Practice Exam

E6D10

1. What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

• A. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
• B. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
• C. Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
• D. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis

E3A05

2. How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented?

• A. They are tangential
• B. They are at right angles
• C. They are 90 degrees out of phase
• D. They are parallel

E5D12

3. What is reactive power?

• A. Power consumed in circuit Q
• B. Wattless, nonproductive power
• C. Power consumed by an inductor's wire resistance
• D. The power consumed in inductors and capacitors

E1C01

4. What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

• A. 2.8 kHz
• B. 60 Hz
• C. 170 Hz
• D. 1.5 kHz

E7C01

5. How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

• A. An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
• B. A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between the input and output
• C. Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
• D. Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground

E6B02

6. Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power supply rectifier?

• A. Longer carrier retention time
• B. More constant reverse avalanche voltage
• C. Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
• D. Lower forward voltage drop

E9H06

7. What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna?

• A. Maximum DC current in the terminating resistor
• B. Minimum variation in SWR over the desired frequency range
• C. Minimum low-angle front-to-back ratio at the design frequency
• D. Maximum feed point DC resistance at the center of the desired frequency range

E5A13

8. What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

• A. Internal voltages increase
• B. Phase shift can become uncontrolled
• C. Fewer components are needed for the same performance
• D. Parasitic effects are minimized

E9D07

9. What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna?

• A. Greater structural strength
• B. Higher losses
• C. Improved radiation efficiency
• D. Lower Q

E6A05

10. How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor?

• A. They are both high impedance
• B. An FET has lower input impedance
• C. An FET has higher input impedance
• D. They are both low impedance

E7A04

11. How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16?

• A. 6
• B. 4
• C. 8
• D. 16

E1A08

12. If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

• A. The control operator of the originating station
• B. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
• C. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
• D. The control operators of all the stations in the system

E9B03

13. What is the front-to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

• A. 24 dB
• B. 18 dB
• C. 14 dB
• D. 12 dB

E2E05

14. Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

• A. WSPR
• B. PSK31
• C. RTTY
• D. MFSK16

E8A02

15. Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion?

• A. Phase reversal
• B. Harmonic regeneration
• C. Successive approximation
• D. Level shifting

E9A07

16. What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?

• A. 252 watts
• B. 63.2 watts
• C. 632 watts
• D. 159 watts

E9G02

17. What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

• A. Resistance circles and reactance arcs
• B. Voltage chords and current chords
• C. Resistance lines and reactance chords
• D. Voltage circles and current arcs

E1F01

18. On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

• A. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
• B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
• C. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
• D. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz

E7G02

19. What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7-3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor?

• A. Notch filter
• B. High-pass filter
• C. Band-pass filter
• D. Low-pass filter

E8C07

20. What is the bandwidth of a 4,800-Hz frequency shift, 9,600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

• A. 4.8 kHz
• B. 5.76 kHz
• C. 9.6 kHz
• D. 15.36 kHz

E4D02

21. Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

• A. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
• B. Poor weak signal reception caused by insufficient local oscillator injection
• C. Spurious signals caused by cross modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
• D. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband

E5C12

22. Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

• A. Point 8
• B. Point 3
• C. Point 7
• D. Point 1

E6E08

23. How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

• A. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
• B. MMICs require no operating bias
• C. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
• D. Directly to the bias voltage (Vcc) lead

E2C03

24. From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

• A. 6 meters
• B. 30 meters
• C. 70 centimeters
• D. 33 centimeters

E7B01

25. For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull, Class AB amplifier conduct?

• A. The entire cycle
• B. Exactly 180 degrees
• C. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
• D. Less than 180 degrees

E0A07

26. What is meant by "100% tie-off" regarding tower safety?

• A. All tools secured to the climber's harness
• B. All loose ropes and guys secured to a fixed structure
• C. At least one lanyard attached to the tower at all times
• D. All circuit breakers feeding power to the tower must be tied closed with tape, cable, or ties

E9C14

27. How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally-polarized antenna mounted above a long slope compare with the same antenna mounted above flat ground?

• A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
• B. The horizontal beamwidth decreases in the downhill direction
• C. The horizontal beamwidth increases in the uphill direction
• D. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction

E2A04

28. What is meant by the "mode" of an amateur radio satellite?

• A. Whether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit
• B. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
• C. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
• D. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth

E1E11

29. What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

• A. Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
• B. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
• C. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
• D. All these choices are correct

E4C05

30. What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

• A. The receiver noise is 6 dB above the theoretical minimum
• B. The receiver noise is 3 dB above theoretical minimum
• C. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
• D. The theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature

E1B03

31. Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

• A. 1 mile
• B. 30 miles
• C. 10 miles
• D. 3 miles

E4B08

32. Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series-tuned circuit?

• A. The resonant frequency of the circuit
• B. The frequency shift
• C. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
• D. The ratio of inductive reactance to capacitive reactance

E4A11

33. Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

• A. Resonant frequency of a tuned circuit
• B. Cable length
• C. Velocity factor
• D. All these choices are correct

E8D05

34. What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

• A. Insert low-pass filters at the transmitter output
• B. Insert high-pass filters at the transmitter output
• C. Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
• D. Increase keying waveform rise and fall times

E6C06

35. Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

• A. The input switching threshold is about half the power supply voltage
• B. Bandwidth is very limited
• C. Large bypass capacitance is inherent
• D. The input switching threshold is about twice the power supply voltage

E9E07

36. What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line?

• A. Velocity factor
• B. Dielectric constant
• C. Characteristic impedance
• D. Reflection coefficient

E3B13

37. What type of polarization is supported by ground-wave propagation?

• A. Horizontal
• B. Circular
• C. Vertical
• D. Elliptical

E5B02

38. What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

• A. G
• B. Y
• C. B
• D. X

E6F05

39. Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

• A. A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
• B. A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog-to-digital conversion
• C. A device that detects rotation by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
• D. An optical computing device in which light is coupled between devices by fiber optics

E4E03

40. Which of the following types of noise are removed by a noise blanker?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Broadband white noise
• C. Impulse noise
• D. Hum and buzz

E3C07

41. Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

• A. Class Z
• B. Class M
• C. Class A
• D. Class X

E1D12

42. Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications?

• A. A space station, beacon station, or telecommand station
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. A local repeater or linked repeater station
• D. A message forwarding station or automatically controlled digital station

E8B09

43. What is deviation ratio?

• A. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
• B. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
• C. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
• D. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency

E9F10

44. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. A capacitive reactance
• B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• C. Zero
• D. An inductive reactance

E7D06

45. What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

• A. It controls the current to keep the output voltage constant
• B. It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
• C. It provides regulation by switching or "chopping" the input DC voltage
• D. It provides a constant load for the voltage source

E2D08

46. What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

• A. Burst
• B. Acknowledgement
• C. Unnumbered Information
• D. Connect

E2B09

47. What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol?

• A. SSB
• B. AM
• C. CDMA
• D. AREDN

E7F01

48. What is meant by "direct sampling" in software defined radios?

• A. Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
• B. A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
• C. I and Q signals are generated by digital processing without the use of RF amplification
• D. Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver

E7E07

49. What is meant by the term "baseband" in radio communications?

• A. The frequency range occupied by a message signal prior to modulation
• B. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
• C. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
• D. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal

E7H06

50. Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

• A. Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
• B. Frequency synthesis and FM demodulation
• C. Comparison of two digital input signals and digital pulse counting
• D. Photovoltaic conversion and optical coupling