Practice Exam

E9G05

1. Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?

• A. Determine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials
• B. Determine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions
• C. Determine the length and position of an impedance matching stub
• D. Determine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters

E5C08

2. What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance?

• A. Polar coordinates
• B. Elliptical coordinates
• C. Maidenhead grid
• D. Faraday grid

E1D10

3. Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station?

• A. Any amateur station approved by AMSAT
• B. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
• C. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee
• D. All these choices are correct

E2E10

4. Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

• A. 170 Hz shift, 45-baud RTTY
• B. PACTOR IV
• C. MFSK16
• D. FT8

E5B02

5. What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

• A. Y
• B. G
• C. X
• D. B

E1E11

6. What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
• C. Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
• D. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license

E4B02

7. What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

• A. The full scale reading in amps divided by ohms per volt rating will determine the size of shunt needed
• B. The reading in ohms divided by the ohms per volt rating will determine the voltage applied to the circuit
• C. The reading in volts multiplied by the ohms per volt rating will determine the power drawn by the device under test
• D. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating is the input impedance of the voltmeter

E4E01

8. What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

• A. Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
• B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Excessive ringing

E9B09

9. What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas?

• A. Method of Moments
• B. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
• C. Mutual impedance analysis
• D. Graphical analysis

E7H08

10. Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

• A. Wirewound resistors
• B. Toroidal inductors
• C. Non-inductive resistors
• D. NP0 capacitors

E7B03

11. What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier?

• A. A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
• B. A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
• C. A filter to remove harmonic content
• D. A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity

E7F13

12. What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

• A. Provide access for debugging software
• B. Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
• C. To reduce excess signal pressure levels
• D. Select the point at which baseband signals are generated

E4A10

13. Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply's output ripple?

• A. Edge
• B. Single-shot
• C. Level
• D. Line

E4D13

14. What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive antenna gain of 3 dBi, and a path loss of 100 dB?

• A. -60 dBm
• B. -51 dBm
• C. -57 dBm
• D. -54 dBm

E2D01

15. Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?

• A. WSPR
• B. Hellschreiber
• C. APRS
• D. MSK144

E3A03

16. When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

• A. When the MUF is above 30 MHz
• B. When the Moon is at apogee
• C. When the Moon is full
• D. When the Moon is at perigee

E6B05

17. What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?

• A. Low junction capacitance
• B. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
• C. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
• D. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage

E1B11

18. What does PRB-1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures?

• A. Such structures must be permitted if certified by a registered professional engineer
• B. No limitations may be placed on antenna size or placement
• C. Such structures must be permitted when use for emergency communications can be demonstrated
• D. Reasonable accommodations of amateur radio must be made

E9C12

19. Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?

• A. An end-fed full-wave dipole antenna
• B. A center-fed 1.5-wavelength dipole antenna
• C. An end-fed 2-wavelength dipole antenna
• D. A center-fed 1.25-wavelength dipole antenna

E7C08

20. Which of the following is most frequently used as a band-pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers?

• A. A finite impulse response filter
• B. A Sallen-Key filter
• C. A swinging choke filter
• D. A helical filter

E9E02

21. What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna and the conductor a fraction of a wavelength to one side?

• A. T-match
• B. Stub match
• C. Delta match
• D. Gamma match

E0A10

22. When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters?

• A. An evaluation must always be performed
• B. When the ERP of the station is less than 10 watts
• C. When the station's operating mode is CW
• D. When the output power from the transmitter is less than 100 watts

E2C08

23. Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (LoTW)?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Special event contacts between stations in the US
• C. Contacts between a US station and a non-US station
• D. Contacts for Worked All States credit

E2B08

24. What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70- centimeter band?

• A. Using converted satellite TV dishes
• B. Using USB and demodulating the signal with a computer sound card
• C. Transmitting on channels shared with cable TV
• D. Transmitting on the abandoned TV channel 2

E8A01

25. What technique shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics?

• A. Fourier analysis
• B. Vector analysis
• C. Differential analysis
• D. Numerical analysis

E5D02

26. Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. To increase the thermal time constant
• C. To minimize inductive reactance
• D. To maintain component lifetime

E9A05

27. What does the term "ground gain" mean?

• A. To force net gain to 0 dB by grounding part of the antenna
• B. An increase in signal strength from ground reflections in the environment of the antenna
• C. The gain of the antenna with respect to a dipole at ground level
• D. The change in signal strength caused by grounding the antenna

E9F05

28. What is microstrip?

• A. Miniature coax used for low power applications
• B. Special shielding material designed for microwave frequencies
• C. Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies
• D. Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits

E7G08

29. How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

• A. It does not vary with frequency
• B. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
• C. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
• D. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency

E7D13

30. Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator?

• A. Input voltage multiplied by input current
• B. Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
• C. Output voltage multiplied by output current
• D. Input voltage divided by output current

E7E03

31. What is a frequency discriminator?

• A. A circuit for filtering closely adjacent signals
• B. An FM generator circuit
• C. A circuit for detecting FM signals
• D. An automatic band-switching circuit

E9H07

32. What is the function of a Beverage antenna's termination resistor?

• A. Increase the front-to-side ratio
• B. Decrease SWR bandwidth
• C. Absorb signals from the reverse direction
• D. Eliminate harmonic reception

E3B03

33. At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur?

• A. Morning
• B. Noon
• C. Afternoon or early evening
• D. Late at night

E1A02

34. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

• A. The exact lower band edge
• B. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
• C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
• D. 300 Hz above the lower band edge

E5A05

35. What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?

• A. Matching bandwidth is decreased
• B. Losses increase
• C. Matching bandwidth is increased
• D. Harmonics increase

E2A03

36. How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder?

• A. The signal is reduced to I and Q components, and the Q component is filtered out
• B. The signal is passed through a nonlinear filter
• C. The signal is mixed with a local oscillator signal and the difference product is transmitted
• D. The signal is detected and remodulated on the reverse sideband

E6C06

37. Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

• A. The input switching threshold is about half the power supply voltage
• B. Bandwidth is very limited
• C. Large bypass capacitance is inherent
• D. The input switching threshold is about twice the power supply voltage

E9D09

38. What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna?

• A. To lower the losses
• B. To increase the SWR bandwidth by increasing net reactance
• C. To lower the Q
• D. To resonate the antenna by cancelling the capacitive reactance

E6D03

39. Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

• A. Mechanical deformation of material due to the application of a voltage
• B. Increased conductivity in the presence of light
• C. Mechanical deformation of material due to the application of a magnetic field
• D. Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light

E8D03

40. Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping?

• A. A binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence
• B. If interference is detected by the receiver, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
• C. Rapidly varying the frequency of a transmitted signal according to a pseudorandom sequence
• D. RF signals are clipped to generate a wide band of harmonics which provides redundancy to correct errors

E1C01

41. What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

• A. 170 Hz
• B. 60 Hz
• C. 1.5 kHz
• D. 2.8 kHz

E6A01

42. In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?

• A. In high-power audio circuits
• B. In high-current rectifier circuits
• C. In very low-frequency RF circuits
• D. In microwave circuits

E4C14

43. What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control?

• A. To change frequency rapidly
• B. To tune in stations slightly off frequency without changing the transmit frequency
• C. To permit listening on a different frequency from the transmitting frequency
• D. To reduce interference from stations transmitting on adjacent frequencies

E3C10

44. What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

• A. The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-ray flare levels
• B. UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to the solar flux index
• C. The ratio of X-ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
• D. The solar wind velocity at an angle of 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to geomagnetic storms

E8C15

45. What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?

• A. Forward error correction and Viterbi codes
• B. Custom code plugs for the local trunking systems
• C. Acting as store-and-forward digipeaters
• D. Discovery and link establishment protocols

E1F01

46. On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

• A. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
• B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
• C. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
• D. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz

E6F08

47. Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits?

• A. Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
• B. Optoisolators provide an electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
• C. Optoisolators provide a low-impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
• D. Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit

E6E11

48. What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

• A. Two chips in each package (dual in package)
• B. Extremely low stray capacitance (dielectrically isolated package)
• C. Two rows of connecting pins on opposite sides of package (dual in-line package)
• D. Extremely high resistance between pins (doubly insulated package)

E8B03

49. What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency if the highest modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

• A. 0.6
• B. 0.3
• C. 6
• D. 3

E7A11

50. What does "positive logic" mean in reference to logic devices?

• A. The logic circuit is in the "true" condition
• B. 1s and 0s are defined as different positive voltage levels
• C. The logic devices have high noise immunity
• D. High voltage represents a 1, low voltage a 0