Practice Exam

E6B10

1. In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?

• A. 1
• B. 6
• C. 5
• D. 7

E8D06

2. What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

• A. The signal can overpower interfering signals
• B. Some types of errors can be detected
• C. Faster transmission rate
• D. Foreign language characters can be sent

E7D09

3. What is the main reason to use a charge controller with a solar power system?

• A. Matching of day and night charge rates
• B. Prevention of battery undercharge
• C. Prevention of battery damage due to overcharge
• D. Control of electrolyte levels during battery discharge

E2C03

4. From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

• A. 30 meters
• B. 33 centimeters
• C. 6 meters
• D. 2 meters

E6A09

5. What is a depletion-mode FET?

• A. Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers
• B. Any FET without a channel
• C. An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
• D. An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied

E9B04

6. What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 28 dB
• B. 3 dB
• C. 15 dB
• D. 38 dB

E6D01

7. Why should core saturation of an impedance matching transformer be avoided?

• A. Temporary changes of the core permeability could result
• B. RF susceptance would increase
• C. Magnetic flux would increase with frequency
• D. Harmonics and distortion could result

E8C08

8. How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

• A. Special binary codes provide automatic correction
• B. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
• C. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
• D. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted

E4B07

9. What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

• A. The relative time between measurements
• B. The port or ports at which measurements are made
• C. Relative quality of the data
• D. Frequency order of the measurements

E6C09

10. What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?

• A. A type of transistor whose gain can be changed by digital logic circuits
• B. A logic circuit that can be modified during use
• C. Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
• D. A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit

E9E07

11. What parameter describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

• A. Characteristic impedance
• B. Velocity factor
• C. Reflection coefficient
• D. Dielectric constant

E4C12

12. Which of the following has the largest effect on an SDR receiver's dynamic range?

• A. RAM speed used for data storage
• B. Anti-aliasing input filter bandwidth
• C. CPU register width in bits
• D. Analog-to-digital converter sample width in bits

E3B01

13. What is transequatorial propagation?

• A. Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
• B. Propagation between points at the same latitude
• C. Propagation between points located on the magnetic equator
• D. Propagation between a point on the equator and its antipodal point

E6F10

14. What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical power generation?

• A. Cadmium Sulfide
• B. Silicon
• C. Copper oxide
• D. Selenium

E5D11

15. What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 60-degree phase angle between the voltage and the current?

• A. 0.866
• B. 1.414
• C. 0.5
• D. 1.73

E7A10

16. What is a truth table?

• A. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
• B. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
• C. A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp
• D. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device output is true

E7E02

17. What is the function of a reactance modulator?

• A. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
• B. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
• C. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
• D. To produce PM or FM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance

E2D11

18. Which of the following data are used by the APRS network to communicate station location?

• A. Latitude and longitude
• B. Time and frequency
• C. Radio direction finding spectrum analysis
• D. Polar coordinates

E7B09

19. Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?

• A. The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
• B. The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
• C. The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
• D. The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, and the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current

E5C08

20. What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

• A. Elliptical coordinates
• B. Polar coordinates
• C. Maidenhead grid
• D. Faraday grid

E2A10

21. What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

• A. Geomagnetic
• B. LEO
• C. Geostationary
• D. HEO

E5B04

22. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

• A. 55 seconds
• B. 220 seconds
• C. 440 seconds
• D. 110 seconds

E7H01

23. What are three oscillator circuits used in amateur radio equipment?

• A. Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
• B. Pierce, Fenner and Beane
• C. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
• D. Taft, Hartley and Pierce

E9D01

24. How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled?

• A. 6 dB
• B. 2 dB
• C. 4 dB
• D. 3 dB

E1C14

25. How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200 meter or 630 meter band?

• A. Operators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company
• B. Operators must not operate until approval is received
• C. Operators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 km of PLC systems using those frequencies
• D. Operations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC

E1E11

26. What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

• A. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
• D. Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing

E1F11

27. Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

• A. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
• B. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
• C. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
• D. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range

E9C06

28. What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic antenna?

• A. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
• B. It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
• C. It decreases the ground loss
• D. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter

E3C07

29. Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

• A. Class A
• B. Class X
• C. Class B
• D. Class M

E8A10

30. What is the purpose of a low-pass filter used in conjunction with a digital-to-analog converter?

• A. Lower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution
• B. Remove harmonics from the output caused by the discrete analog levels generated
• C. Improve accuracy by removing out-of-sequence codes from the input
• D. All these choices are correct

E9F10

31. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. Zero
• B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• C. A capacitive reactance
• D. An inductive reactance

E4E11

32. What could cause local AM broadcast band signals to combine to generate spurious signals in the MF or HF bands?

• A. You are receiving skywave signals from a distant station
• B. Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
• C. Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
• D. One or more of the broadcast stations is transmitting an over-modulated signal

E1B04

33. What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historic Places?

• A. A letter of intent must be filed with the Environmental Protection Agency
• B. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior
• C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC
• D. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service

E2B03

34. How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

• A. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lines in the next
• B. By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next
• C. By scanning two fields simultaneously
• D. By scanning each field from bottom to top

E5A15

35. Which of the following increases Q for inductors and capacitors?

• A. Lower reactance
• B. Higher self-resonant frequency
• C. Lower self-resonant frequency
• D. Lower losses

E4A02

36. Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

• A. RF amplitude and time
• B. SWR and frequency
• C. RF amplitude and frequency
• D. SWR and time

E7C05

37. Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

• A. A Butterworth filter
• B. A Chebyshev filter
• C. An active LC filter
• D. A passive op-amp filter

E9G08

38. What is the process of normalization with regard to a Smith chart?

• A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis
• B. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
• C. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
• D. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis

E3A09

39. Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor scatter communications?

• A. 220 MHz - 450 MHz
• B. 1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
• C. 10 MHz - 14 MHz
• D. 28 MHz - 148 MHz

E4D02

40. Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

• A. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
• B. Spurious signals caused by cross-modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
• C. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
• D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals

E1D06

41. What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand?

• A. 1 watt
• B. 5 watts
• C. 100 watts
• D. 2 watts

E8B01

42. What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

• A. The bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency
• B. The ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
• C. The ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency
• D. The type of modulation used by the transmitter

E2E12

43. How do ALE stations establish contact?

• A. ALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on
• B. ALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use
• C. ALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter
• D. ALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received

E7G04

44. What is meant by the term "op-amp input offset voltage"?

• A. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
• B. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
• C. The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
• D. The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero

E6E08

45. How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

• A. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
• B. MMICs require no operating bias
• C. Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
• D. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead

E1A03

46. What is the maximum legal carrier frequency on the 20 meter band for transmitting USB AFSK digital signals having a 1 kHz bandwidth?

• A. 14.100 MHz
• B. 14.349 MHz
• C. 14.149 MHz
• D. 14.070 MHz

E9H05

47. What is the main drawback of a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

• A. It has no clearly defined null
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
• D. It has a bidirectional pattern

E7F05

48. How frequently must an analog signal be sampled by an analog-to-digital converter so that the signal can be accurately reproduced?

• A. At the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal
• B. At least half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
• C. At least twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
• D. At four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal

E0A02

49. When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

• A. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits
• B. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits
• C. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Exposure (MPE) limits
• D. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled Maximum Permitted Emission (MPE) limits

E9A05

50. What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?

• A. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
• B. Transmission-line resistance plus radiation resistance
• C. Radiation resistance plus space impedance
• D. Radiation resistance plus loss resistance