Practice Exam

E9F07

1. How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric?

• A. Lower velocity factor
• B. Smaller reflection coefficient
• C. Lower loss
• D. Higher SWR

E6C10

2. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

• A. 1
• B. 3
• C. 2
• D. 4

E8C13

3. What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal?

• A. Frequency response of the signal stream
• B. How many carriers may be present at the same time
• C. The possible phase and amplitude states for each symbol
• D. The number of bits used for error correction in the protocol

E7F08

4. What is the function of decimation?

• A. Removing unnecessary significant digits
• B. Attenuating the signal
• C. Converting data to binary-coded decimal form
• D. Reducing the effective sample rate by removing samples

E4D10

5. What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

• A. A pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals
• B. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
• C. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
• D. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal

E9D12

6. What is the purpose of making a Yagi's parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance?

• A. Control of phase shift
• B. Minimize losses
• C. Wind torque cancellation
• D. Mechanical balance

E6E04

7. Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs?

• A. 450 ohms
• B. 75 ohms
• C. 300 ohms
• D. 50 ohms

E5B04

8. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

• A. 110 seconds
• B. 220 seconds
• C. 440 seconds
• D. 55 seconds

E2C12

9. What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corresponding change in the transmitted signal?

• A. Anti-VOX
• B. Hang time
• C. Jitter
• D. Latency

E1A08

10. If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

• A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
• B. The control operator of the originating station
• C. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
• D. The control operators of all the stations in the system

E9E11

11. What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines?

• A. To create a low-angle radiation pattern
• B. To prevent harmonic radiation from the transmitter
• C. To allow single-band antennas to operate on other bands
• D. To control the antenna's radiation pattern

E6D10

12. What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

• A. Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
• B. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
• C. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
• D. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis

E7G01

13. What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?

• A. 100 ohms
• B. 10,000 ohms
• C. Very high
• D. Very low

E2A12

14. What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?

• A. To delay download of telemetry between satellites
• B. To relay messages between satellites
• C. To hold digital messages in the satellite for later download
• D. To upload operational software for the transponder

E7E05

15. What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies?

• A. A pre-emphasis network
• B. A de-emphasis network
• C. A harmonic enhancer
• D. A heterodyne enhancer

E7C01

16. How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

• A. An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
• B. Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
• C. A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between the input and output
• D. Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground

E5C07

17. Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coordinates?

• A. On the vertical axis
• B. On a horizontal line, offset vertically above the horizontal axis
• C. On a line through the origin, slanted at 45 degrees
• D. On the horizontal axis

E5D03

18. What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power?

• A. They are 90 degrees out of phase
• B. They are in phase
• C. They are 45 degrees out of phase
• D. They are out of phase

E1B10

19. What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

• A. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF, and UHF bands
• B. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
• C. Specific local government channels
• D. All these choices are correct

E7H02

20. What is a microphonic?

• A. An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
• B. Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
• C. Changes in oscillator frequency caused by mechanical vibration
• D. Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator

E9A05

21. What does the term "ground gain" mean?

• A. The gain of the antenna with respect to a dipole at ground level
• B. The change in signal strength caused by grounding the antenna
• C. An increase in signal strength from ground reflections in the environment of the antenna
• D. To force net gain to 0 dB by grounding part of the antenna

E7B05

22. What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

• A. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
• B. Tune both the input and output for maximum power
• C. Tune the stage for minimum loading
• D. Use a phase inverter in the output filter

E1E05

23. What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

• A. Maintain the application form with the VEC's records
• B. Return the application document to the examinee
• C. Destroy the application form
• D. Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade

E9B08

24. What is the far field of an antenna?

• A. The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
• B. The region where the shape of the radiation pattern no longer varies with distance
• C. The region where radiated field strengths are constant
• D. The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted

E2D08

25. What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

• A. Connect
• B. Unnumbered Information
• C. Acknowledgement
• D. Burst

E9C02

26. What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4- wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

• A. A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array
• B. Omni-directional
• C. Cardioid
• D. A figure-eight end-fire along the axis of the array

E4A05

27. What is the purpose of using a prescaler with a frequency counter?

• A. Prevent oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
• B. Amplify low-level signals for more accurate counting
• C. Multiply a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
• D. Reduce the signal frequency to within the counter's operating range

E4C12

28. How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
• C. It improves sensitivity by reducing front-end noise
• D. It improves blocking dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency

E1C11

29. Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. CEPT
• C. IARP
• D. ITU reciprocal license

E5A09

30. How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

• A. Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
• B. Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
• C. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
• D. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance

E4E06

31. What type of electrical interference can be caused by computer network equipment?

• A. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
• B. A whining-type noise that continually pulses off and on
• C. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
• D. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station's receiver

E9G07

32. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

• A. The resistance axis
• B. The current axis
• C. The voltage axis
• D. The reactance axis

E9H09

33. What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?

• A. Bidirectional
• B. Cardioid
• C. Hyperbolic
• D. Omnidirectional

E0A04

34. When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

• A. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
• B. Each transmitter that produces 20 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
• C. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 25 percent
• D. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded

E7A03

35. Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

• A. A flip-flop
• B. A multiplexer
• C. An XOR gate
• D. An OR gate

E4B03

36. Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

• A. S12
• B. S21
• C. S22
• D. S11

E2B03

37. How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

• A. By scanning two fields simultaneously
• B. By scanning each field from bottom-to-top
• C. By scanning odd-numbered lines in one field and even-numbered lines in the next
• D. By scanning lines from left-to-right in one field and right-to-left in the next

E6B03

38. What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop?

• A. Junction depth
• B. Band gap
• C. Intrinsic resistance
• D. Junction capacitance

E6A08

39. What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

• A. Alpha rejection frequency
• B. Beta cutoff frequency
• C. Corner frequency
• D. Alpha cutoff frequency

E1D10

40. Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station?

• A. Any amateur station approved by AMSAT
• B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU

E8B05

41. What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

• A. 0.6
• B. 0.167
• C. 1.67
• D. 6

E8A08

42. Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio?

• A. Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
• D. Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses

E7D01

43. How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work?

• A. The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
• B. The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
• C. It has a ramp voltage as its output
• D. It eliminates the need for a pass transistor

E3A08

44. When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what region of the ionosphere?

• A. The E region
• B. The D region
• C. The F2 region
• D. The F1 region

E1F07

45. When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

• A. When neither the amateur nor their employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
• B. When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $25
• C. When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $50
• D. At no time

E6F01

46. What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

• A. Photons
• B. Protons
• C. Electrons
• D. Holes

E8D08

47. What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?

• A. Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
• B. Signal-to-noise ratio
• C. Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
• D. Baud error rate

E2E02

48. Which of the following synchronizes WSJT-X digital mode transmit/receive timing?

• A. Alignment of frequency shifts
• B. Sync-field transmission
• C. Synchronization of computer clocks
• D. Sync-pulse timing

E3B13

49. What type of polarization is supported by ground-wave propagation?

• A. Elliptical
• B. Circular
• C. Vertical
• D. Horizontal

E3C05

50. What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charged particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

• A. Eastward
• B. Northward
• C. Southward
• D. Westward