Practice Exam

E9D02

1. How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

• A. Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
• B. Arrange two Yagis on the same axis and perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
• C. Stack two Yagis to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes fed in phase
• D. Stack two Yagis to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes fed 90 degrees out of phase

E4E07

2. Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

• A. Common-mode currents on the shield and conductors
• B. Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
• C. Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield
• D. Use of braided shielding material

E7B03

3. What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier?

• A. A filter to remove harmonic content
• B. A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
• C. A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
• D. A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity

E7H08

4. Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

• A. Toroidal inductors
• B. NP0 capacitors
• C. Wirewound resistors
• D. Non-inductive resistors

E9H06

5. What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna?

• A. Maximum feed point DC resistance at the center of the desired frequency range
• B. Maximum DC current in the terminating resistor
• C. Minimum variation in SWR over the desired frequency range
• D. Minimum low-angle front-to-back ratio at the design frequency

E0A04

6. When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

• A. Each transmitter that produces 20 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
• B. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
• C. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 25 percent
• D. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded

E4C08

7. An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?

• A. The maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter
• B. The reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter
• C. One-half of the maximum sample rate
• D. One-half of the maximum sampling buffer size

E1A02

8. When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

• A. 1 kHz above the lower band edge
• B. 300 Hz above the lower band edge
• C. The exact lower band edge
• D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge

E5B04

9. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

• A. 110 seconds
• B. 55 seconds
• C. 220 seconds
• D. 440 seconds

E9G10

10. What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

• A. Points with constant reactance
• B. SWR
• C. Frequency
• D. Points with constant resistance

E2E07

11. How does Q65 differ from JT65?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Quadrature modulation is used
• C. Keyboard-to keyboard operation is supported
• D. Multiple receive cycles are averaged

E7G01

12. What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?

• A. Very high
• B. Very low
• C. 10,000 ohms
• D. 100 ohms

E5A13

13. What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

• A. Fewer components are needed for the same performance
• B. Phase shift can become uncontrolled
• C. Parasitic effects are minimized
• D. Internal voltages increase

E1C06

14. Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

• A. You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
• B. The US embassy must approve of your operation
• C. You must have a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 16-1048
• D. You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating

E2B10

15. What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

• A. Sync frequency
• B. Sync amplitude
• C. Tone frequency
• D. Tone amplitude

E6B05

16. What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?

• A. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
• B. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
• C. Low junction capacitance
• D. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power

E9B05

17. What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. Polarization
• B. Near field
• C. Elevation
• D. Azimuth

E3B01

18. Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur?

• A. Between points separated by 2,000 miles to 3,000 miles over a path perpendicular to the geomagnetic equator
• B. Through the region where the terminator crosses the geographic equator
• C. Between points located at each other's antipode
• D. Between points located 1,500 miles to 2,000 miles apart on the geomagnetic equator

E9A07

19. What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?

• A. 63.2 watts
• B. 632 watts
• C. 159 watts
• D. 252 watts

E2D01

20. Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?

• A. Hellschreiber
• B. WSPR
• C. MSK144
• D. APRS

E8C11

21. What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

• A. Baud is twice the symbol rate
• B. The relationship depends on the specific code used
• C. They are the same
• D. Baud rate is half the symbol rate

E3C12

22. Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

• A. Transequatorial propagation on 6 meters is likely
• B. A coronal mass ejection impact or a solar flare has occurred
• C. Long-path propagation on the higher HF bands is likely
• D. A temperature inversion has occurred

E1B01

23. Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

• A. An emission outside the signal's necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
• B. An amateur station transmission made without the proper call sign identification
• C. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
• D. Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station and whose levels exceed 40 dB below the fundamental power level

E1F06

24. Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

• A. To allow a licensee who has passed an upgrade exam to operate with upgraded privileges while waiting for posting on the FCC database
• B. To provide for experimental amateur communications
• C. To allow use of a special event call sign
• D. To allow a VE group with less than three VEs to administer examinations in a remote, sparsely populated area

E6E08

25. How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

• A. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
• B. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
• C. MMICs require no operating bias
• D. Directly to the bias voltage (Vcc) lead

E2C04

26. Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks?

• A. Frequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services
• B. Cable TV channels 41-43
• C. The 60-meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
• D. HF frequencies where digital communications are permitted

E1D04

27. Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

• A. The output power of the balloon transmitter
• B. The station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Call sign

E8B04

28. What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the highest modulating frequency is 2 kHz?

• A. 0.6
• B. 6
• C. 0.3
• D. 3

E8D02

29. What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

• A. Phase compandored spread spectrum
• B. Binary phase-shift keying
• C. Direct sequence
• D. Frequency hopping

E7E03

30. What is a frequency discriminator?

• A. An FM generator circuit
• B. An automatic band-switching circuit
• C. A circuit for detecting FM signals
• D. A circuit for filtering closely adjacent signals

E7A03

31. Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

• A. An XOR gate
• B. A multiplexer
• C. An OR gate
• D. A flip-flop

E7D03

32. What device is used as a stable voltage reference?

• A. A digital-to-analog converter
• B. An analog-to-digital converter
• C. An SCR
• D. A Zener diode

E4D09

33. What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

• A. To provide broadband attenuation before the first RF stage to prevent intermodulation
• B. To store frequencies that are often used
• C. To increase the rejection of signals outside the band being received
• D. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device

E9C04

34. What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?

• A. The elevation angle increases, and the front-to-rear ratio decreases
• B. Fewer lobes form with the major lobes increasing closer to broadside to the wire
• C. Additional lobes form with major lobes increasingly aligned with the axis of the antenna
• D. The elevation angle increases, while the front-to-rear ratio is unaffected

E4B07

35. What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

• A. Frequency order of the measurements
• B. The relative time between measurements
• C. The port or ports at which measurements are made
• D. Relative quality of the data

E6D02

36. What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

• A. Series RLC in parallel with a shunt C representing electrode and stray capacitance
• B. Parallel RLC, where C is the series combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
• C. Series RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
• D. Parallel RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance

E4A03

37. Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products generated by an SSB transmitter?

• A. Network analyzer
• B. Differential resolver
• C. Spectrum analyzer
• D. Logic analyzer

E2A12

38. What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?

• A. To hold digital messages in the satellite for later download
• B. To delay download of telemetry between satellites
• C. To relay messages between satellites
• D. To upload operational software for the transponder

E5D11

39. How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

• A. 70.7 watts
• B. 141.4 watts
• C. 100 watts
• D. 200 watts

E6F08

40. Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits?

• A. Optoisolators provide a low-impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
• B. Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
• C. Optoisolators provide an electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
• D. Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit

E7F06

41. What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

• A. 10 bits
• B. 8 bits
• C. 4 bits
• D. 6 bits

E6C11

42. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inversion)?

• A. 2
• B. 6
• C. 4
• D. 5

E8A06

43. What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

• A. 1 to 1
• B. 2.5 to 1
• C. 13 to 1
• D. 25 to 1

E6A09

44. What is a depletion-mode field-effect transistor (FET)?

• A. An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
• B. An FET that exhibits very high electron mobility due to a lack of holes in the N-type material
• C. An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
• D. An FET for which holes are the majority carriers

E9F06

45. What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

• A. 10.6 meters
• B. 8.5 meters
• C. 7.0 meters
• D. 13.3 meters

E9E11

46. What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines?

• A. To control the antenna's radiation pattern
• B. To prevent harmonic radiation from the transmitter
• C. To create a low-angle radiation pattern
• D. To allow single-band antennas to operate on other bands

E1E02

47. Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of questions for all US amateur license examinations?

• A. The VEs
• B. The FCC
• C. The ARRL
• D. The VECs

E5C06

48. What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent?

• A. 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
• B. 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance
• C. 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
• D. 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance

E7C11

49. Which of the following measures a filter's ability to reject signals in adjacent channels?

• A. Shape factor
• B. Passband ripple
• C. Phase response
• D. Noise factor

E3A13

50. Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

• A. SSB
• B. RTTY
• C. FM
• D. CW