Practice Exam

Element 4: Extra

E7C06

1. What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

E3C07

2. Which of the following descriptors indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

E1C14

3. How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200 meter or 630 meter band?

E8B03

4. What is the modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency when the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

E9E06

5. Which of these feed line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm loop to 50-ohm feed line?

E2D10

6. How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity?

E5C01

7. Which of the following represents capacitive reactance in rectangular notation?

E9B11

8. What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?

E7B06

9. Which of the following amplifier types reduces even-order harmonics?

E9H06

10. What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

E2E10

11. Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

E4C05

12. What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

E9G04

13. What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

E9C07

14. What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

E1A01

15. Which of the following carrier frequencies is illegal for LSB AFSK emissions on the 17 meter band RTTY and data segment of 18.068 to 18.110 MHz?

E1B10

16. What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

E2B11

17. What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

E6F08

18. Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits when switching 120 VAC?

E2A11

19. What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

E7D05

20. Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?

E4E08

21. What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multi-conductor cable?

E0A01

22. What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

E6D13

23. What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

E4A05

24. What is the purpose of the prescaler function on a frequency counter?

E4D04

25. Which of the following may reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter operating in close proximity?

E2C04

26. Which of the following frequencies are sometimes used for amateur radio mesh networks?

E8D03

27. How does the spread spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?

Figure

E7G10

28. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

E1F11

29. Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

E5B05

30. What happens to the magnitude of a pure reactance when it is converted to a susceptance?

E7F14

31. Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

E3A03

32. When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

E6E11

33. What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

E6B09

34. What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

E9A10

35. Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

E1D10

36. Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations (subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station)?

E7A10

37. What is a truth table?

E7E06

38. Why is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?

E1E10

39. What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

E9D08

40. What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

E5D08

41. How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?

E4B11

42. Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?

E9F07

43. How does ladder line compare to small-diameter coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?

E8A09

44. How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?

E8C07

45. What is the bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

E6A08

46. What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

E3B01

47. What is transequatorial propagation?

E7H12

48. Which of the following must be done to ensure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

E6C09

49. What is a Programmable Logic Device (PLD)?

E5A07

50. What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?