Practice Exam

E3B12

1. What is chordal-hop propagation?

• A. Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations
• B. Successive ionospheric refractions without an intermediate reflection from the ground
• C. Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station
• D. Propagation across the geomagnetic equator

E5A06

2. What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

• A. It is at a minimum
• B. It equals 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)
• C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)
• D. It is at a maximum

E6E04

3. Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs?

• A. 75 ohms
• B. 50 ohms
• C. 300 ohms
• D. 450 ohms

E4E03

4. Which of the following types of noise are removed by a noise blanker?

• A. Broadband white noise
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Hum and buzz
• D. Impulse noise

E3C04

5. What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent?

• A. Geomagnetic field stability
• B. North-south strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
• C. Critical frequency for vertical transmissions
• D. Duration of long-delayed echoes

E7F14

6. Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

• A. Higher data rate
• B. Lower Q
• C. Double-precision math routines
• D. More taps

E1B03

7. Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

• A. 10 miles
• B. 30 miles
• C. 3 miles
• D. 1 mile

E4C07

8. What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

• A. The meter display sensitivity
• B. The minimum discernible signal
• C. The modulation distortion specification
• D. The maximum detectable spectrum

E8B08

9. What describes orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)?

• A. A frequency modulation technique that uses non-harmonically related frequencies
• B. A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
• C. A digital mode for narrow-band, slow-speed transmissions
• D. A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference

E8A01

10. What technique shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics?

• A. Fourier analysis
• B. Differential analysis
• C. Vector analysis
• D. Numerical analysis

E7B01

11. For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull, Class AB amplifier conduct?

• A. More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
• B. Exactly 180 degrees
• C. Less than 180 degrees
• D. The entire cycle

E9D01

12. How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled?

• A. 3 dB
• B. 6 dB
• C. 4 dB
• D. 2 dB

E7D08

13. What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?

• A. Common base amplifier
• B. Switching voltage regulator
• C. Linear voltage regulator
• D. Common emitter amplifier

E2A06

14. What are Keplerian elements?

• A. Phase reversing elements in a Yagi antenna
• B. High-emission heater filaments used in magnetron tubes
• C. Encrypting codes used for spread spectrum modulation
• D. Parameters that define the orbit of a satellite

E6B02

15. Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power supply rectifier?

• A. Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
• B. Lower forward voltage drop
• C. More constant reverse avalanche voltage
• D. Longer carrier retention time

E2E12

16. How do ALE stations establish contact?

• A. ALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use
• B. ALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received
• C. ALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter
• D. ALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on

E1A09

17. Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630-meter band?

• A. 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• B. 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• C. 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
• D. 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)

E4D07

18. Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

• A. Increase the receiver's front-end gain
• B. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
• C. Insert attenuation before the first RF stage
• D. Raise the receiver's IF frequency

E8C14

19. What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network?

• A. Internet Protocol (IP)
• B. Email
• C. Trust server
• D. Talk group

E1E09

20. What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

• A. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant
• B. A sentence of up to one year in prison
• C. A fine of up to $1,000 per occurrence
• D. All these choices are correct

E1F04

21. Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

• A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the border between the US and Canada
• B. A line roughly parallel to and north of the border between the US and Mexico
• C. A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
• D. A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline

E1D03

22. What is a space telecommand station?

• A. An amateur station that receives telemetry from a satellite or balloon more than 50 kilometers above the surface of the Earth
• B. An amateur station located in a satellite or a balloon more than 50 kilometers above the surface of the Earth
• C. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify, or terminate functions of a space station
• D. An amateur station located on the surface of the Earth for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites

E6C09

23. What is used to design the configuration of a field-programmable gate array (FPGA)?

• A. Karnaugh maps
• B. Machine and assembly language
• C. An auto-router
• D. Hardware description language (HDL)

E2B12

24. What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?

• A. Elapsed time
• B. Specific tone frequencies
• C. Specific tone amplitudes
• D. A two-tone signal

E6A02

25. Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

• A. N-type
• B. Insulated gate
• C. P-type
• D. Bipolar

E2C09

26. What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network?

• A. A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9,600-baud modem
• B. A 2-meter VHF transceiver with a 1,200-baud modem
• C. A wireless router running custom firmware
• D. A computer running EchoLink to provide interface from the radio to the internet

E7C04

27. How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

• A. Reactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances
• B. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
• C. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
• D. It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to the desired value

E6D07

28. What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer when there is no load on the secondary winding?

• A. Excitation current
• B. Magnetizing current
• C. Stabilizing current
• D. Direct current

E9H10

29. How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

• A. By utilizing high impedance wire for the coupling loop
• B. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. By increasing the number of turns and/or the area enclosed by the loop

E8D01

30. Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

• A. If the receiver detects interference, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
• B. The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
• C. Built-in error correction codes minimize interference
• D. Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver

E7H13

31. Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
• C. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
• D. Use a GPS signal reference

E3A04

32. In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel?

• A. It depends on the phase angle of the electric field
• B. It travels parallel to the electric and magnetic fields
• C. It travels at a right angle to the electric and magnetic fields
• D. It depends on the phase angle of the magnetic field

E4A02

33. Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

• A. Signal amplitude and time
• B. Signal amplitude and frequency
• C. SWR and frequency
• D. SWR and time

E5D08

34. What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF?

• A. Dielectric loss
• B. Self-discharge
• C. Inductance
• D. Skin effect

E9C01

35. What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2- wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

• A. Cardioid
• B. A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array
• C. Omni-directional
• D. A figure-eight oriented along the axis of the array

E0A11

36. To what should lanyards be attached while climbing?

• A. Guy brackets
• B. Tower legs
• C. Tower rungs
• D. Antenna mast

E9A11

37. Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating on HF?

• A. The standing wave ratio
• B. Soil conductivity
• C. Distance from the transmitter
• D. Take-off angle

E6F09

38. What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

• A. The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
• B. The output in lumens divided by the input power in watts
• C. The output RF power divided by the input DC power
• D. The relative fraction of light that is converted to current

E5C01

39. Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation?

• A. 100 + j0
• B. 0 - j100
• C. 100 - j0
• D. 0 + j100

E7G01

40. What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?

• A. 10,000 ohms
• B. Very high
• C. 100 ohms
• D. Very low

E9F10

41. What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
• B. An inductive reactance
• C. A capacitive reactance
• D. Zero

E9B09

42. What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas?

• A. Graphical analysis
• B. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
• C. Method of Moments
• D. Mutual impedance analysis

E1C04

43. What is an IARP?

• A. A permit that allows US amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
• B. The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
• C. An indication of increased antenna reflected power
• D. A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation

E7A08

44. What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

• A. It produces a 1 at its output if all inputs are 0
• B. It produces a 0 at its output if all inputs are 1
• C. It produces a 1 at its output if any input is 1
• D. It produces a 0 at its output if some but not all inputs are 1

E2D07

45. What digital protocol is used by APRS?

• A. PACTOR
• B. QAM
• C. AX.25
• D. AMTOR

E9E03

46. What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

• A. Delta match
• B. Gamma match
• C. Stub match
• D. T-match

E5B02

47. What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

• A. Y
• B. X
• C. B
• D. G

E7E07

48. What is meant by the term "baseband" in radio communications?

• A. The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
• B. The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
• C. The frequency range occupied by a message signal prior to modulation
• D. The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal

E4B03

49. Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

• A. S11
• B. S22
• C. S12
• D. S21

E9G01

50. Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

• A. Impedance along transmission lines
• B. Antenna radiation pattern
• C. Radiation resistance
• D. Radio propagation