Practice Exam

E4D13

1. What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive antenna gain of 3 dBi, and a path loss of 100 dB?

• A. -51 dBm
• B. -54 dBm
• C. -57 dBm
• D. -60 dBm

E7F12

2. Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters?

• A. FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
• B. FIR filters can delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount
• C. FIR filters can respond faster to impulses
• D. All these choices are correct

E9C11

3. How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?

• A. Separate elevation lobes will combine into a single lobe
• B. Additional lobes appear at higher elevation angles
• C. Radiation at low angles decreases
• D. Radiation at low angles increases

E8C11

4. What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

• A. The relationship depends on the specific code used
• B. They are the same
• C. Baud is twice the symbol rate
• D. Baud rate is half the symbol rate

E2A10

5. What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

• A. HEO
• B. Geostationary
• C. Geomagnetic
• D. LEO

E7C02

6. What is the frequency response of a T-network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor?

• A. Low-pass
• B. High-pass
• C. Band-pass
• D. Notch

E1E01

7. For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

• A. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
• B. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
• C. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
• D. Preparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license

E2D08

8. What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

• A. Unnumbered Information
• B. Connect
• C. Acknowledgement
• D. Burst

E9D10

9. How does radiation resistance of a base-fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency?

• A. Radiation resistance decreases
• B. Radiation resistance does not depend on frequency
• C. Radiation resistance increases
• D. Radiation resistance becomes imaginary

E1A10

10. If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

• A. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
• B. The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
• C. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
• D. The amateur station must operate only in specific segments of the amateur service HF and VHF bands

E7E10

11. How does a diode envelope detector function?

• A. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
• B. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
• C. By breakdown of the Zener voltage
• D. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

E2C08

12. Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (LoTW)?

• A. Contacts between a US station and a non-US station
• B. Contacts for Worked All States credit
• C. Special event contacts between stations in the US
• D. All these choices are correct

E9A03

13. What term describing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses?

• A. Half-power bandwidth
• B. Power factor
• C. Effective radiated power
• D. Apparent power

E2E07

14. How does Q65 differ from JT65?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Keyboard-to keyboard operation is supported
• C. Multiple receive cycles are averaged
• D. Quadrature modulation is used

E5C08

15. What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance?

• A. Maidenhead grid
• B. Faraday grid
• C. Polar coordinates
• D. Elliptical coordinates

E3B03

16. At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur?

• A. Noon
• B. Morning
• C. Late at night
• D. Afternoon or early evening

E7G08

17. How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

• A. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
• B. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
• C. It does not vary with frequency
• D. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency

E7B07

18. Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

• A. Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
• B. Reduced intermodulation products
• C. Reduced third-order intermodulation
• D. Increased overall intelligibility

E2B09

19. What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol?

• A. CDMA
• B. AM
• C. AREDN
• D. SSB

E1B08

20. What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

• A. The amateur station must cease operation
• B. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
• C. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
• D. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference

E5A12

21. What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

• A. 15.7 kHz
• B. 31.4 kHz
• C. 436.6 kHz
• D. 218.3 kHz

E4C03

22. What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?

• A. Desensitization
• B. Cross-modulation interference
• C. Frequency discrimination
• D. Capture effect

E6D02

23. What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

• A. Parallel RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
• B. Series RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
• C. Series RLC in parallel with a shunt C representing electrode and stray capacitance
• D. Parallel RLC, where C is the series combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance

E9B09

24. What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas?

• A. Graphical analysis
• B. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
• C. Mutual impedance analysis
• D. Method of Moments

E6A08

25. What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

• A. Alpha cutoff frequency
• B. Beta cutoff frequency
• C. Corner frequency
• D. Alpha rejection frequency

E6B08

26. Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?

• A. Thermionic emission diode
• B. Metal-semiconductor junction
• C. Electrolytic rectifier
• D. PIN junction

E8A03

27. Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain?

• A. Power at intervals of phase
• B. Frequency at different times
• C. Amplitude at different times
• D. Discrete impulses in time order

E0A04

28. When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

• A. Each transmitter that produces 20 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
• B. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
• C. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 25 percent
• D. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded

E4B04

29. Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?

• A. S12
• B. S11
• C. S21
• D. S22

E3A03

30. When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

• A. When the Moon is at perigee
• B. When the Moon is at apogee
• C. When the Moon is full
• D. When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E5B12

31. What is admittance?

• A. The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
• B. The term for the on-impedance of a field effect transistor
• C. The inverse of reactance
• D. The inverse of impedance

E7A11

32. What does "positive logic" mean in reference to logic devices?

• A. High voltage represents a 1, low voltage a 0
• B. 1s and 0s are defined as different positive voltage levels
• C. The logic circuit is in the "true" condition
• D. The logic devices have high noise immunity

E6C05

33. Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption?

• A. NMOS
• B. Schottky TTL
• C. CMOS
• D. ECL

E9E02

34. What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna and the conductor a fraction of a wavelength to one side?

• A. Stub match
• B. Gamma match
• C. Delta match
• D. T-match

E6E12

35. Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies?

• A. Unsuitable for combining analog and digital signals
• B. Excessive dielectric loss
• C. Excessive lead length
• D. Epoxy coating is conductive above 300 MHz

E4E06

36. What type of electrical interference can be caused by computer network equipment?

• A. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
• B. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station's receiver
• C. A whining-type noise that continually pulses off and on
• D. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies

E1D04

37. Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

• A. Call sign
• B. The output power of the balloon transmitter
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. The station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator

E1F03

38. Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

• A. Gain is less than 23 dB when driven by power of 10 watts or less
• B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
• C. The amplifier is constructed or modified by an amateur radio operator for use at an amateur station
• D. It was manufactured and certificated in a country which has a reciprocal certification agreement with the FCC

E9G07

39. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

• A. The reactance axis
• B. The current axis
• C. The voltage axis
• D. The resistance axis

E9H05

40. What challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

• A. It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
• B. It has a bidirectional null pattern
• C. It does not have a clearly defined null
• D. All these choices are correct

E9F10

41. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. A capacitive reactance
• B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• C. Zero
• D. An inductive reactance

E8D03

42. Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping?

• A. A binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence
• B. Rapidly varying the frequency of a transmitted signal according to a pseudorandom sequence
• C. RF signals are clipped to generate a wide band of harmonics which provides redundancy to correct errors
• D. If interference is detected by the receiver, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

E6F02

43. What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it?

• A. Resistance increases
• B. Reflectivity decreases
• C. Reflectivity increases
• D. Resistance decreases

E1C12

44. In what portion of the 630-meter band are phone emissions permitted?

• A. Only the top 3 kHz
• B. The entire band
• C. None
• D. Only the bottom 3 kHz

E7H07

45. How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

• A. Increase the gain
• B. Use NP0 capacitors
• C. Mechanically isolate the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
• D. Reduce noise on the oscillator's power supply

E3C03

46. Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A-index or K-index is elevated?

• A. Transequatorial
• B. Sporadic-E
• C. Through the auroral oval
• D. NVIS

E7D07

47. What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

• A. It is a brute force filter for the output
• B. To prevent self-oscillation
• C. It bypasses rectifier output ripple around D1
• D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1

E5D03

48. What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power?

• A. They are 45 degrees out of phase
• B. They are in phase
• C. They are 90 degrees out of phase
• D. They are out of phase

E4A02

49. Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

• A. SWR and time
• B. Signal amplitude and time
• C. SWR and frequency
• D. Signal amplitude and frequency

E8B08

50. What describes orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)?

• A. A digital mode for narrow-band, slow-speed transmissions
• B. A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
• C. A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
• D. A frequency modulation technique that uses non-harmonically related frequencies