Practice Exam

E4C07

1. What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

• A. The maximum detectable spectrum
• B. The meter display sensitivity
• C. The multiplex distortion stability
• D. The minimum discernible signal

E0A04

2. When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

• A. Only the most powerful transmitter
• B. Only commercial transmitters
• C. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded.
• D. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent

E4D03

3. How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

• A. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
• B. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
• C. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
• D. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters

E8C01

4. How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

• A. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
• B. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
• C. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
• D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm

E9C08

5. What is a folded dipole antenna?

• A. A dipole configured to provide forward gain
• B. A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
• C. A half-wave dipole with an additional parallel wire connecting its two ends
• D. A type of ground-plane antenna

E7A08

6. What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

• A. It only produces logic 0 at its output when all inputs are logic 1
• B. It produces logic 1 at its output if all inputs are logic 0
• C. It produces logic 0 at its output if all inputs are logic 1
• D. It produces logic 1 at its output if any or all inputs are logic 1

E1D05

7. What must be posted at the station location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 km of the earth's surface?

• A. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
• B. A photocopy of the station license
• C. A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
• D. All these choices are correct

E6F07

8. What is a solid-state relay?

• A. A semiconductor passive delay line
• B. A relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
• C. A device that uses semiconductors to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
• D. A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed

E7C06

9. What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

• A. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
• B. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
• C. Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
• D. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band

E4A07

10. Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

• A. Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
• B. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
• C. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
• D. All these choices are correct

E2E11

11. What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

• A. Only direct FSK can be decoded by computer
• B. Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO, while AFSK transmits tones via phone
• C. Direct FSK occupies less bandwidth
• D. Direct FSK can transmit faster baud rates

E8B05

12. What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

• A. 1.67
• B. 0.6
• C. 0.167
• D. 60

E1A05

13. What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band?

• A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole
• B. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a half-wave dipole
• C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
• D. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator

E6E06

14. What characteristics of the MMIC make it a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

• A. Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
• B. The ability to retrieve information from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals
• C. Plate current that is controlled by a control grid
• D. Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance

E9A11

15. Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3 MHz to 30 MHz range?

• A. Distance from the transmitter
• B. The standing wave ratio
• C. Take-off angle
• D. Soil conductivity

E9F04

16. What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• B. Very low impedance
• C. The same as the output impedance of the generator
• D. Very high impedance

E1E06

17. Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

• A. The VEC coordinating the session
• B. The FCC
• C. The VE session manager
• D. Each administering VE

E9E01

18. What system matches a higher-impedance transmission line to a lower-impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

• A. The omega matching system
• B. The gamma matching system
• C. The delta matching system
• D. The stub matching system

E1F10

19. Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

• A. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
• B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
• C. Any licensed amateur operator
• D. Only Amateur Extra Class operators

E9D04

20. Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

• A. To lower the radiation angle
• B. To swamp out harmonics
• C. To minimize the Q
• D. To minimize losses

E7D03

21. What device is typically used as a stable voltage reference in a linear voltage regulator?

• A. A Zener diode
• B. A varactor diode
• C. An SCR
• D. A tunnel diode

E2A05

22. What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

• A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
• B. The location of the ground control station
• C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
• D. The uplink and downlink frequency ranges

E6C05

23. What is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

• A. Lower power consumption
• B. Lower distortion
• C. Differential output capability
• D. Immune to damage from static discharge

E7B08

24. How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?

• A. By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input
• B. By reducing the driving power
• C. By increasing the driving power
• D. By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input

E6D07

25. What is current in the primary winding of a transformer called if no load is attached to the secondary?

• A. Stabilizing current
• B. Direct current
• C. Excitation current
• D. Magnetizing current

E2B01

26. How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

• A. 60
• B. 90
• C. 30
• D. 120

E5A08

27. What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

• A. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
• B. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
• C. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
• D. The voltage and current are in phase

E8D08

28. What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?

• A. Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
• B. Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
• C. Baud rate
• D. Signal-to-noise ratio

E3A07

29. Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

• A. Forests
• B. Mountain ranges
• C. Bodies of water
• D. Urban areas

E8A09

30. How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?

• A. 8
• B. 8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
• C. 256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
• D. 256

E1C09

31. What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

• A. 2.0
• B. 1.0
• C. 3.0
• D. 0.5

E2D05

32. What is one advantage of the JT65 mode?

• A. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
• B. Easily copied by ear if necessary
• C. The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal-to-noise ratio
• D. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth

E4E04

33. How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?

• A. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads
• B. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and a blocking capacitor in the field lead
• C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
• D. By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads

E5D12

34. How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100 VAC at 4 amperes?

• A. 400 watts
• B. 80 watts
• C. 50 watts
• D. 2000 watts

E3C14

35. Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?

• A. D-region skip
• B. E-region skip
• C. Due to the Doppler effect
• D. Downward bending due to density variations in the atmosphere

E5C03

36. Which of the following represents an inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

• A. A negative phase angle
• B. A positive phase angle
• C. A positive magnitude
• D. A negative magnitude

E6B05

37. What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?

• A. Low junction capacitance
• B. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
• C. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
• D. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power

E7E02

38. What is the function of a reactance modulator?

• A. To produce PM or FM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
• B. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
• C. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
• D. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance

E9G02

39. What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

• A. Voltage lines and current chords
• B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs
• C. Voltage circles and current arcs
• D. Resistance lines and reactance chords

E3B01

40. What is transequatorial propagation?

• A. Propagation between points at the same latitude
• B. Propagation between points located on the magnetic equator
• C. Propagation between two mid-latitude points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator
• D. Propagation between a point on the equator and its antipodal point

E4B08

41. Which of the following can be used to measure the Q of a series-tuned circuit?

• A. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
• B. The frequency shift
• C. The inductance to capacitance ratio
• D. The resonant frequency of the circuit

E1B07

42. To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

• A. Use of wireless devices in vehicles
• B. State and local zoning
• C. Homeowners associations
• D. FAA tower height limits

E5B12

43. What is admittance?

• A. The turns ratio of a transformer
• B. The inverse of Q factor
• C. The inverse of impedance
• D. The term for the gain of a field effect transistor

E6A02

44. Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

• A. N-type
• B. Insulated gate
• C. P-type
• D. Bipolar

E2C03

45. From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

• A. 6 meters
• B. 30 meters
• C. 2 meters
• D. 33 centimeters

E7F14

46. Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

• A. Complex phasor representations
• B. Higher data rate
• C. Double-precision math routines
• D. More taps

E7G11

47. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

• A. 28
• B. 7
• C. 0.07
• D. 14

E9H07

48. Why is RF attenuation used when direction-finding?

• A. To increase receiver sensitivity
• B. To narrow the receiver bandwidth
• C. To prevent receiver overload which reduces pattern nulls
• D. To compensate for isotropic directivity and the antenna effect of feed lines

E9B06

49. What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 75 degrees
• B. 45 degrees
• C. 7.5 degrees
• D. 25 degrees

E7H13

50. Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

• A. Use a GPS signal reference
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
• D. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator