Practice Exam

E8D03

1. Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping?

• A. If interference is detected by the receiver, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
• B. Rapidly varying the frequency of a transmitted signal according to a pseudorandom sequence
• C. RF signals are clipped to generate a wide band of harmonics which provides redundancy to correct errors
• D. A binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence

E4B09

2. Which of the following can be measured by a two-port vector network analyzer?

• A. Pulse rise time
• B. Filter frequency response
• C. Phase noise
• D. Forward power

E5A04

3. What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

• A. High compared to the circuit resistance
• B. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
• C. Low compared to the circuit resistance
• D. Approximately equal to inductive reactance

E6B08

4. Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?

• A. PIN junction
• B. Thermionic emission diode
• C. Metal-semiconductor junction
• D. Electrolytic rectifier

E2A05

5. What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

• A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
• B. The location of the ground control station
• C. The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
• D. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals

E7E07

6. What is meant by the term "baseband" in radio communications?

• A. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
• B. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
• C. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
• D. The frequency range occupied by a message signal prior to modulation

E9G10

7. What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

• A. Points with constant reactance
• B. Points with constant resistance
• C. SWR
• D. Frequency

E6A07

8. Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

• A. Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 ohms to 0.7 ohms
• B. Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 ohms to 7 ohms
• C. Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 volts to 7 volts
• D. Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 volts to 0.7 volts

E2D06

9. Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts?

• A. Storing and forwarding digital messages
• B. Time-synchronous transmissions alternating between stations
• C. High-speed CW identification to avoid fading
• D. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon

E7C03

10. What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi-network to create a Pi-L-network?

• A. Higher efficiency
• B. Greater transformation range
• C. To eliminate one capacitor
• D. Greater harmonic suppression

E3A12

11. What is most likely to result in auroral propagation?

• A. Severe geomagnetic storms
• B. Extreme low-pressure areas in polar regions
• C. Quiet geomagnetic conditions
• D. Meteor showers

E1D05

12. What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the Earth's surface?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
• C. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
• D. A photocopy of the station license

E1B04

13. What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70-centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Reduce the repeater antenna HAAT (Height Above Average Terrain)
• C. Cease operation or make changes to the repeater that mitigate the interference
• D. File an FAA NOTAM (Notice to Air Missions) with the repeater system's ERP, call sign, and six-character grid locator

E0A08

14. What does SAR measure?

• A. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
• B. The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
• C. Signal amplification rating
• D. Signal attenuation ratio

E7H05

15. How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

• A. Through a quartz crystal
• B. Through a tapped coil
• C. Through a neutralizing capacitor
• D. Through link coupling

E2C09

16. What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network?

• A. A 2-meter VHF transceiver with a 1,200-baud modem
• B. A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9,600-baud modem
• C. A wireless router running custom firmware
• D. A computer running EchoLink to provide interface from the radio to the internet

E4E13

17. Where should a station AC surge protector be installed?

• A. At an AC outlet
• B. On a ground rod outside the station
• C. At the AC service panel
• D. On the single point ground panel

E9H06

18. What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna?

• A. Minimum variation in SWR over the desired frequency range
• B. Maximum feed point DC resistance at the center of the desired frequency range
• C. Maximum DC current in the terminating resistor
• D. Minimum low-angle front-to-back ratio at the design frequency

E7A09

19. What logical operation is performed by a two-input exclusive NOR gate?

• A. It produces a 1 at its output only if all inputs are 1
• B. It produces a 0 at its output if one and only one of its inputs is 1
• C. It produces a 0 at its output only if all inputs are 0
• D. It produces a 1 at its output if one and only one input is 1

E9C12

20. Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?

• A. A center-fed 1.25-wavelength dipole antenna
• B. An end-fed 2-wavelength dipole antenna
• C. An end-fed full-wave dipole antenna
• D. A center-fed 1.5-wavelength dipole antenna

E2E06

21. What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle?

• A. 30 seconds
• B. It varies with the amount of data
• C. 15 seconds
• D. 8 seconds

E1F06

22. Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

• A. To allow a VE group with less than three VEs to administer examinations in a remote, sparsely populated area
• B. To allow use of a special event call sign
• C. To provide for experimental amateur communications
• D. To allow a licensee who has passed an upgrade exam to operate with upgraded privileges while waiting for posting on the FCC database

E7G07

23. What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

• A. 0.21
• B. 47
• C. 4700
• D. 24

E9D10

24. How does radiation resistance of a base-fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency?

• A. Radiation resistance becomes imaginary
• B. Radiation resistance does not depend on frequency
• C. Radiation resistance increases
• D. Radiation resistance decreases

E9F05

25. What is microstrip?

• A. Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies
• B. Special shielding material designed for microwave frequencies
• C. Miniature coax used for low power applications
• D. Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits

E6C08

26. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

• A. 4
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 1

E9A11

27. Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating on HF?

• A. Take-off angle
• B. Distance from the transmitter
• C. Soil conductivity
• D. The standing wave ratio

E7D08

28. What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?

• A. Common emitter amplifier
• B. Switching voltage regulator
• C. Common base amplifier
• D. Linear voltage regulator

E5D06

29. What parasitic characteristic creates an inductor's self-resonance?

• A. Coupling
• B. Inter-turn capacitance
• C. Dielectric loss
• D. Skin effect

E6D06

30. What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

• A. Permeability
• B. Permittivity
• C. Resistance
• D. Reactivity

E5C09

31. When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent?

• A. The X axis represents the resistive component, and the Y axis represents the reactive component
• B. The X axis represents the magnitude, and the Y axis represents the phase angle
• C. The X axis represents the phase angle, and the Y axis represents the magnitude
• D. The X axis represents the reactive component, and the Y axis represents the resistive component

E8B06

32. What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

• A. 0.47
• B. 47
• C. 2.14
• D. 0.214

E8C10

33. How can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth?

• A. It is impossible
• B. Increasing analog-to-digital conversion resolution
• C. Using a more efficient digital code
• D. Using forward error correction

E7B10

34. In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

• A. Voltage divider bias
• B. Feedback
• C. Self bias
• D. Load resistors

E2B09

35. What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol?

• A. CDMA
• B. AREDN
• C. AM
• D. SSB

E9B01

36. What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

• A. 75 degrees
• B. 50 degrees
• C. 25 degrees
• D. 30 degrees

E1E07

37. What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

• A. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session
• B. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
• C. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
• D. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination

E6E09

38. Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range?

• A. Axial lead
• B. Radial lead
• C. TO-220
• D. Surface mount

E3B08

39. How does the maximum range of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

• A. It peaks at roughly 8 MHz
• B. It stays the same
• C. It decreases
• D. It increases

E3C07

40. Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

• A. Class M
• B. Class X
• C. Class Z
• D. Class A

E6F01

41. What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

• A. Protons
• B. Electrons
• C. Holes
• D. Photons

E9E05

42. What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?

• A. Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)
• B. Purely resistive
• C. Purely reactive
• D. Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)

E4D10

43. What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

• A. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
• B. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
• C. A pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals
• D. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

E5B01

44. What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage or to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

• A. One time constant
• B. One exponential period
• C. An exponential rate of one
• D. A time factor of one

E1C05

45. Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled?

• A. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
• B. Only when transmitting SSB or CW
• C. Never
• D. On any mode approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E8A11

46. Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter?

• A. Peak envelope power
• B. Reciprocal mixing
• C. Power factor
• D. Total harmonic distortion

E7F03

47. What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?

• A. An adaptive filter
• B. A Hilbert-transform filter
• C. A notch filter
• D. An elliptical filter

E1A04

48. May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone?

• A. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 75-meter phone band segment
• B. No, the sideband components will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
• C. Yes, the entire signal will be inside the SSB allocation for Extra class operators
• D. No, US stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz

E4C02

49. Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals?

• A. A front-end filter or preselector
• B. A notch filter
• C. A properly adjusted product detector
• D. A narrow IF filter

E4A09

50. Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Minimize the length of the probe's ground connection
• C. Never use a high-impedance probe to measure a low-impedance circuit
• D. Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit