Practice Exam

E7C06

1. What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter?

• A. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
• B. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop-band ripple
• C. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop-band ripple
• D. Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop-band corners

E6A11

2. In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 6

E5B02

3. What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

• A. G
• B. X
• C. Y
• D. B

E9B05

4. What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. Azimuth
• B. Near field
• C. Polarization
• D. Elevation

E6B05

5. What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?

• A. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
• B. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
• C. Low junction capacitance
• D. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power

E2E13

6. Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

• A. FT8
• B. MFSK16
• C. PACTOR IV
• D. 170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY

E7B11

7. In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

• A. Emitter bypass
• B. Output load resistor
• C. Fixed bias
• D. Self bias

E7H03

8. What is a phase-locked loop?

• A. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
• B. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
• C. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential phase input
• D. An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator

E3B12

9. What is chordal-hop propagation?

• A. Propagation across the geomagnetic equator
• B. Successive ionospheric refractions without an intermediate reflection from the ground
• C. Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station
• D. Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations

E1B09

10. Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

• A. Only stations meeting the FCC Part 97 technical standards for operation during an emergency
• B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
• C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
• D. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators

E7E11

11. Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?

• A. Phase detector
• B. Phase comparator
• C. Discriminator
• D. Product detector

E5D10

12. As a conductor's diameter increases, what is the effect on its electrical length?

• A. It increases
• B. Thickness has no effect on electrical length
• C. It decreases
• D. It varies randomly

E7D02

13. How does a switchmode voltage regulator work?

• A. By varying the duty cycle of pulses input to a filter
• B. By alternating the output between positive and negative voltages
• C. By varying the conductivity of a pass element
• D. By switching between two Zener diode reference voltages

E8D09

14. What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

• A. -30 dB
• B. +15 dB
• C. +10 dB
• D. +5 dB

E7G08

15. How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

• A. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
• B. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
• C. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
• D. It does not vary with frequency

E6D05

16. How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core?

• A. Ferrite cores are easier to use with surface-mount technology
• B. Ferrite cores generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
• C. Ferrite cores generally have lower initial permeability
• D. Ferrite cores generally have better temperature stability

E4D11

17. Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

• A. Odd-order products of two signals in the band being received are also likely to be within the band
• B. Odd-order products are more likely to overload the IF filters
• C. Odd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
• D. Odd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest

E1F09

18. Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network?

• A. Messages encoded to obscure their meaning
• B. Third party traffic
• C. Email
• D. All these choices are correct

E1A09

19. Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630-meter band?

• A. 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• B. 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• C. 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• D. 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)

E4E09

20. What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker?

• A. FM signals can no longer be demodulated
• B. Strong signals may be distorted and appear to cause spurious emissions
• C. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
• D. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect

E2A01

21. What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

• A. From east to west
• B. From south to north
• C. From north to south
• D. From west to east

E3A05

22. How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented?

• A. They are 90 degrees out of phase
• B. They are parallel
• C. They are at right angles
• D. They are tangential

E7A04

23. How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16?

• A. 6
• B. 16
• C. 4
• D. 8

E9G07

24. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

• A. The resistance axis
• B. The reactance axis
• C. The voltage axis
• D. The current axis

E2B12

25. What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?

• A. A two-tone signal
• B. Elapsed time
• C. Specific tone amplitudes
• D. Specific tone frequencies

E2C04

26. Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks?

• A. The 60-meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
• B. Cable TV channels 41-43
• C. HF frequencies where digital communications are permitted
• D. Frequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services

E9E06

27. Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm transmission line?

• A. 62 ohms
• B. 90 ohms
• C. 75 ohms
• D. 50 ohms

E4B09

28. Which of the following can be measured by a two-port vector network analyzer?

• A. Pulse rise time
• B. Filter frequency response
• C. Phase noise
• D. Forward power

E8A08

29. Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
• C. Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
• D. Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift

E5C02

30. How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

• A. By Y and G values
• B. By X and R values
• C. By magnitude and phase angle
• D. By real and imaginary parts

E6F04

31. What is the photovoltaic effect?

• A. The effect that causes a photodiode to emit light when a voltage is applied
• B. The effect that causes a phototransistor's beta to decrease when exposed to light
• C. The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
• D. The conversion of light to electrical energy

E8C05

32. What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?

• A. 52 Hz
• B. 13 Hz
• C. 104 Hz
• D. 26 Hz

E6C03

33. What is tri-state logic?

• A. Logic devices that utilize ternary math
• B. A counter with eight states
• C. Logic devices with 0, 1, and high-impedance output states
• D. Logic with three output impedances which can be selected to better match the load impedance

E9D08

34. What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

• A. More common-mode current is present on the feed line
• B. Gain is reduced
• C. SWR bandwidth increases
• D. SWR bandwidth decreases

E2D01

35. Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?

• A. APRS
• B. MSK144
• C. WSPR
• D. Hellschreiber

E8B09

36. What is deviation ratio?

• A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
• B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
• C. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
• D. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency

E1E09

37. What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

• A. A sentence of up to one year in prison
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. A fine of up to $1,000 per occurrence
• D. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant

E4C11

38. Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?

• A. Atmospheric noise is generally greater than internally generated noise even after attenuation
• B. The attenuator has a noise filter to suppress interference
• C. The attenuator has a low-pass filter to increase the strength of lower frequency signals
• D. Signals are attenuated separately from the noise

E5A13

39. What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

• A. Internal voltages increase
• B. Phase shift can become uncontrolled
• C. Fewer components are needed for the same performance
• D. Parasitic effects are minimized

E9C12

40. Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?

• A. A center-fed 1.25-wavelength dipole antenna
• B. An end-fed 2-wavelength dipole antenna
• C. An end-fed full-wave dipole antenna
• D. A center-fed 1.5-wavelength dipole antenna

E0A11

41. To what should lanyards be attached while climbing?

• A. Antenna mast
• B. Guy brackets
• C. Tower rungs
• D. Tower legs

E9A02

42. What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

• A. 420 watts
• B. 78.7 watts
• C. 286 watts
• D. 469 watts

E9H09

43. What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?

• A. Omnidirectional
• B. Hyperbolic
• C. Bidirectional
• D. Cardioid

E7F14

44. Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

• A. Lower Q
• B. More taps
• C. Double-precision math routines
• D. Higher data rate

E1D09

45. Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

• A. 70 centimeters and 13 centimeters
• B. 70 centimeters only
• C. 33 centimeters and 13 centimeters
• D. 70 centimeters and 33 centimeters

E3C03

46. Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A-index or K-index is elevated?

• A. NVIS
• B. Transequatorial
• C. Through the auroral oval
• D. Sporadic-E

E6E08

47. How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

• A. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
• B. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
• C. Directly to the bias voltage (Vcc) lead
• D. MMICs require no operating bias

E4A08

48. Which of the following is used to measure SWR?

• A. Antenna analyzer
• B. Directional wattmeter
• C. Vector network analyzer
• D. All these choices are correct

E1C06

49. Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

• A. You must have a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 16-1048
• B. The US embassy must approve of your operation
• C. You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
• D. You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating

E9F06

50. What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

• A. 10.6 meters
• B. 7.0 meters
• C. 8.5 meters
• D. 13.3 meters