E3A06
1. What should be done to continue a long-distance contact when the MUF for that path decreases due to darkness?
E1A09
2. Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630-meter band?
E4D02
3. Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?
E2C11
4. How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?
E7A02
5. What is the function of a decade counter?
E9F08
6. Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?
E8C09
7. Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?
E9D05
8. Approximately how long is a Yagi's driven element?
E6F01
9. What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
E1C03
10. How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200-meter or 630-meter band?
E6B01
11. What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
E3C08
12. Which of the following is the space-weather term for an extreme geomagnetic storm?
E6D08
13. Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics?
E7E07
14. What is meant by the term "baseband" in radio communications?
E1D04
15. Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?
E7F14
16. Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?
E2E07
17. How does Q65 differ from JT65?
E7G12
18. What is an operational amplifier?
E7B10
19. In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?
E9H09
20. What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?
E8B08
21. What describes orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)?
E3B11
22. At what time of day is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?
E6C10
23. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?
E2D05
24. What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode?
E5D04
25. Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies?
E4A04
26. How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed?
E1B04
27. What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70-centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?
E7H12
28. Which of the following ensures that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?
E4B06
29. How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?
E9G04
30. What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?
E8A03
31. Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain?
E8D03
32. Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping?
E4C08
34. An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?
E6A03
35. Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?
E2B02
36. How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
E1E03
37. What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
E5A09
38. How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?
E7C07
39. Which describes a Pi-L network?
E7D10
40. Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and lighter than an equivalent linear power supply?
E6E12
41. Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies?
E9C05
42. What is the purpose of feeding an off-center-fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoint?
E9B01
43. What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?
E9E05
44. What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?
E5C02
45. How are impedances described in polar coordinates?
E2A10
46. What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?
E4E03
47. Which of the following types of noise are removed by a noise blanker?
E0A10
48. When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters?
E9A08
49. Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone?
E1F10
50. Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
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