Practice Exam

E9A01

1. What is an isotropic radiator?

• A. A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward Earth
• B. An omnidirectional, horizontally polarized, precisely calibrated antenna used to make field measurements of antenna gain
• C. A hypothetical, lossless antenna having equal radiation intensity in all directions used as a reference for antenna gain
• D. A calibrated, unidirectional antenna used to make precise antenna gain measurements

E3B12

2. What is chordal-hop propagation?

• A. Propagation across the geomagnetic equator
• B. Successive ionospheric refractions without an intermediate reflection from the ground
• C. Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations
• D. Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station

E5D01

3. What is the result of conductor skin effect?

• A. Resistance decreases as frequency increases because electron mobility increases
• B. Resistance increases as frequency increases because RF current flows closer to the surface
• C. Resistance decreases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient
• D. Resistance increases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient

E9F10

4. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• B. An inductive reactance
• C. Zero
• D. A capacitive reactance

E8A03

5. Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain?

• A. Discrete impulses in time order
• B. Power at intervals of phase
• C. Amplitude at different times
• D. Frequency at different times

E5A08

6. What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

• A. The voltage and current are in phase
• B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
• C. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
• D. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees

E2A08

7. Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder?

• A. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
• B. To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
• C. To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
• D. To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals

E4B10

8. Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

• A. Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
• B. Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
• C. Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
• D. Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer

E8D07

9. What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

• A. Excessive transmit audio levels
• B. Excessive numbers of retries
• C. Bit errors in the modem
• D. Excessive frequency deviation

E8C15

10. What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?

• A. Forward error correction and Viterbi codes
• B. Custom code plugs for the local trunking systems
• C. Acting as store-and-forward digipeaters
• D. Discovery and link establishment protocols

E2D01

11. Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?

• A. MSK144
• B. WSPR
• C. APRS
• D. Hellschreiber

E7B04

12. What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier?

• A. At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
• B. Approximately halfway between the emitter voltage and the base voltage
• C. At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
• D. Approximately halfway between saturation and cutoff

E2B12

13. What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?

• A. Specific tone frequencies
• B. A two-tone signal
• C. Elapsed time
• D. Specific tone amplitudes

E1B10

14. What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
• C. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF, and UHF bands
• D. Specific local government channels

E9C11

15. How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?

• A. Radiation at low angles increases
• B. Additional lobes appear at higher elevation angles
• C. Separate elevation lobes will combine into a single lobe
• D. Radiation at low angles decreases

E1A11

16. What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

• A. Any FCC-issued amateur license
• B. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
• C. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
• D. Only General class or higher amateur licenses

E4C06

17. How much does increasing a receiver's bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1,000 Hz increase the receiver's noise floor?

• A. 5 dB
• B. 13 dB
• C. 3 dB
• D. 10 dB

E6E09

18. Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range?

• A. TO-220
• B. Radial lead
• C. Surface mount
• D. Axial lead

E8B03

19. What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency if the highest modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

• A. 3
• B. 0.6
• C. 6
• D. 0.3

E2C08

20. Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (LoTW)?

• A. Contacts between a US station and a non-US station
• B. Special event contacts between stations in the US
• C. Contacts for Worked All States credit
• D. All these choices are correct

E0A04

21. When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

• A. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
• B. Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
• C. Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 25 percent
• D. Each transmitter that produces 20 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded

E1C09

22. What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

• A. 0.5
• B. 2.0
• C. 3.0
• D. 1.0

E9G09

23. What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks?

• A. Coaxial-length circles
• B. Constant-SWR circles
• C. Transmission line length circles
• D. Radiation-pattern circles

E1E09

24. What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

• A. A sentence of up to one year in prison
• B. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. A fine of up to $1,000 per occurrence

E4A09

25. Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

• A. Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
• B. Never use a high-impedance probe to measure a low-impedance circuit
• C. Minimize the length of the probe's ground connection
• D. All these choices are correct

E7G11

26. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

• A. 28
• B. 0.07
• C. 7
• D. 14

E7D03

27. What device is used as a stable voltage reference?

• A. An SCR
• B. A digital-to-analog converter
• C. A Zener diode
• D. An analog-to-digital converter

E6B06

28. Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

• A. As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
• B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
• C. In oscillator circuits as the negative resistance element
• D. In power supplies as a constant voltage reference

E4D11

29. Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

• A. Odd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
• B. Odd-order products of two signals in the band being received are also likely to be within the band
• C. Odd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
• D. Odd-order products are more likely to overload the IF filters

E3A09

30. Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor-scatter communications?

• A. 10 MHz - 14 MHz
• B. 220 MHz - 450 MHz
• C. 28 MHz - 148 MHz
• D. 1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz

E3C12

31. Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

• A. Long-path propagation on the higher HF bands is likely
• B. Transequatorial propagation on 6 meters is likely
• C. A coronal mass ejection impact or a solar flare has occurred
• D. A temperature inversion has occurred

E7H10

32. What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

• A. Frequently used receiver and transmitter frequencies
• B. Amplitude values that represent the desired waveform
• C. The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
• D. The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform

E5C01

33. Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation?

• A. 0 + j100
• B. 0 - j100
• C. 100 + j0
• D. 100 - j0

E6D09

34. What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?

• A. Butterworth filters
• B. Electrolytic capacitors
• C. Ferrite beads
• D. Steel-core toroids

E6A03

35. Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

• A. Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
• B. Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
• C. Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
• D. Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current

E7A11

36. What does "positive logic" mean in reference to logic devices?

• A. High voltage represents a 1, low voltage a 0
• B. The logic circuit is in the "true" condition
• C. The logic devices have high noise immunity
• D. 1s and 0s are defined as different positive voltage levels

E9B11

37. What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?

• A. The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
• B. The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
• C. Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
• D. The antenna will become mechanically unstable

E7C04

38. How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

• A. Reactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances
• B. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
• C. It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to the desired value
• D. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance

E9E09

39. Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base?

• A. Gamma match
• B. Double-bazooka match
• C. Beta or hairpin match
• D. All these choices are correct

E6F03

40. What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

• A. An amplitude-modulated helium-neon laser
• B. A lens and a photomultiplier
• C. A frequency-modulated helium-neon laser
• D. An LED and a phototransistor

E9D05

41. Approximately how long is a Yagi's driven element?

• A. 1005 divided by frequency in MHz
• B. 1/2 wavelength
• C. 234 divided by frequency in MHz
• D. 1/4 wavelength

E1D10

42. Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station?

• A. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
• D. Any amateur station approved by AMSAT

E4E03

43. Which of the following types of noise are removed by a noise blanker?

• A. Hum and buzz
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Broadband white noise
• D. Impulse noise

E7E07

44. What is meant by the term "baseband" in radio communications?

• A. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
• B. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
• C. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
• D. The frequency range occupied by a message signal prior to modulation

E1F09

45. Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Third party traffic
• C. Email
• D. Messages encoded to obscure their meaning

E6C11

46. In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inversion)?

• A. 5
• B. 2
• C. 6
• D. 4

E5B02

47. What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

• A. B
• B. G
• C. X
• D. Y

E9H05

48. What challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

• A. It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
• B. It has a bidirectional null pattern
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. It does not have a clearly defined null

E2E04

49. Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Seven different tone spacings
• C. Variable transmit/receive periods
• D. Four-tone Gaussian frequency shift keying

E7F10

50. What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct-sampling software defined radio (SDR)?

• A. Differential non-linearity
• B. Integral non-linearity
• C. Sample rate
• D. Sample width in bits