Practice Exam

E7C06

1. What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

• A. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
• B. Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
• C. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
• D. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple

E3C07

2. Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

• A. Class A
• B. Class B
• C. Class X
• D. Class M

E1C14

3. How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200 meter or 630 meter band?

• A. Operators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 km of PLC systems using those frequencies
• B. Operators must not operate until approval is received
• C. Operations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC
• D. Operators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company

E8B03

4. What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

• A. 3000
• B. 0.3
• C. 3
• D. 1000

E9E06

5. Which of these feed line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm loop to 50-ohm feed line?

• A. 50 ohms
• B. 62 ohms
• C. 75 ohms
• D. 450 ohms

E2D10

6. How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?

• A. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
• B. An APRS station with a Global Positioning System unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital

E5C01

7. Which of the following represents capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?

• A. Delta
• B. +jX
• C. Omega
• D. -jX

E9B11

8. What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?

• A. The antenna will become mechanically unstable
• B. The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
• C. Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
• D. The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect

E7B06

9. Which of the following amplifier types reduces even-order harmonics?

• A. Push-pull
• B. Class AB
• C. Push-push
• D. Class C

E9H06

10. What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

• A. A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source
• B. A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal source
• C. The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
• D. Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source

E2E10

11. Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

• A. 170 Hz shift, 45-baud RTTY
• B. PSK31
• C. 300-baud packet
• D. MFSK16

E4C05

12. What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

• A. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
• B. The theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
• C. The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal
• D. The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency

E9G04

13. What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

• A. Resistance and reactance
• B. Reactance and voltage
• C. Voltage and impedance
• D. Resistance and voltage

E9C07

14. What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

• A. 50 ohms
• B. 72 ohms
• C. 300 ohms
• D. 450 ohms

E1A01

15. Which of the following carrier frequencies is illegal for LSB AFSK emissions on the 17 meter band RTTY and data segment of 18.068 to 18.110 MHz?

• A. 18.068 MHz
• B. 18.100 MHz
• C. 18.107 MHz
• D. 18.110 MHz

E1B10

16. What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

• A. Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
• B. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
• C. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
• D. Specific local government channels

E2B11

17. What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

• A. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
• B. To identify the SSTV mode being used
• C. To provide vertical synchronization
• D. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting

E6F08

18. Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits when switching 120 VAC?

• A. Optoisolators provide a very high degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
• B. Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
• C. Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
• D. Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit

E2A11

19. What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

• A. An isotropic antenna
• B. A log-periodic dipole array
• C. A linearly polarized antenna
• D. A circularly polarized antenna

E7D05

20. Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?

• A. A series regulator
• B. A shunt current source
• C. A constant current source
• D. A shunt regulator

E4E08

21. What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?

• A. Return current
• B. Common-mode current
• C. Reactive current only
• D. Differential-mode current

E0A01

22. What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

• A. Reduce received noise
• B. Reduce RFI to telephones and home entertainment systems
• C. Reduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
• D. Lightning protection

E6D13

23. What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

• A. Inter-turn capacitance
• B. Inductive kickback
• C. Non-linear core hysteresis
• D. The skin effect

E4A05

24. What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter?

• A. It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
• B. It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
• C. It divides a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
• D. It amplifies low-level signals for more accurate counting

E4D04

25. Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

• A. A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
• B. Utilizing a Class C final amplifier
• C. A properly terminated circulator at the output of the repeater's transmitter
• D. Utilizing a Class D final amplifier

E2C04

26. Which of the following frequencies are sometimes used for amateur radio mesh networks?

• A. Frequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services
• B. Cable TV channels 41 through 43
• C. The 60 meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
• D. HF frequencies where digital communications are permitted

E8D03

27. How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

• A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
• B. The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a pseudorandom sequence also used by the receiving station
• C. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
• D. A binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence

E7G10

28. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

• A. 0.03
• B. 1
• C. 38
• D. 76

E1F11

29. Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

• A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
• B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks
• C. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
• D. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range

E5B05

30. What happens to the magnitude of a pure reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

• A. It is shifted by 90 degrees
• B. It becomes the reciprocal
• C. It is unchanged
• D. The sign is reversed

E7F14

31. Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

• A. Complex phasor representations
• B. Double-precision math routines
• C. More taps
• D. Higher data rate

E3A03

32. When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

• A. When the moon is at perigee
• B. When the MUF is above 30 MHz
• C. When the moon is full
• D. When the moon is at apogee

E6E11

33. What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

• A. Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)
• B. A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
• C. Low leakage doubly insulated package
• D. Package mounts in a direct inverted position

E6B09

34. What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

• A. As an RF detector
• B. As a constant current source
• C. As a high-voltage rectifier
• D. As a constant voltage source

E9A10

35. Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

• A. Shortening the radiating element
• B. Installing a radial system
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Isolating the coax shield from ground

E1D10

36. Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations (subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station)?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee
• C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
• D. Any amateur station designated by NASA

E7A10

37. What is a truth table?

• A. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device output is true
• B. A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
• C. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp
• D. A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp

E7E06

38. Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

• A. To remove third-order distortion products
• B. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
• C. For higher efficiency
• D. To reduce impulse noise reception

E1E10

39. What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

• A. They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
• B. They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
• C. They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
• D. They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions

E9D08

40. What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

• A. SWR bandwidth decreases
• B. Gain is reduced
• C. More common-mode current is present on the feed line
• D. SWR bandwidth increases

E5D08

41. How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?

• A. 600 watts
• B. 1600 watts
• C. 1000 watts
• D. 200 watts

E4B11

42. Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?

• A. Output impedance
• B. Reflection coefficient
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Input impedance

E9F07

43. How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?

• A. Smaller reflection coefficient
• B. Lower loss
• C. Higher SWR
• D. Lower velocity factor

E8A09

44. How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?

• A. 256
• B. 8
• C. 8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
• D. 256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier

E8C07

45. What is the bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

• A. 15.36 kHz
• B. 4.8 kHz
• C. 9.6 kHz
• D. 5.76 kHz

E6A08

46. What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

• A. Corner frequency
• B. Alpha rejection frequency
• C. Beta cutoff frequency
• D. Alpha cutoff frequency

E3B01

47. What is transequatorial propagation?

• A. Propagation between points located on the magnetic equator
• B. Propagation between a point on the equator and its antipodal point
• C. Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
• D. Propagation between points at the same latitude

E7H12

48. Which of the following must be done to ensure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

• A. Bias the crystal at a specified current
• B. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
• C. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
• D. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance

E6C09

49. What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?

• A. A type of transistor whose gain can be changed by digital logic circuits
• B. Programmable equipment used for testing digital logic integrated circuits
• C. A logic circuit that can be modified during use
• D. A programmable collection of logic gates and circuits in a single integrated circuit

E5A07

50. What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

• A. Minimum
• B. L/R
• C. Maximum
• D. R/L