth
• D. It removes low-frequency signal components to eliminate the need for DC restoration

E6C03

39. What is tri-state logic?

• A. A counter with eight states
• B. Logic devices that utilize ternary math
• C. Logic with three output impedances which can be selected to better match the load impedance
• D. Logic devices with 0, 1, and high-impedance output states

E9G05

40. Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?

• A. Determine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials
• B. Determine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions
• C. Determine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters
• D. Determine the length and position of an impedance matching stub

E4C09

41. Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?

• A. Reduced drift
• B. Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
• C. Fewer components in the receiver
• D. Improved receiver noise figure

E7D15

42. What is the purpose of a step-start circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

• A. To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
• B. To prevent arcing across the input power switch or relay contacts
• C. To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually
• D. To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage

E8D10

43. What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

• A. Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
• B. Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
• C. Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
• D. Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes

E1C02

44. Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

• A. Third party traffic must be limited to that intended for the exclusive use of government and non-Government Organization (NGOs) involved in emergency relief activities
• B. All transmissions must be in English
• C. Communications must be limited to those incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
• D. All these choices are correct

E7G07

45. What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

• A. 24
• B. 47
• C. 4700
• D. 0.21

E1D04

46. Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Call sign
• C. The station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator
• D. The output power of the balloon transmitter

E9A02

47. What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

• A. 469 watts
• B. 420 watts
• C. 286 watts
• D. 78.7 watts

E6B10

48. In Figure E6-2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode?

• A. 6
• B. 3
• C. 1
• D. 2

E8C08

49. How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

• A. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
• B. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
• C. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
• D. Special binary codes provide automatic correction

E8B06

50. What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

• A. 0.47
• B. 2.14
• C. 47
• D. 0.214