Practice Exam

Element 4: Extra (Expires Jun 30)

WARNING: This question pool expires in 84 days.

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E3C02

1. What is indicated by a rising A or K index?

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E2E02

2. What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation?

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E5B08

3. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

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E6A04

4. What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

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E4E11

5. Which is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?

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E2D03

6. Which of the following digital modes is especially useful for EME communications?

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E4A03

7. Which of the following test instrument is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmitter?

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E7D15

8. What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high voltage power supply?

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E5D14

9. What is reactive power?

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E4D01

10. What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

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E2A08

11. Why should effective radiated power to a satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?

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E6E05

12. Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

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E7C08

13. Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?

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E3A16

14. Which of the following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?

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E7A04

15. How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

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E2C01

16. Which of the following is true about contest operating?

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E6F11

17. What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

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E9H09

18. Which of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?

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Figure

E9B05

19. What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?

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E9D03

20. Where should a high Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a shortened vertical antenna?

E1B11

21. What is the permitted mean power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after January 1, 2003 and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?

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E7E04

22. What is one way a single-sideband phone signal can be generated?

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E9C07

23. What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

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E9F10

24. What impedance does a 1/8 wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

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E4B02

25. What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?

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E7F09

26. Why is an anti-aliasing digital filter required in a digital decimator?

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E4C05

27. What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?

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E8D06

28. Which of the following indicates likely overmodulation of an AFSK signal such as PSK or MFSK?

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E5A06

29. What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

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E8C04

30. What technique is used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?

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E6C09

31. What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?

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E7G04

32. What is meant by the term op-amp input offset voltage?

E1A01

33. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?

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E0A06

34. Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?

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E6B08

35. Which of the following describes a type of semiconductor diode?

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E8A01

36. What is the name of the process that shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?

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E5C01

37. Which of the following represents a capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?

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E8B04

38. What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2 kHz modulating frequency?

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E7H12

39. Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

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E9A16

40. What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

E1F10

41. What is the maximum permitted transmitter peak envelope power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications?

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E9E09

42. Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50 ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

E1C07

43. What is meant by local control?

E1E05

44. What is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?

E1D08

45. Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations?

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E2B01

46. How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

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E9G09

47. What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

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E3B14

48. What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?

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E7B04

49. Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias normally be set?

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E6D09

50. What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?