Practice Exam

E7A06

1. What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

• A. It stores one bit of data
• B. It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
• C. It switches temporarily to an alternate state for a set time
• D. It produces a continuous square wave

E7E02

2. What is the function of a reactance modulator?

• A. Produce AM signals by varying an inductance
• B. Produce PM or FM signals by varying a resistance
• C. Produce PM or FM signals by varying a capacitance
• D. Produce AM signals by varying a resistance

E8C09

3. Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

• A. Gray code
• B. Binary Coded Decimal Code
• C. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
• D. Extended ASCII

E0A07

4. What is meant by "100% tie-off" regarding tower safety?

• A. At least one lanyard attached to the tower at all times
• B. All loose ropes and guys secured to a fixed structure
• C. All circuit breakers feeding power to the tower must be tied closed with tape, cable, or ties
• D. All tools secured to the climber's harness

E7G08

5. How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

• A. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
• B. It does not vary with frequency
• C. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
• D. It increases linearly with increasing frequency

E8A08

6. Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio?

• A. Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
• B. Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies

E7F05

7. How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced?

• A. At the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal
• B. At least twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
• C. At four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
• D. At least half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal

E5D02

8. Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?

• A. To increase the thermal time constant
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. To maintain component lifetime
• D. To minimize inductive reactance

E5B11

9. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

• A. 63 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• B. 63 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• C. 27 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• D. 27 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E6E03

10. Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

• A. Silicon dioxide
• B. Silicon
• C. Gallium nitride
• D. Silicon nitride

E9H05

11. What challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. It has a bidirectional null pattern
• C. It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
• D. It does not have a clearly defined null

E2C10

12. Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies?

• A. To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
• B. To separate the calling stations from the DX station
• C. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
• D. All these choices are correct

E3C01

13. What is the cause of short-term radio blackouts?

• A. Solar flares
• B. North-oriented interplanetary magnetic field
• C. Sunspots on the solar equator
• D. Coronal mass ejections

E6C08

14. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

• A. 4
• B. 1
• C. 3
• D. 2

E4C01

15. What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver's master clock oscillator?

• A. It can combine with strong signals on nearby frequencies to generate interference
• B. It can affect the receiver's frequency calibration
• C. It decreases the receiver's third-order intercept point
• D. It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals

E7B03

16. What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier?

• A. A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
• B. A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
• C. A filter to remove harmonic content
• D. A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity

E2E07

17. How does Q65 differ from JT65?

• A. Quadrature modulation is used
• B. Multiple receive cycles are averaged
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Keyboard-to keyboard operation is supported

E7D13

18. Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator?

• A. Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
• B. Input voltage divided by output current
• C. Input voltage multiplied by input current
• D. Output voltage multiplied by output current

E1F05

19. Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

• A. 222 MHz - 223 MHz
• B. 53 MHz - 54 MHz
• C. 420 MHz - 430 MHz
• D. 440 MHz - 450 MHz

E2A05

20. What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

• A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
• B. The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
• C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
• D. The location of the ground control station

E7H13

21. Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

• A. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
• B. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Use a GPS signal reference

E9B02

22. What is the front-to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

• A. 24 dB
• B. 14 dB
• C. 18 dB
• D. 36 dB

E8D01

23. Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

• A. Built-in error correction codes minimize interference
• B. The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
• C. Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
• D. If the receiver detects interference, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies

E5C03

24. Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

• A. A negative 45 degree phase angle
• B. A positive 45 degree phase angle
• C. A negative 90 degree phase angle
• D. A positive 90 degree phase angle

E1E07

25. What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

• A. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
• B. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
• C. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session
• D. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination

E4A07

26. Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge?

• A. Antenna analyzers compute SWR and impedance automatically
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
• D. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance

E2D03

27. Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications?

• A. PACTOR III
• B. MSK144
• C. WSPR
• D. Q65

E6D06

28. What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

• A. Resistance
• B. Permittivity
• C. Reactivity
• D. Permeability

E4B02

29. What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

• A. The full scale reading in amps divided by ohms per volt rating will determine the size of shunt needed
• B. The reading in volts multiplied by the ohms per volt rating will determine the power drawn by the device under test
• C. The reading in ohms divided by the ohms per volt rating will determine the voltage applied to the circuit
• D. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating is the input impedance of the voltmeter

E9E02

30. What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna and the conductor a fraction of a wavelength to one side?

• A. T-match
• B. Delta match
• C. Gamma match
• D. Stub match

E4D09

31. What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

• A. To store frequencies that are often used
• B. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
• C. To provide broadband attenuation before the first RF stage to prevent intermodulation
• D. To increase the rejection of signals outside the band being received

E1C07

32. What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630- or 2200-meter bands?

• A. Operators must inform the FAA of their intent to operate, giving their call sign and distance to the nearest runway
• B. A special endorsement must be requested from the FCC
• C. Operators must inform the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of their call sign and coordinates of the station
• D. An environmental impact statement must be filed with the Department of the Interior

E1A02

33. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

• A. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
• B. The exact lower band edge
• C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
• D. 300 Hz above the lower band edge

E1B06

34. Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or near a public use airport?

• A. You may have to enter the height above ground in meters, and the latitude and longitude in degrees, minutes, and seconds on the FAA website
• B. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
• C. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of the FCC rules
• D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority per Part 119 of the FAA regulations

E9G09

35. What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks?

• A. Radiation-pattern circles
• B. Transmission line length circles
• C. Constant-SWR circles
• D. Coaxial-length circles

E9A11

36. Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating on HF?

• A. Take-off angle
• B. The standing wave ratio
• C. Distance from the transmitter
• D. Soil conductivity

E6B06

37. Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

• A. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
• B. In oscillator circuits as the negative resistance element
• C. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
• D. In power supplies as a constant voltage reference

E9F07

38. How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric?

• A. Lower velocity factor
• B. Higher SWR
• C. Smaller reflection coefficient
• D. Lower loss

E3B11

39. At what time of day is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

• A. Between sunset and midnight
• B. Between midnight and sunrise
• C. Between sunset and sunrise
• D. Between sunrise and sunset

E9C05

40. What is the purpose of feeding an off-center-fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoint?

• A. To suppress off-center lobes at higher frequencies
• B. To create a similar feed point impedance on multiple bands
• C. To reduce common-mode current coupling on the feed line shield
• D. To resonate the antenna across a wider range of frequencies

E6A06

41. What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

• A. The change in collector current with respect to the change in base current
• B. The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 0.707
• C. The switching speed
• D. The breakdown voltage of the base-to-collector junction

E5A04

42. What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

• A. Low compared to the circuit resistance
• B. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
• C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
• D. High compared to the circuit resistance

E3A06

43. What should be done to continue a long-distance contact when the MUF for that path decreases due to darkness?

• A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band
• B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band
• C. Change to an antenna with greater beam width
• D. Change to an antenna with a higher takeoff angle

E2B02

44. How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

• A. 525
• B. 30
• C. 60
• D. 1080

E1D06

45. What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand?

• A. 5 watts
• B. 2 watts
• C. 100 watts
• D. 1 watt

E4E02

46. Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced by a digital noise reduction?

• A. Power line noise
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Broadband white noise
• D. Ignition noise

E7C07

47. Which describes a Pi-L network?

• A. A Phase Inverter Load network
• B. A network with only three discrete parts
• C. A Pi-network with an additional output series inductor
• D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

E9D04

48. Why should antenna loading coils have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

• A. To lower the radiation angle
• B. To minimize the Q
• C. To maximize efficiency
• D. To swamp out harmonics

E6F10

49. What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells?

• A. Cadmium sulfide
• B. Silicon
• C. Indium arsenide
• D. Selenium

E8B05

50. What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

• A. 6
• B. 0.6
• C. 0.167
• D. 1.67