Practice Exam

E3A06

1. What should be done to continue a long-distance contact when the MUF for that path decreases due to darkness?

• A. Change to an antenna with a higher takeoff angle
• B. Change to an antenna with greater beam width
• C. Switch to a higher frequency HF band
• D. Switch to a lower frequency HF band

E1A09

2. Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630-meter band?

• A. 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• B. 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• C. 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• D. 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)

E4D02

3. Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

• A. Poor weak signal reception caused by insufficient local oscillator injection
• B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
• C. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
• D. Spurious signals caused by cross modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals

E2C11

4. How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

• A. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is," then your call sign three times
• B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
• C. Send your full call sign once or twice
• D. Send your full call sign and grid square

E7A02

5. What is the function of a decade counter?

• A. It decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display
• B. It produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse
• C. It produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
• D. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display

E9F08

6. Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower loss per unit of length
• C. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower safe maximum operating voltage
• D. Foam dielectric coaxial cable has higher velocity factor

E8C09

7. Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

• A. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
• B. Extended ASCII
• C. Binary Coded Decimal Code
• D. Gray code

E9D05

8. Approximately how long is a Yagi's driven element?

• A. 1/2 wavelength
• B. 234 divided by frequency in MHz
• C. 1005 divided by frequency in MHz
• D. 1/4 wavelength

E6F01

9. What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

• A. Protons
• B. Electrons
• C. Holes
• D. Photons

E1C03

10. How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200-meter or 630-meter band?

• A. Operations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC
• B. Operators must not operate until approval is received
• C. Operators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 kilometer of PLC systems using those frequencies
• D. Operators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company

E6B01

11. What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

• A. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
• B. A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
• C. A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
• D. A negative resistance region

E3C08

12. Which of the following is the space-weather term for an extreme geomagnetic storm?

• A. X5
• B. G5
• C. B9
• D. M9

E6D08

13. Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics?

• A. Powdered iron
• B. Ferrite
• C. Brass
• D. Aluminum

E7E07

14. What is meant by the term "baseband" in radio communications?

• A. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
• B. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
• C. The frequency range occupied by a message signal prior to modulation
• D. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal

E1D04

15. Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

• A. The output power of the balloon transmitter
• B. The station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator
• C. Call sign
• D. All these choices are correct

E7F14

16. Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

• A. Double-precision math routines
• B. More taps
• C. Lower Q
• D. Higher data rate

E2E07

17. How does Q65 differ from JT65?

• A. Keyboard-to keyboard operation is supported
• B. Quadrature modulation is used
• C. Multiple receive cycles are averaged
• D. All these choices are correct

E7G12

18. What is an operational amplifier?

• A. An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
• B. A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions
• C. A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
• D. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance

E7B10

19. In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

• A. Self bias
• B. Voltage divider bias
• C. Feedback
• D. Load resistors

E9H09

20. What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?

• A. Omnidirectional
• B. Cardioid
• C. Hyperbolic
• D. Bidirectional

E8B08

21. What describes orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)?

• A. A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
• B. A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
• C. A digital mode for narrow-band, slow-speed transmissions
• D. A frequency modulation technique that uses non-harmonically related frequencies

E3B11

22. At what time of day is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

• A. Between midnight and sunrise
• B. Between sunrise and sunset
• C. Between sunset and midnight
• D. Between sunset and sunrise

E6C10

23. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

• A. 3
• B. 4
• C. 1
• D. 2

E2D05

24. What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode?

• A. Symbol rate is 65 baud
• B. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
• C. Decodes signals with a very low signal-to-noise ratio
• D. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth

E5D04

25. Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies?

• A. To reduce noise figure
• B. To increase neutralizing resistance
• C. To increase compensating capacitance
• D. To reduce phase shift along the connection

E4A04

26. How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed?

• A. A frequency standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
• B. A DC voltage standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
• C. A high frequency sine wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
• D. A square wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible

E1B04

27. What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70-centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?

• A. File an FAA NOTAM (Notice to Air Missions) with the repeater system's ERP, call sign, and six-character grid locator
• B. Cease operation or make changes to the repeater that mitigate the interference
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Reduce the repeater antenna HAAT (Height Above Average Terrain)

E7H12

28. Which of the following ensures that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

• A. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
• B. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
• C. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
• D. Bias the crystal at a specified current

E4B06

29. How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

• A. 100 watts
• B. 112.5 watts
• C. 75 watts
• D. 125 watts

E9G04

30. What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

• A. Resistance and reactance
• B. Inductance and capacitance
• C. Voltage and impedance
• D. Reactance and voltage

E8A03

31. Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain?

• A. Power at intervals of phase
• B. Frequency at different times
• C. Amplitude at different times
• D. Discrete impulses in time order

E8D03

32. Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping?

• A. If interference is detected by the receiver, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
• B. Rapidly varying the frequency of a transmitted signal according to a pseudorandom sequence
• C. A binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence
• D. RF signals are clipped to generate a wide band of harmonics which provides redundancy to correct errors

E5B06

33. What is susceptance?

• A. The imaginary part of admittance
• B. The magnetic impedance of a circuit
• C. A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
• D. The ratio of magnetic field to electric field

E4C08

34. An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?

• A. One-half of the maximum sample rate
• B. One-half of the maximum sampling buffer size
• C. The reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter
• D. The maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter

E6A03

35. Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

• A. Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
• B. Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
• C. Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
• D. Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region

E2B02

36. How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

• A. 30
• B. 1080
• C. 60
• D. 525

E1E03

37. What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

• A. An organization paid by the volunteer examiner team to publicize and schedule examinations
• B. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
• C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate, prepare, and administer amateur operator license examinations
• D. The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager

E5A09

38. How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

• A. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
• B. Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
• C. Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
• D. Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance

E7C07

39. Which describes a Pi-L network?

• A. A Phase Inverter Load network
• B. A network with only three discrete parts
• C. A Pi-network with an additional output series inductor
• D. A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground

E7D10

40. Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and lighter than an equivalent linear power supply?

• A. The control circuitry uses less current, therefore smaller heat sinks are required
• B. It recovers power from the unused portion of the AC cycle, thus using fewer components
• C. The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
• D. The inverter design does not require an output filter circuit

E6E12

41. Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies?

• A. Excessive dielectric loss
• B. Epoxy coating is conductive above 300 MHz
• C. Excessive lead length
• D. Unsuitable for combining analog and digital signals

E9C05

42. What is the purpose of feeding an off-center-fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoint?

• A. To resonate the antenna across a wider range of frequencies
• B. To suppress off-center lobes at higher frequencies
• C. To reduce common-mode current coupling on the feed line shield
• D. To create a similar feed point impedance on multiple bands

E9B01

43. What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

• A. 25 degrees
• B. 75 degrees
• C. 50 degrees
• D. 30 degrees

E9E05

44. What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?

• A. Purely reactive
• B. Purely resistive
• C. Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)
• D. Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)

E5C02

45. How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

• A. By Y and G values
• B. By X and R values
• C. By real and imaginary parts
• D. By magnitude and phase angle

E2A10

46. What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

• A. Geomagnetic
• B. Geostationary
• C. LEO
• D. HEO

E4E03

47. Which of the following types of noise are removed by a noise blanker?

• A. Hum and buzz
• B. Broadband white noise
• C. Impulse noise
• D. All these choices are correct

E0A10

48. When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters?

• A. An evaluation must always be performed
• B. When the ERP of the station is less than 10 watts
• C. When the output power from the transmitter is less than 100 watts
• D. When the station's operating mode is CW

E9A08

49. Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone?

• A. 900 MHz
• B. 5.8 GHz
• C. 3.4 GHz
• D. 2.4 GHz

E1F10

50. Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

• A. Only Technician, General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators
• B. Only Amateur Extra class operators
• C. Only General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators
• D. Any licensed amateur operator