Practice Exam

E6F03

1. What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

• A. An LED and a phototransistor
• B. A frequency-modulated helium-neon laser
• C. An amplitude-modulated helium-neon laser
• D. A lens and a photomultiplier

E9G05

2. Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?

• A. Determine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials
• B. Determine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions
• C. Determine the length and position of an impedance matching stub
• D. Determine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters

E4A07

3. Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
• C. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
• D. Antenna analyzers compute SWR and impedance automatically

E9A01

4. What is an isotropic radiator?

• A. An omnidirectional, horizontally polarized, precisely calibrated antenna used to make field measurements of antenna gain
• B. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward Earth
• C. A calibrated, unidirectional antenna used to make precise antenna gain measurements
• D. A hypothetical, lossless antenna having equal radiation intensity in all directions used as a reference for antenna gain

E9F06

5. What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

• A. 13.3 meters
• B. 7.0 meters
• C. 8.5 meters
• D. 10.6 meters

E9E07

6. What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line?

• A. Dielectric constant
• B. Reflection coefficient
• C. Characteristic impedance
• D. Velocity factor

E2A06

7. What are Keplerian elements?

• A. Phase reversing elements in a Yagi antenna
• B. Parameters that define the orbit of a satellite
• C. High-emission heater filaments used in magnetron tubes
• D. Encrypting codes used for spread spectrum modulation

E3C01

8. What is the cause of short-term radio blackouts?

• A. Sunspots on the solar equator
• B. Coronal mass ejections
• C. North-oriented interplanetary magnetic field
• D. Solar flares

E1A08

9. If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

• A. The control operators of all the stations in the system
• B. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
• C. The control operator of the originating station
• D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications

E7A05

10. Which of the following circuits continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal?

• A. J-K flip-flop
• B. T flip-flop
• C. Astable multivibrator
• D. Monostable multivibrator

E4D06

11. What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

• A. Quieting
• B. Desensitization
• C. Reciprocal mixing
• D. Cross modulation interference

E5A08

12. What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

• A. The voltage and current are in phase
• B. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
• C. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
• D. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees

E2E04

13. Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Four-tone Gaussian frequency shift keying
• C. Variable transmit/receive periods
• D. Seven different tone spacings

E9C13

14. How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground?

• A. The horizontal beamwidth decreases
• B. The takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe decreases
• C. The takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe increases
• D. The horizontal beamwidth increases

E2C09

15. What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network?

• A. A computer running EchoLink to provide interface from the radio to the internet
• B. A wireless router running custom firmware
• C. A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9,600-baud modem
• D. A 2-meter VHF transceiver with a 1,200-baud modem

E1E08

16. To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

• A. Friends of the VE
• B. Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
• C. Employees of the VE
• D. All these choices are correct

E8C06

17. What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal?

• A. 2.4 kHz
• B. 600 Hz
• C. 10 Hz
• D. 50 Hz

E9D03

18. What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip?

• A. Near the center of the vertical radiator
• B. At a voltage maximum
• C. As low as possible on the vertical radiator
• D. At a voltage null

E9B05

19. What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. Near field
• B. Elevation
• C. Polarization
• D. Azimuth

E6D01

20. What is piezoelectricity?

• A. The ability of materials to generate voltage when an electromagnetic wave of a certain frequency is applied
• B. A characteristic of materials that generate a voltage when stressed and that flex when a voltage is applied
• C. A characteristic of materials that have an index of refraction which depends on the polarization of the electromagnetic wave passing through it
• D. The ability of materials to generate electromagnetic waves of a certain frequency when voltage is applied

E4C12

21. How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

• A. It improves blocking dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
• B. It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. It improves sensitivity by reducing front-end noise

E6A11

22. In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

• A. 6
• B. 2
• C. 1
• D. 3

E4B02

23. What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

• A. The reading in volts multiplied by the ohms per volt rating will determine the power drawn by the device under test
• B. The reading in ohms divided by the ohms per volt rating will determine the voltage applied to the circuit
• C. The full scale reading in amps divided by ohms per volt rating will determine the size of shunt needed
• D. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating is the input impedance of the voltmeter

E1B06

24. Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or near a public use airport?

• A. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
• B. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of the FCC rules
• C. You may have to enter the height above ground in meters, and the latitude and longitude in degrees, minutes, and seconds on the FAA website
• D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority per Part 119 of the FAA regulations

E2B01

25. In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

• A. Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
• B. Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel
• C. 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data
• D. 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval

E7E02

26. What is the function of a reactance modulator?

• A. Produce PM or FM signals by varying a resistance
• B. Produce PM or FM signals by varying a capacitance
• C. Produce AM signals by varying a resistance
• D. Produce AM signals by varying an inductance

E1C01

27. What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

• A. 170 Hz
• B. 2.8 kHz
• C. 60 Hz
• D. 1.5 kHz

E3B01

28. Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur?

• A. Between points separated by 2,000 miles to 3,000 miles over a path perpendicular to the geomagnetic equator
• B. Between points located 1,500 miles to 2,000 miles apart on the geomagnetic equator
• C. Between points located at each other's antipode
• D. Through the region where the terminator crosses the geographic equator

E7C06

29. What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter?

• A. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop-band ripple
• B. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
• C. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop-band ripple
• D. Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop-band corners

E7H03

30. What is a phase-locked loop?

• A. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
• B. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential phase input
• C. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
• D. An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator

E7D08

31. What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?

• A. Common emitter amplifier
• B. Switching voltage regulator
• C. Common base amplifier
• D. Linear voltage regulator

E3A09

32. Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor-scatter communications?

• A. 10 MHz - 14 MHz
• B. 1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
• C. 28 MHz - 148 MHz
• D. 220 MHz - 450 MHz

E7B06

33. What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

• A. High electrostatic damage protection
• B. Low input impedance
• C. High power gain
• D. Low bandwidth

E6B01

34. What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

• A. A negative resistance region
• B. A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
• C. A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
• D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage

E8D08

35. What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?

• A. Baud error rate
• B. Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
• C. Signal-to-noise ratio
• D. Repeat Request Rate (RRR)

E5C10

36. Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

• A. Point 5
• B. Point 6
• C. Point 4
• D. Point 2

E8B04

37. What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the highest modulating frequency is 2 kHz?

• A. 3
• B. 6
• C. 0.3
• D. 0.6

E5D07

38. What combines to create the self-resonance of a component?

• A. The component's resistance and reactance
• B. The component's inductance and capacitance
• C. The component's electrical length and impedance
• D. The component's nominal and parasitic reactance

E6E03

39. Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

• A. Silicon dioxide
• B. Gallium nitride
• C. Silicon nitride
• D. Silicon

E5B03

40. How is impedance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance?

• A. Take the reciprocal of the angle and change the sign of the magnitude
• B. Square the magnitude and subtract 90 degrees from the angle
• C. Take the square root of the magnitude and add 180 degrees to the angle
• D. Take the reciprocal of the magnitude and change the sign of the angle

E9H07

41. What is the function of a Beverage antenna's termination resistor?

• A. Decrease SWR bandwidth
• B. Increase the front-to-side ratio
• C. Eliminate harmonic reception
• D. Absorb signals from the reverse direction

E6C11

42. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inversion)?

• A. 2
• B. 5
• C. 4
• D. 6

E7F05

43. How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced?

• A. At least half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
• B. At least twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
• C. At the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal
• D. At four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal

E7G11

44. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

• A. 7
• B. 28
• C. 14
• D. 0.07

E4E09

45. What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker?

• A. FM signals can no longer be demodulated
• B. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
• C. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
• D. Strong signals may be distorted and appear to cause spurious emissions

E0A09

46. Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations?

• A. Antennas that radiate only in the near field
• B. Dish antennas less than one meter in diameter
• C. Transceivers with less than 7 watts of RF output
• D. Hand-held transceivers sold before May 3, 2021

E1F08

47. Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

• A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
• B. Communications in a language other than English
• C. Communications that have religious content
• D. Communications that have political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine

E2D01

48. Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?

• A. APRS
• B. MSK144
• C. WSPR
• D. Hellschreiber

E1D08

49. Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

• A. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
• B. 2 meters
• C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters
• D. 6 meters and 2 meters

E8A05

50. What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true-RMS calculating meter?

• A. An inverse Fourier transform can be used
• B. RMS is measured for both sinusoidal and non-sinusoidal signals
• C. The calculated RMS value can be converted directly into phasor form
• D. The signal's RMS noise factor is also calculated