Practice Exam

E2C10

1. Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies?

• A. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. To separate the calling stations from the DX station
• D. To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference

E7E05

2. What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies?

• A. A de-emphasis network
• B. A heterodyne enhancer
• C. A harmonic enhancer
• D. A pre-emphasis network

E2B05

3. Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast-scan TV transmissions?

• A. The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
• B. The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
• C. Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
• D. Vestigial sideband reduces the bandwidth while increasing the fidelity of low frequency video components

E8D10

4. What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

• A. Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
• B. Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
• C. Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
• D. Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes

E8A05

5. What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true-RMS calculating meter?

• A. The signal's RMS noise factor is also calculated
• B. An inverse Fourier transform can be used
• C. RMS is measured for both sinusoidal and non-sinusoidal signals
• D. The calculated RMS value can be converted directly into phasor form

E6D12

6. What causes inductor saturation?

• A. Selecting a core with low permeability
• B. Operation at excessive magnetic flux
• C. Operation at too high a frequency
• D. Selecting a core with excessive permittivity

E7A02

7. What is the function of a decade counter?

• A. It produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
• B. It produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse
• C. It decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display
• D. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display

E3B05

8. Which of the following paths is most likely to support long-distance propagation on 160 meters?

• A. A path entirely in sunlight
• B. A direct north-south path
• C. Paths at high latitudes
• D. A path entirely in darkness

E3A10

9. What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium?

• A. Resistance and reactance
• B. Evanescence
• C. The index of refraction
• D. Birefringence

E9F11

10. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?

• A. An inductive reactance
• B. Infinite
• C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• D. A capacitive reactance

E1F02

11. What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?

• A. Full privileges of the General class license on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands
• B. None, they must obtain a US license
• C. Full privileges, up to and including those of the Amateur Extra class license, on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands
• D. The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed US Amateur Extra class license privileges

E0A03

12. Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?

• A. 30 - 300 MHz
• B. 300 kHz - 3 MHz
• C. 300 - 3000 MHz
• D. 3 - 30 MHz

E1A04

13. May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone?

• A. No, US stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
• B. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 75-meter phone band segment
• C. No, the sideband components will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
• D. Yes, the entire signal will be inside the SSB allocation for Extra class operators

E9H08

14. What is the function of a sense antenna?

• A. It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
• B. It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
• C. It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
• D. It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna to provide a null in only one direction

E5D03

15. What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power?

• A. They are 90 degrees out of phase
• B. They are in phase
• C. They are 45 degrees out of phase
• D. They are out of phase

E7D08

16. What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?

• A. Linear voltage regulator
• B. Common base amplifier
• C. Switching voltage regulator
• D. Common emitter amplifier

E5C11

17. Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

• A. Point 7
• B. Point 8
• C. Point 1
• D. Point 3

E9C05

18. What is the purpose of feeding an off-center-fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoint?

• A. To reduce common-mode current coupling on the feed line shield
• B. To create a similar feed point impedance on multiple bands
• C. To suppress off-center lobes at higher frequencies
• D. To resonate the antenna across a wider range of frequencies

E6B06

19. Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

• A. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
• B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
• C. In power supplies as a constant voltage reference
• D. In oscillator circuits as the negative resistance element

E9G03

20. Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

• A. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
• B. Beam headings and radiation patterns
• C. Point-to-point propagation reliability as a function of frequency
• D. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines

E4D02

21. Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

• A. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
• B. Poor weak signal reception caused by insufficient local oscillator injection
• C. Spurious signals caused by cross modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
• D. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband

E9E08

22. What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?

• A. To feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
• B. To divide the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
• C. To divide power equally between two 50-ohm loads while maintaining 50-ohm input impedance
• D. To divide the frequency of the input to a counter to increase its frequency range

E1D07

23. Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations?

• A. 30 meters, 17 meters, and 10 meters
• B. Satellite operation is permitted on all HF bands
• C. 40 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
• D. Only 10 meters

E4B10

24. Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

• A. Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
• B. Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
• C. Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
• D. Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter

E7B04

25. What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier?

• A. At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
• B. At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
• C. Approximately halfway between saturation and cutoff
• D. Approximately halfway between the emitter voltage and the base voltage

E8C12

26. What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal?

• A. Modulation index and output power
• B. Keying speed and shape factor (rise and fall time)
• C. IF bandwidth and Q
• D. All these choices are correct

E7H05

27. How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

• A. Through a quartz crystal
• B. Through a neutralizing capacitor
• C. Through a tapped coil
• D. Through link coupling

E8B02

28. How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?

• A. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
• B. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
• C. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
• D. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency

E5B12

29. What is admittance?

• A. The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
• B. The inverse of impedance
• C. The inverse of reactance
• D. The term for the on-impedance of a field effect transistor

E9D11

30. Why do most two-element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director?

• A. Lower SWR
• B. Higher gain
• C. Greater front-to-side
• D. Higher receiving directivity factor

E6A02

31. Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

• A. Bipolar
• B. Insulated gate
• C. N-type
• D. P-type

E7G08

32. How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

• A. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
• B. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
• C. It does not vary with frequency
• D. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency

E1C10

33. What is the maximum mean power level for a spurious emission below 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission?

• A. - 43 dB
• B. - 53 dB
• C. - 73 dB
• D. - 63 dB

E9A09

34. What is antenna efficiency?

• A. Radiation resistance divided by transmission resistance
• B. Effective radiated power divided by transmitter output
• C. Radiation resistance divided by total resistance
• D. Total resistance divided by radiation resistance

E6F10

35. What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells?

• A. Silicon
• B. Cadmium sulfide
• C. Indium arsenide
• D. Selenium

E2A08

36. Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder?

• A. To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
• B. To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals
• C. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
• D. To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users

E3C06

37. How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon?

• A. It is approximately 50 percent farther
• B. They are approximately the same
• C. It is approximately 20 percent nearer
• D. It is approximately 15 percent farther

E9B07

38. What is the difference in radiated power between a lossless antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the same power?

• A. The power radiated from the directional antenna is stronger by its front-to-back ratio
• B. The power radiated from the isotropic radiator is 2.15 dB greater than that from the directional antenna
• C. They are the same
• D. The power radiated from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna

E7F11

39. What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct-sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?

• A. Data storage transfer rate
• B. Sample clock phase noise
• C. Missing codes and jitter
• D. Reference voltage level and sample width in bits

E4A06

40. What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform?

• A. The waveform DC offset will be inaccurate
• B. A false, jittery low-frequency version of the waveform is displayed
• C. Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
• D. Excessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the waveform

E2D04

41. What technology is used for real-time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

• A. PACTOR III
• B. FT8
• C. APRS
• D. Bandwidth compressed LORAN

E4E08

42. What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multiconductor cable?

• A. Magnetically-coupled current only
• B. Differential-mode current
• C. Reactive current only
• D. Common-mode current

E6E03

43. Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

• A. Silicon dioxide
• B. Gallium nitride
• C. Silicon nitride
• D. Silicon

E7C10

44. Which of the following filters is used in a 2-meter band repeater duplexer?

• A. A crystal filter
• B. A cavity filter
• C. A DSP filter
• D. An L-C filter

E2E04

45. Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode?

• A. Variable transmit/receive periods
• B. Four-tone Gaussian frequency shift keying
• C. Seven different tone spacings
• D. All these choices are correct

E5A02

46. What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 40 picofarads?

• A. 3.56 MHz
• B. 22.36 MHz
• C. 1.78 MHz
• D. 44.72 MHz

E1B09

47. Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

• A. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
• B. Only stations meeting the FCC Part 97 technical standards for operation during an emergency
• C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
• D. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators

E6C03

48. What is tri-state logic?

• A. Logic with three output impedances which can be selected to better match the load impedance
• B. Logic devices with 0, 1, and high-impedance output states
• C. Logic devices that utilize ternary math
• D. A counter with eight states

E1E01

49. For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

• A. Preparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license
• B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
• C. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
• D. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement

E4C08

50. An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?

• A. One-half of the maximum sample rate
• B. The reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter
• C. The maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter
• D. One-half of the maximum sampling buffer size