Practice Exam

E5A15

1. Which of the following increases Q for inductors and capacitors?

• A. Higher self-resonant frequency
• B. Lower self-resonant frequency
• C. Lower losses
• D. Lower reactance

E7E03

2. What is a frequency discriminator stage in a FM receiver?

• A. A circuit for detecting FM signals
• B. An automatic band-switching circuit
• C. An FM generator circuit
• D. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals

E0A03

3. Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?

• A. 300 to 3000 MHz
• B. 3 to 30 MHz
• C. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
• D. 30 to 300 MHz

E4A07

4. Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR?

• A. Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
• D. Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source

E8D01

5. Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

• A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
• B. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
• C. Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
• D. The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered

E1C08

6. What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

• A. 30 seconds
• B. 5 minutes
• C. 3 minutes
• D. 10 minutes

E2B03

7. How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

• A. By scanning two fields simultaneously
• B. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered lines in the next
• C. By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next
• D. By scanning each field from bottom to top

E4C02

8. Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals?

• A. A narrow IF filter
• B. A front-end filter or pre-selector
• C. A properly adjusted product detector
• D. A notch filter

E7G08

9. How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

• A. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
• B. It does not vary with frequency
• C. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
• D. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency

E6F04

10. What is the photovoltaic effect?

• A. The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical energy
• B. The tendency of a battery to discharge when exposed to light
• C. The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
• D. The conversion of light to electrical energy

E9F05

11. What is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial transmission line that is electrically 1/4 wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?

• A. 10.6 meters
• B. 5.3 meters
• C. 3.5 meters
• D. 4.3 meters

E9C05

12. Which of the following is a type of OCFD antenna?

• A. A dipole fed approximately 1/3 the way from one end with a 4:1 balun to provide multiband operation
• B. A folded dipole center-fed with 300-ohm transmission line
• C. A remotely tunable dipole antenna using orthogonally controlled frequency diversity
• D. A multiband dipole antenna using one-way circular polarization for frequency diversity

E6B09

13. What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

• A. As a high-voltage rectifier
• B. As a constant voltage source
• C. As an RF detector
• D. As a constant current source

E2A05

14. What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

• A. The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
• B. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
• C. The location of the ground control station
• D. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals

E6D01

15. Why should core saturation of an impedance matching transformer be avoided?

• A. RF susceptance would increase
• B. Magnetic flux would increase with frequency
• C. Temporary changes of the core permeability could result
• D. Harmonics and distortion could result

E9A11

16. Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating in the 3 MHz to 30 MHz range?

• A. Distance from the transmitter
• B. Soil conductivity
• C. Take-off angle
• D. The standing wave ratio

E4B01

17. Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

• A. Decade divider accuracy
• B. Input attenuator accuracy
• C. Temperature coefficient of the logic
• D. Time base accuracy

E9E06

18. Which of these feed line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm loop to 50-ohm feed line?

• A. 450 ohms
• B. 75 ohms
• C. 62 ohms
• D. 50 ohms

E8B01

19. What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

• A. The ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
• B. The type of modulation used by the transmitter
• C. The ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency
• D. The bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency

E5C08

20. What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?

• A. Faraday grid
• B. Maidenhead grid
• C. Elliptical coordinates
• D. Polar coordinates

E9H06

21. What is the triangulation method of direction finding?

• A. A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source
• B. The geometric angles of sky waves from the source are used to determine its position
• C. Antenna headings from several different receiving locations are used to locate the signal source
• D. A fixed receiving station plots three headings to the signal source

E6A08

22. What term indicates the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

• A. Alpha rejection frequency
• B. Alpha cutoff frequency
• C. Beta cutoff frequency
• D. Corner frequency

E7H08

23. Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

• A. Toroidal inductors
• B. Non-inductive resistors
• C. NP0 capacitors
• D. Wirewound resistors

E7D11

24. What is the function of the pass transistor in a linear voltage regulator circuit?

• A. Maintains nearly constant output voltage over a wide range of load current
• B. Permits a wide range of output voltage settings
• C. Provides a stable input impedance over a wide range of source voltage
• D. Maintains nearly constant output impedance over a wide range of load current

E8A08

25. Why would a direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converter be useful for a software defined radio?

• A. Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
• D. Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses

E9B06

26. What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 75 degrees
• B. 7.5 degrees
• C. 45 degrees
• D. 25 degrees

E8C10

27. How may data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth?

• A. Using a more efficient digital code
• B. Using forward error correction
• C. It is impossible
• D. Increasing analog-to-digital conversion resolution

E2C06

28. During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity?

• A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
• B. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
• C. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
• D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency

E5D12

29. How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100 VAC at 4 amperes?

• A. 80 watts
• B. 2000 watts
• C. 400 watts
• D. 50 watts

E2E06

30. What is the most common data rate used for HF packet?

• A. 300 baud
• B. 1200 baud
• C. 48 baud
• D. 110 baud

E5B01

31. What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage or to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

• A. One exponential period
• B. An exponential rate of one
• C. A time factor of one
• D. One time constant

E6C02

32. What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold?

• A. The comparator changes its output state
• B. The comparator enters latch-up
• C. The IC input can be damaged
• D. The feedback loop becomes unstable

E3A06

33. What might help to restore contact when DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?

• A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band
• B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band
• C. Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band
• D. Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass

E7C06

34. What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

• A. Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners
• B. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
• C. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
• D. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple

E7A01

35. Which circuit is bistable?

• A. A flip-flop
• B. An AND gate
• C. An OR gate
• D. A bipolar amplifier

E1A11

36. Which of the following describes authorization or licensing required when operating an amateur station aboard a U.S.-registered vessel in international waters?

• A. Only General Class or higher amateur licenses
• B. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
• C. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
• D. Any FCC-issued amateur license

E9D04

37. Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

• A. To minimize the Q
• B. To minimize losses
• C. To swamp out harmonics
• D. To lower the radiation angle

E4E04

38. How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?

• A. By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads
• B. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead
• C. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and a blocking capacitor in the field lead
• D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads

E6E07

39. What type of transmission line is used for connections to MMICs?

• A. Miniature coax
• B. Circular waveguide
• C. Parallel wire
• D. Microstrip

E1D11

40. Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

• A. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
• B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
• C. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
• D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

E1F09

41. Which of the following conditions apply when transmitting spread spectrum emissions?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. The transmitting station must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS emissions
• C. The transmission must not be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
• D. A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other stations employing other authorized emissions

E1E07

42. What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

• A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
• B. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination
• C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
• D. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session

E7F08

43. What is the function of decimation?

• A. Attenuating the signal
• B. Converting data to binary code decimal form
• C. Reducing the effective sample rate by removing samples
• D. Removing unnecessary significant digits

E9G03

44. Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

• A. Trigonometric functions
• B. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
• C. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
• D. Beam headings and radiation patterns

E3B07

45. What happens to linearly polarized radio waves that split into ordinary and extraordinary waves in the ionosphere?

• A. They become phase locked
• B. They become elliptically polarized
• C. They become depolarized
• D. They are bent toward the magnetic poles

E2D05

46. What is one advantage of the JT65 mode?

• A. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
• B. The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal-to-noise ratio
• C. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
• D. Easily copied by ear if necessary

E7B18

47. What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

• A. High filament voltage
• B. High power gain
• C. Low bandwidth
• D. Low input impedance

E4D09

48. What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

• A. To store often-used frequencies
• B. To provide a range of AGC time constants
• C. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
• D. To increase rejection of signals outside the desired band

E3C09

49. How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?

• A. 10 percent greater
• B. 50 percent greater
• C. Twice as great
• D. Four times as great

E1B10

50. What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

• A. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
• B. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
• C. Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) channels
• D. Specific local government channels