Practice Exam

E4A07

1. Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
• C. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
• D. Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source

E9G09

2. What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems?

• A. Antenna-length circles
• B. Radiation-pattern circles
• C. Coaxial-length circles
• D. Standing wave ratio circles

E5B11

3. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms?

• A. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• B. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• D. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

E4D07

4. Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

• A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
• B. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
• C. Raise the receiver IF frequency
• D. Increase the receiver front end gain

E9E07

5. What parameter describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched transmission line?

• A. Characteristic impedance
• B. Dielectric constant
• C. Reflection coefficient
• D. Velocity factor

E7B09

6. Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a Pi-network output circuit?

• A. The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
• B. The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
• C. The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
• D. The tuning capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate current, and the loading capacitor is adjusted for maximum permissible plate current

E6C05

7. What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

• A. Lower power consumption
• B. Differential output capability
• C. Lower distortion
• D. Immune to damage from static discharge

E9D10

8. What happens to feed-point impedance at the base of a fixed length HF mobile antenna when operated below its resonant frequency?

• A. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
• B. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
• C. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
• D. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases

E6F06

9. Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices?

• A. A heavy metal
• B. A liquid semiconductor
• C. An ordinary metal
• D. A crystalline semiconductor

E2A03

10. How is the signal inverted by an inverting linear transponder?

• A. The signal is reduced to I and Q components and the Q component is filtered out
• B. The signal is passed through a non-linear filter
• C. The signal is detected and remodulated on the reverse sideband
• D. The signal is passed through a mixer and the difference rather than the sum is transmitted

E2D06

11. Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?

• A. Storing and forwarding digital messages
• B. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
• C. Time synchronous transmissions alternately from each station
• D. High-speed CW identification to avoid fading

E8D08

12. What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?

• A. Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
• B. Baud rate
• C. Signal-to-noise ratio
• D. Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)

E7F12

13. Which of the following is an advantage of a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter vs an Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) digital filter?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. FIR filters can respond faster to impulses
• C. FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
• D. FIR filters can delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount

E5C06

14. What does the impedance 50-j25 represent?

• A. 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance
• B. 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
• C. 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
• D. 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance

E7A11

15. What type of logic defines "1" as a high voltage?

• A. Reverse Logic
• B. Negative logic
• C. Positive Logic
• D. Assertive Logic

E1D10

16. Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations (subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station)?

• A. Any amateur station designated by NASA
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
• D. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee

E4B02

17. What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

• A. When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms per volt rating will determine the power drawn by the device under test
• B. When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms per volt rating will determine the size of shunt needed
• C. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating will indicate the input impedance of the voltmeter
• D. When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms per volt rating will determine the voltage applied to the circuit

E6A02

18. Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

• A. Insulated gate
• B. P-type
• C. N-type
• D. Bipolar

E7E06

19. Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

• A. To reduce impulse noise reception
• B. For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
• C. For higher efficiency
• D. To remove third-order distortion products

E5A07

20. What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

• A. Minimum
• B. L/R
• C. R/L
• D. Maximum

E2E12

21. How do ALE stations establish contact?

• A. ALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use
• B. ALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter
• C. ALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received
• D. ALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on

E1A01

22. Which of the following carrier frequencies is illegal for LSB AFSK emissions on the 17 meter band RTTY and data segment of 18.068 to 18.110 MHz?

• A. 18.107 MHz
• B. 18.110 MHz
• C. 18.100 MHz
• D. 18.068 MHz

E0A09

23. Which insulating material commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally inhaled?

• A. Uranium Hexafluoride
• B. Beryllium Oxide
• C. Zinc oxide
• D. Mica

E8C11

24. What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

• A. Symbol rate is only used for packet-based modes
• B. Baud is twice the symbol rate
• C. Baud is only used for RTTY
• D. They are the same

E2B05

25. Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast-scan TV transmissions?

• A. The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
• B. Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry
• C. The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
• D. Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture

E2C01

26. What indicator is required to be used by U.S.-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the U.S.?

• A. / followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
• B. / followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station
• C. /R# where # is the district of the remote station
• D. No additional indicator is required

E8A08

27. Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?

• A. Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
• B. Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
• C. Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
• D. All these choices are correct

E9F13

28. What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. The same as the generator output impedance
• B. Very low impedance
• C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
• D. Very high impedance

E7G05

29. How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp RC audio filter circuit?

• A. Restrict gain but increase Q
• B. Restrict Q but increase gain
• C. Restrict both gain and Q
• D. Increase both gain and Q

E1B11

30. What does PRB-1 require of regulations affecting amateur radio?

• A. Reasonable accommodations of amateur radio must be made
• B. Amateur radio operations must be permitted in any private residence
• C. No limitations may be placed on antenna size or placement
• D. Use of wireless devices in a vehicle is exempt from regulation

E9A10

31. Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

• A. Isolating the coax shield from ground
• B. Shortening the radiating element
• C. Installing a radial system
• D. All these choices are correct

E9H01

32. When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

• A. Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
• B. It should be configured as a four-sided loop
• C. It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
• D. It should be one or more wavelengths long

E6E08

33. How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

• A. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
• B. Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
• C. MMICs require no operating bias
• D. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead

E1E01

34. For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

• A. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
• B. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
• C. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
• D. Preparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license

E4E06

35. What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by a nearby personal computer?

• A. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
• B. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
• C. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
• D. A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on

E9B03

36. In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the front-to-side ratio?

• A. 14 dB
• B. 18 dB
• C. 24 dB
• D. 12 dB

E5D04

37. Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies?

• A. To increase compensating capacitance
• B. To reduce phase shift along the connection
• C. To reduce noise figure
• D. To increase neutralizing resistance

E8B10

38. What is frequency division multiplexing?

• A. Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
• B. The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
• C. Two or more information streams are merged into a baseband, which then modulates the transmitter
• D. The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information

E9C09

39. Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

• A. A multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
• B. A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
• C. A multi-band trap antenna
• D. A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun

E3C09

40. How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?

• A. 10 percent greater
• B. Four times as great
• C. 50 percent greater
• D. Twice as great

E7H11

41. What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

• A. Nyquist limit noise
• B. Broadband noise
• C. Digital conversion noise
• D. Spurious signals at discrete frequencies

E1C13

42. What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630 meter or 2200 meter bands?

• A. Operators must inform the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of their call sign and coordinates of the station
• B. An environmental impact statement must be filed with the Department of the Interior
• C. Operators must inform the FAA of their intent to operate, giving their call sign and distance to the nearest runway
• D. A special endorsement must be requested from the FCC

E3B10

43. Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

• A. Atmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
• B. The MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
• C. Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
• D. The signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop using Earth as a reflector

E1F10

44. Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

• A. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
• B. Any licensed amateur operator
• C. Only Amateur Extra Class operators
• D. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

E6B05

45. What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?

• A. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
• B. Low junction capacitance
• C. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
• D. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power

E7C11

46. Which of the following describes a receiving filter's ability to reject signals occupying an adjacent channel?

• A. Shape factor
• B. Passband ripple
• C. Noise factor
• D. Phase response

E4C04

47. What is the noise figure of a receiver?

• A. The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
• B. The ratio of the noise bandwidth in hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
• C. The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise
• D. The ratio of thermal noise to atmospheric noise

E6D07

48. What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

• A. Direct current
• B. Magnetizing current
• C. Stabilizing current
• D. Excitation current

E3A12

49. What is the cause of auroral activity?

• A. The interaction in the E layer of charged particles from the Sun with the Earth's magnetic field
• B. Meteor showers concentrated in the extreme northern and southern latitudes
• C. The interaction in the F2 layer between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
• D. An extreme low-pressure area in the polar regions

E7D10

50. What is the primary reason that a high-frequency switching type high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than a conventional power supply?

• A. The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
• B. It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output
• C. The inverter design does not require any output filtering
• D. It uses a large power factor compensation capacitor to recover power from the unused portion of the AC cycle