Practice Exam

E0A09

1. Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations?

• A. Hand-held transceivers sold before May 3, 2021
• B. Dish antennas less than one meter in diameter
• C. Transceivers with less than 7 watts of RF output
• D. Antennas that radiate only in the near field

E7E05

2. What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies?

• A. A de-emphasis network
• B. A harmonic enhancer
• C. A pre-emphasis network
• D. A heterodyne enhancer

E7F01

3. What is meant by "direct sampling" in software defined radios?

• A. Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
• B. A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
• C. Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
• D. I and Q signals are generated by digital processing without the use of RF amplification

E9C08

4. What is a folded dipole antenna?

• A. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
• B. A dipole configured to provide forward gain
• C. A center-fed dipole with the ends folded down 90 degrees at the midpoint of each side
• D. A half-wave dipole with an additional parallel wire connecting its two ends

E8C13

5. What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal?

• A. The possible phase and amplitude states for each symbol
• B. Frequency response of the signal stream
• C. The number of bits used for error correction in the protocol
• D. How many carriers may be present at the same time

E6B07

6. What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current?

• A. Charge carrier depletion
• B. Insufficient forward voltage
• C. Excessive inverse voltage
• D. Excessive junction temperature

E9B01

7. What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

• A. 75 degrees
• B. 50 degrees
• C. 30 degrees
• D. 25 degrees

E7H04

8. How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

• A. Through a neutralizing capacitor
• B. Through link coupling
• C. Through a tapped coil
• D. Through a capacitive divider

E7C08

9. Which of the following is most frequently used as a band-pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers?

• A. A helical filter
• B. A swinging choke filter
• C. A finite impulse response filter
• D. A Sallen-Key filter

E2A09

10. What do the terms "L band" and "S band" specify?

• A. FM and digital store-and-forward systems
• B. The 2-meter and 70-centimeter bands
• C. Which sideband to use
• D. The 23- and 13-centimeter bands

E9H11

11. What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction-finding antennas?

• A. Broadband response
• B. A very sharp peak
• C. High radiation angle
• D. A single null

E5C03

12. Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

• A. A positive 45 degree phase angle
• B. A positive 90 degree phase angle
• C. A negative 90 degree phase angle
• D. A negative 45 degree phase angle

E7G10

13. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

• A. 0.03
• B. 1
• C. 76
• D. 38

E9A06

14. What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

• A. 300 watts
• B. 2,000 watts
• C. 317 watts
• D. 126 watts

E9E02

15. What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna and the conductor a fraction of a wavelength to one side?

• A. Delta match
• B. Stub match
• C. T-match
• D. Gamma match

E3A08

16. When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what region of the ionosphere?

• A. The E region
• B. The F2 region
• C. The D region
• D. The F1 region

E1E10

17. What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

• A. They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
• B. They must return the documents to the applicant for submission to the FCC according to the FCC instructions
• C. They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
• D. They must collect and send the documents directly to the FCC

E6C06

18. Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

• A. Bandwidth is very limited
• B. The input switching threshold is about twice the power supply voltage
• C. Large bypass capacitance is inherent
• D. The input switching threshold is about half the power supply voltage

E4B01

19. Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

• A. Time base accuracy
• B. Decade divider accuracy
• C. Temperature coefficient of the logic
• D. Input attenuator accuracy

E2C08

20. Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (LoTW)?

• A. Contacts between a US station and a non-US station
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Contacts for Worked All States credit
• D. Special event contacts between stations in the US

E5B03

21. How is impedance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance?

• A. Take the reciprocal of the angle and change the sign of the magnitude
• B. Take the square root of the magnitude and add 180 degrees to the angle
• C. Square the magnitude and subtract 90 degrees from the angle
• D. Take the reciprocal of the magnitude and change the sign of the angle

E4D14

22. What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of -100 dBm represent?

• A. 0.1 picowatts
• B. 0.001 microwatts
• C. 0.1 microwatt
• D. 100 microwatts

E7D11

23. What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output?

• A. Reduce AC ripple on the output
• B. Prevent discharge when panel is not illuminated
• C. Maintain voltage with varying illumination levels
• D. Convert the panel's output from DC to AC

E4E09

24. What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker?

• A. FM signals can no longer be demodulated
• B. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
• C. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
• D. Strong signals may be distorted and appear to cause spurious emissions

E9F08

25. Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

• A. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower safe maximum operating voltage
• B. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has higher velocity factor
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower loss per unit of length

E2B01

26. In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

• A. 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval
• B. Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
• C. 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data
• D. Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel

E1B10

27. What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

• A. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
• B. Specific local government channels
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF, and UHF bands

E6E07

28. What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMICs?

• A. Parallel wire
• B. Microstrip
• C. Circular waveguide
• D. Miniature coax

E5A05

29. What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?

• A. Matching bandwidth is increased
• B. Matching bandwidth is decreased
• C. Losses increase
• D. Harmonics increase

E8A08

30. Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio?

• A. Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
• B. Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
• C. Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
• D. All these choices are correct

E5D04

31. Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies?

• A. To increase compensating capacitance
• B. To increase neutralizing resistance
• C. To reduce phase shift along the connection
• D. To reduce noise figure

E2E03

32. To what does the "4" in FT4 refer?

• A. Four-tone continuous-phase frequency shift keying
• B. Multiples of 4 bits of user information
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Four transmit/receive cycles per minute

E7A02

33. What is the function of a decade counter?

• A. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
• B. It produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
• C. It decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display
• D. It produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse

E6D12

34. What causes inductor saturation?

• A. Selecting a core with excessive permittivity
• B. Operation at excessive magnetic flux
• C. Selecting a core with low permeability
• D. Operation at too high a frequency

E2D06

35. Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts?

• A. High-speed CW identification to avoid fading
• B. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
• C. Storing and forwarding digital messages
• D. Time-synchronous transmissions alternating between stations

E8D07

36. What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

• A. Bit errors in the modem
• B. Excessive transmit audio levels
• C. Excessive frequency deviation
• D. Excessive numbers of retries

E9D12

37. What is the purpose of making a Yagi's parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance?

• A. Control of phase shift
• B. Minimize losses
• C. Mechanical balance
• D. Wind torque cancellation

E1A02

38. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

• A. The exact lower band edge
• B. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
• C. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
• D. 300 Hz above the lower band edge

E4C01

39. What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver's master clock oscillator?

• A. It limits the receiver's ability to receive strong signals
• B. It can affect the receiver's frequency calibration
• C. It can combine with strong signals on nearby frequencies to generate interference
• D. It decreases the receiver's third-order intercept point

E9G08

40. How is a Smith chart normalized?

• A. Reassign the prime center to the reactance axis
• B. Reassign the prime center's impedance value
• C. Reassign the resistance axis with reactance values
• D. Reassign the reactance axis with resistance values

E1D01

41. What is the definition of telemetry?

• A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
• B. Two-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
• C. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
• D. Two-way transmissions of data

E6A07

42. Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

• A. Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 ohms to 0.7 ohms
• B. Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 volts to 0.7 volts
• C. Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 volts to 7 volts
• D. Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 ohms to 7 ohms

E8B11

43. What is digital time division multiplexing?

• A. Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
• B. Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
• C. Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
• D. Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier

E6F05

44. Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

• A. A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
• B. An optical computing device in which light is coupled between devices by fiber optics
• C. A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog-to-digital conversion
• D. A device that detects rotation by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel

E3B10

45. What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation?

• A. The MUF for chordal-hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
• B. The signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop propagation, which uses Earth as a reflector
• C. Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
• D. Atmospheric noise is reduced in the direction of chordal-hop propagation

E3C07

46. Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

• A. Class A
• B. Class M
• C. Class Z
• D. Class X

E7B05

47. What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

• A. Tune both the input and output for maximum power
• B. Use a phase inverter in the output filter
• C. Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
• D. Tune the stage for minimum loading

E1C01

48. What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

• A. 60 Hz
• B. 1.5 kHz
• C. 170 Hz
• D. 2.8 kHz

E1F11

49. Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

• A. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power
• B. It must have received an Underwriters Laboratory certification for electrical safety as well as having met IEEE standard 14.101(B)
• C. It must exhibit a gain of less than 23 dB when driven by 10 watts or less
• D. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power

E4A07

50. Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge?

• A. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
• B. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
• C. Antenna analyzers compute SWR and impedance automatically
• D. All these choices are correct