Practice Exam

E7C05

1. Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

• A. An active LC filter
• B. A Chebyshev filter
• C. A Butterworth filter
• D. A passive op-amp filter

E5A03

2. What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

• A. High, compared to the circuit resistance
• B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
• C. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
• D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance

E7D09

3. How is battery operating time calculated?

• A. Average current divided by capacity in amp-hours
• B. Average current divided by internal resistance
• C. Internal resistance divided by average current
• D. Capacity in amp-hours divided by average current

E6E05

4. Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

• A. -10 dB
• B. 44 dBm
• C. 0.5 dB
• D. -20 dBm

E2B07

5. Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB-T signals?

• A. AM and OOK
• B. QAM and QPSK
• C. FM and FSK
• D. All these choices are correct

E9A08

6. Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone?

• A. 2.4 GHz
• B. 3.4 GHz
• C. 900 MHz
• D. 5.8 GHz

E7E08

7. What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer?

• A. 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
• B. The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
• C. Two and four times the input frequency
• D. The square root of the product of input frequencies

E1A04

8. May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone?

• A. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 75-meter phone band segment
• B. No, the sideband components will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
• C. Yes, the entire signal will be inside the SSB allocation for Extra class operators
• D. No, US stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz

E5B07

9. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

• A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• B. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• D. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E8D06

10. What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

• A. A larger character set is available
• B. Faster transmission rate
• C. Some types of errors can be detected
• D. Signal-to-noise ratio is improved

E4C07

11. What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

• A. The modulation distortion specification
• B. The maximum detectable spectrum
• C. The meter display sensitivity
• D. The minimum discernible signal

E1F03

12. Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

• A. The amplifier is constructed or modified by an amateur radio operator for use at an amateur station
• B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
• C. Gain is less than 23 dB when driven by power of 10 watts or less
• D. It was manufactured and certificated in a country which has a reciprocal certification agreement with the FCC

E8C09

13. Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

• A. Binary Coded Decimal Code
• B. Extended ASCII
• C. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
• D. Gray code

E3A11

14. What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals?

• A. 100 miles to 300 miles
• B. 2,500 miles
• C. 1,200 miles
• D. 10 miles to 50 miles

E3C11

15. What does VOACAP software model?

• A. AC current and impedance
• B. AC voltage and impedance
• C. HF propagation
• D. VHF radio propagation

E9E03

16. What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

• A. Gamma match
• B. Stub match
• C. T-match
• D. Delta match

E5C11

17. Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

• A. Point 3
• B. Point 8
• C. Point 1
• D. Point 7

E6F03

18. What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

• A. A lens and a photomultiplier
• B. An amplitude-modulated helium-neon laser
• C. A frequency-modulated helium-neon laser
• D. An LED and a phototransistor

E1E07

19. What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

• A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
• B. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
• C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
• D. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session

E1C12

20. In what portion of the 630-meter band are phone emissions permitted?

• A. Only the bottom 3 kHz
• B. None
• C. Only the top 3 kHz
• D. The entire band

E9D10

21. How does radiation resistance of a base-fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency?

• A. Radiation resistance does not depend on frequency
• B. Radiation resistance increases
• C. Radiation resistance becomes imaginary
• D. Radiation resistance decreases

E5D03

22. What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power?

• A. They are out of phase
• B. They are 90 degrees out of phase
• C. They are 45 degrees out of phase
• D. They are in phase

E2E01

23. Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz?

• A. FSK
• B. Pulse modulation
• C. Spread spectrum
• D. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal

E2A07

24. Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

• A. PSK and packet
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. SSB and SSTV
• D. FM and CW

E1D08

25. Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

• A. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
• B. 2 meters
• C. 6 meters and 2 meters
• D. 2 meters and 1.25 meters

E8B05

26. What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

• A. 0.167
• B. 1.67
• C. 6
• D. 0.6

E7G08

27. How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

• A. It does not vary with frequency
• B. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
• C. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
• D. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency

E7B04

28. What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier?

• A. At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
• B. At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
• C. Approximately halfway between saturation and cutoff
• D. Approximately halfway between the emitter voltage and the base voltage

E6A03

29. Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

• A. Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
• B. Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
• C. Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
• D. Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator

E0A07

30. What is meant by "100% tie-off" regarding tower safety?

• A. At least one lanyard attached to the tower at all times
• B. All tools secured to the climber's harness
• C. All loose ropes and guys secured to a fixed structure
• D. All circuit breakers feeding power to the tower must be tied closed with tape, cable, or ties

E2C06

31. During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity?

• A. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
• B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
• C. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
• D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency

E7H12

32. Which of the following ensures that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

• A. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
• B. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
• C. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
• D. Bias the crystal at a specified current

E4B10

33. Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

• A. Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
• B. Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
• C. Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
• D. Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter

E6D06

34. What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

• A. Resistance
• B. Permittivity
• C. Reactivity
• D. Permeability

E9C12

35. Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?

• A. An end-fed full-wave dipole antenna
• B. An end-fed 2-wavelength dipole antenna
• C. A center-fed 1.5-wavelength dipole antenna
• D. A center-fed 1.25-wavelength dipole antenna

E3B10

36. What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation?

• A. The MUF for chordal-hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
• B. The signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop propagation, which uses Earth as a reflector
• C. Atmospheric noise is reduced in the direction of chordal-hop propagation
• D. Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords

E7F02

37. What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

• A. A Hilbert-transform filter
• B. A crystal-lattice filter
• C. A phase-inverting filter
• D. An adaptive filter

E8A08

38. Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio?

• A. Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
• D. Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies

E7A11

39. What does "positive logic" mean in reference to logic devices?

• A. High voltage represents a 1, low voltage a 0
• B. The logic devices have high noise immunity
• C. The logic circuit is in the "true" condition
• D. 1s and 0s are defined as different positive voltage levels

E9B09

40. What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas?

• A. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
• B. Graphical analysis
• C. Mutual impedance analysis
• D. Method of Moments

E9H06

41. What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna?

• A. Minimum variation in SWR over the desired frequency range
• B. Maximum DC current in the terminating resistor
• C. Minimum low-angle front-to-back ratio at the design frequency
• D. Maximum feed point DC resistance at the center of the desired frequency range

E9G05

42. Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?

• A. Determine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials
• B. Determine the length and position of an impedance matching stub
• C. Determine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters
• D. Determine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions

E6C01

43. What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

• A. To cause the output to continually change states
• B. To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signals
• C. To increase the sensitivity
• D. To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals

E2D09

44. What type of modulation is used by JT65?

• A. QAM
• B. Multitone AFSK
• C. RTTY
• D. PSK

E1B03

45. Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

• A. 1 mile
• B. 10 miles
• C. 30 miles
• D. 3 miles

E4D13

46. What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive antenna gain of 3 dBi, and a path loss of 100 dB?

• A. -60 dBm
• B. -54 dBm
• C. -57 dBm
• D. -51 dBm

E6B06

47. Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

• A. In power supplies as a constant voltage reference
• B. In oscillator circuits as the negative resistance element
• C. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
• D. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit

E9F07

48. How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric?

• A. Lower velocity factor
• B. Lower loss
• C. Higher SWR
• D. Smaller reflection coefficient

E4E01

49. What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
• C. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
• D. Excessive ringing

E4A02

50. Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

• A. Signal amplitude and frequency
• B. SWR and frequency
• C. Signal amplitude and time
• D. SWR and time