Practice Exam

E8C15

1. What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?

• A. Custom code plugs for the local trunking systems
• B. Acting as store-and-forward digipeaters
• C. Forward error correction and Viterbi codes
• D. Discovery and link establishment protocols

E2B05

2. Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast-scan TV transmissions?

• A. Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
• B. Vestigial sideband reduces the bandwidth while increasing the fidelity of low frequency video components
• C. The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
• D. The vestigial sideband contains chroma information

E9G02

3. What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

• A. Voltage chords and current chords
• B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs
• C. Voltage circles and current arcs
• D. Resistance lines and reactance chords

E3A07

4. Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

• A. Mountain ranges
• B. Stratocumulus clouds
• C. Nimbus clouds
• D. Large bodies of water

E6C11

5. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inversion)?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 5
• D. 2

E2A04

6. What is meant by the "mode" of an amateur radio satellite?

• A. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
• B. Whether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit
• C. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
• D. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit

E2D07

7. What digital protocol is used by APRS?

• A. QAM
• B. PACTOR
• C. AMTOR
• D. AX.25

E8A07

8. What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

• A. Speech characteristics
• B. Amplifier gain
• C. The frequency of the modulating signal
• D. The degree of carrier suppression

E8D10

9. What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

• A. Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
• B. Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
• C. Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
• D. Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes

E9D10

10. How does radiation resistance of a base-fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency?

• A. Radiation resistance becomes imaginary
• B. Radiation resistance increases
• C. Radiation resistance does not depend on frequency
• D. Radiation resistance decreases

E5A12

11. What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

• A. 436.6 kHz
• B. 15.7 kHz
• C. 31.4 kHz
• D. 218.3 kHz

E9F05

12. What is microstrip?

• A. Special shielding material designed for microwave frequencies
• B. Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
• C. Miniature coax used for low power applications
• D. Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies

E2E13

13. Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

• A. 170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
• B. FT8
• C. MFSK16
• D. PACTOR IV

E6D08

14. Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics?

• A. Powdered iron
• B. Aluminum
• C. Brass
• D. Ferrite

E9B05

15. What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. Azimuth
• B. Near field
• C. Elevation
• D. Polarization

E3C08

16. Which of the following is the space-weather term for an extreme geomagnetic storm?

• A. M9
• B. G5
• C. B9
• D. X5

E1E02

17. Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of questions for all US amateur license examinations?

• A. The VEs
• B. The ARRL
• C. The FCC
• D. The VECs

E4D10

18. What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

• A. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
• B. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
• C. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
• D. A pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals

E5B09

19. What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

• A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
• B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
• C. Voltage and current are in phase
• D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

E8B05

20. What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

• A. 1.67
• B. 6
• C. 0.6
• D. 0.167

E6B10

21. In Figure E6-2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode?

• A. 1
• B. 6
• C. 2
• D. 3

E7B04

22. What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier?

• A. Approximately halfway between saturation and cutoff
• B. Approximately halfway between the emitter voltage and the base voltage
• C. At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
• D. At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve

E7C02

23. What is the frequency response of a T-network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor?

• A. Notch
• B. Band-pass
• C. Low-pass
• D. High-pass

E0A09

24. Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations?

• A. Antennas that radiate only in the near field
• B. Transceivers with less than 7 watts of RF output
• C. Hand-held transceivers sold before May 3, 2021
• D. Dish antennas less than one meter in diameter

E3B06

25. On which of the following amateur bands is long-path propagation most frequent?

• A. 10 meters and 6 meters
• B. 6 meters and 2 meters
• C. 160 meters and 80 meters
• D. 40 meters and 20 meters

E1D08

26. Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

• A. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
• B. 2 meters
• C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters
• D. 6 meters and 2 meters

E9C10

27. Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

• A. A horizontal array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
• B. An end-fed half-wavelength dipole
• C. A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
• D. An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications

E7F06

28. What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

• A. 8 bits
• B. 6 bits
• C. 10 bits
• D. 4 bits

E5D11

29. How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

• A. 141.4 watts
• B. 100 watts
• C. 200 watts
• D. 70.7 watts

E7E10

30. How does a diode envelope detector function?

• A. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
• B. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
• C. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
• D. By breakdown of the Zener voltage

E9H07

31. What is the function of a Beverage antenna's termination resistor?

• A. Decrease SWR bandwidth
• B. Increase the front-to-side ratio
• C. Absorb signals from the reverse direction
• D. Eliminate harmonic reception

E4E08

32. What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multiconductor cable?

• A. Magnetically-coupled current only
• B. Differential-mode current
• C. Common-mode current
• D. Reactive current only

E5C01

33. Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation?

• A. 100 - j0
• B. 100 + j0
• C. 0 + j100
• D. 0 - j100

E4A11

34. Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

• A. Cable length
• B. Velocity factor
• C. Resonant frequency of a tuned circuit
• D. All these choices are correct

E9E05

35. What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?

• A. Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)
• B. Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)
• C. Purely reactive
• D. Purely resistive

E1F01

36. On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

• A. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
• B. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
• C. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
• D. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz

E1B07

37. To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

• A. Use of wireless devices in vehicles
• B. Homeowners associations
• C. FAA tower height limits
• D. State and local zoning

E9A04

38. Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

• A. Transmission line length
• B. Antenna height
• C. The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
• D. The input power level

E4C05

39. What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

• A. The receiver noise is 6 dB above the theoretical minimum
• B. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
• C. The receiver noise is 3 dB above theoretical minimum
• D. The theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature

E7H08

40. Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

• A. Toroidal inductors
• B. Wirewound resistors
• C. NP0 capacitors
• D. Non-inductive resistors

E1C08

41. What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

• A. 30 seconds
• B. 3 minutes
• C. 5 minutes
• D. 10 minutes

E6F05

42. Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

• A. A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
• B. An optical computing device in which light is coupled between devices by fiber optics
• C. A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog-to-digital conversion
• D. A device that detects rotation by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel

E7A02

43. What is the function of a decade counter?

• A. It decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display
• B. It produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
• C. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
• D. It produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse

E1A11

44. What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

• A. Only General class or higher amateur licenses
• B. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
• C. Any FCC-issued amateur license
• D. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E6E12

45. Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies?

• A. Excessive lead length
• B. Excessive dielectric loss
• C. Unsuitable for combining analog and digital signals
• D. Epoxy coating is conductive above 300 MHz

E7D08

46. What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?

• A. Common base amplifier
• B. Switching voltage regulator
• C. Linear voltage regulator
• D. Common emitter amplifier

E4B09

47. Which of the following can be measured by a two-port vector network analyzer?

• A. Phase noise
• B. Pulse rise time
• C. Filter frequency response
• D. Forward power

E2C09

48. What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network?

• A. A 2-meter VHF transceiver with a 1,200-baud modem
• B. A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9,600-baud modem
• C. A computer running EchoLink to provide interface from the radio to the internet
• D. A wireless router running custom firmware

E6A11

49. In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 6
• D. 1

E7G03

50. What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?

• A. 100 ohms
• B. 10,000 ohms
• C. Very low
• D. Very high