Practice Exam

E6E05

1. Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

• A. 0.5 dB
• B. -10 dB
• C. -20 dBm
• D. 44 dBm

E6D12

2. What causes inductor saturation?

• A. Operation at excessive magnetic flux
• B. Selecting a core with low permeability
• C. Operation at too high a frequency
• D. Selecting a core with excessive permittivity

E5C11

3. Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

• A. Point 8
• B. Point 3
• C. Point 1
• D. Point 7

E3B05

4. Which of the following paths is most likely to support long-distance propagation on 160 meters?

• A. A path entirely in sunlight
• B. A direct north-south path
• C. Paths at high latitudes
• D. A path entirely in darkness

E9D02

5. How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

• A. Arrange two Yagis on the same axis and perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
• B. Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
• C. Stack two Yagis to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes fed in phase
• D. Stack two Yagis to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes fed 90 degrees out of phase

E7F03

6. What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?

• A. An adaptive filter
• B. A Hilbert-transform filter
• C. A notch filter
• D. An elliptical filter

E6A04

7. What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

• A. Acceptor impurity
• B. Insulator impurity
• C. N-type impurity
• D. Donor impurity

E2D10

8. What does the packet path WIDE3-1 designate?

• A. Three digipeater hops are requested with one remaining
• B. Three subcarriers are permitted, subcarrier one is being used
• C. Three stations are allowed on frequency, one transmitting at a time
• D. Three internet gateway stations may receive one transmission

E2C10

9. Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies?

• A. To separate the calling stations from the DX station
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
• D. To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference

E3C10

10. What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

• A. The ratio of X-ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
• B. The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-ray flare levels
• C. UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to the solar flux index
• D. The solar wind velocity at an angle of 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to geomagnetic storms

E5D11

11. How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

• A. 100 watts
• B. 70.7 watts
• C. 141.4 watts
• D. 200 watts

E5A10

12. What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 10 picofarads?

• A. 7.12 MHz
• B. 23.5 kHz
• C. 7.12 kHz
• D. 23.5 MHz

E3A01

13. What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by EME?

• A. 2,000 miles, if the moon is at apogee
• B. 12,000 miles, if the moon is "visible" by both stations
• C. 5,000 miles, if the moon is at perigee
• D. 2,000 miles, if the moon is at perigee

E7C11

14. Which of the following measures a filter's ability to reject signals in adjacent channels?

• A. Phase response
• B. Noise factor
• C. Passband ripple
• D. Shape factor

E1C06

15. Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

• A. You must have a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 16-1048
• B. You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
• C. You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
• D. The US embassy must approve of your operation

E7D10

16. Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and lighter than an equivalent linear power supply?

• A. The inverter design does not require an output filter circuit
• B. The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
• C. It recovers power from the unused portion of the AC cycle, thus using fewer components
• D. The control circuitry uses less current, therefore smaller heat sinks are required

E4B06

17. How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

• A. 75 watts
• B. 100 watts
• C. 125 watts
• D. 112.5 watts

E1F02

18. What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?

• A. Full privileges of the General class license on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands
• B. The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed US Amateur Extra class license privileges
• C. None, they must obtain a US license
• D. Full privileges, up to and including those of the Amateur Extra class license, on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands

E7H03

19. What is a phase-locked loop?

• A. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
• B. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
• C. An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
• D. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential phase input

E6F05

20. Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

• A. A device that detects rotation by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
• B. A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
• C. An optical computing device in which light is coupled between devices by fiber optics
• D. A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog-to-digital conversion

E9A05

21. What does the term "ground gain" mean?

• A. The change in signal strength caused by grounding the antenna
• B. An increase in signal strength from ground reflections in the environment of the antenna
• C. To force net gain to 0 dB by grounding part of the antenna
• D. The gain of the antenna with respect to a dipole at ground level

E1E06

22. Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

• A. Each administering VE
• B. The designated monitoring VE
• C. The VEC coordinating the session
• D. Only the VE session manager

E8D08

23. What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?

• A. Signal-to-noise ratio
• B. Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
• C. Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
• D. Baud error rate

E2B01

24. In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

• A. 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data
• B. Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
• C. 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval
• D. Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel

E4C02

25. Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals?

• A. A notch filter
• B. A front-end filter or preselector
• C. A narrow IF filter
• D. A properly adjusted product detector

E9F05

26. What is microstrip?

• A. Miniature coax used for low power applications
• B. Special shielding material designed for microwave frequencies
• C. Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
• D. Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies

E4A01

27. Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?

• A. Sampling rate of the analog-to-digital converter
• B. Analog-to-digital converter reference frequency
• C. Q of the circuit
• D. All these choices are correct

E0A08

28. What does SAR measure?

• A. Signal amplification rating
• B. Signal attenuation ratio
• C. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
• D. The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain

E8C09

29. Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

• A. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
• B. Binary Coded Decimal Code
• C. Gray code
• D. Extended ASCII

E9C10

30. Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

• A. An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
• B. An end-fed half-wavelength dipole
• C. A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
• D. A horizontal array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines

E7A04

31. How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16?

• A. 6
• B. 8
• C. 16
• D. 4

E1A10

32. If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

• A. The amateur station must operate only in specific segments of the amateur service HF and VHF bands
• B. The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
• C. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
• D. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft

E9E04

33. What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match?

• A. To cancel unwanted inductive reactance
• B. To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
• C. To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
• D. To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics

E1B05

34. What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

• A. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
• B. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
• C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
• D. An area surrounding the FCC monitoring station in Laurel, Maryland

E6B07

35. What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current?

• A. Excessive inverse voltage
• B. Insufficient forward voltage
• C. Excessive junction temperature
• D. Charge carrier depletion

E4D10

36. What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

• A. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
• B. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
• C. A pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals
• D. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products

E9G07

37. On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

• A. The voltage axis
• B. The reactance axis
• C. The resistance axis
• D. The current axis

E5B02

38. What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

• A. X
• B. G
• C. Y
• D. B

E2E01

39. Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz?

• A. Pulse modulation
• B. Spread spectrum
• C. FSK
• D. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal

E1D07

40. Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations?

• A. Satellite operation is permitted on all HF bands
• B. Only 10 meters
• C. 30 meters, 17 meters, and 10 meters
• D. 40 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

E4E10

41. Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
• C. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
• D. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display

E2A01

42. What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

• A. From west to east
• B. From east to west
• C. From south to north
• D. From north to south

E8A07

43. What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

• A. Amplifier gain
• B. Speech characteristics
• C. The degree of carrier suppression
• D. The frequency of the modulating signal

E9H03

44. What is receiving directivity factor (RDF)?

• A. Relative directivity compared to isotropic
• B. Peak antenna gain compared to average gain over the hemisphere around and above the antenna
• C. Forward gain compared to the gain in the reverse direction
• D. Relative directivity compared to a dipole

E7G01

45. What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?

• A. 100 ohms
• B. Very low
• C. 10,000 ohms
• D. Very high

E8B11

46. What is digital time division multiplexing?

• A. Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
• B. Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
• C. Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
• D. Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission

E7E05

47. What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies?

• A. A pre-emphasis network
• B. A heterodyne enhancer
• C. A de-emphasis network
• D. A harmonic enhancer

E6C03

48. What is tri-state logic?

• A. Logic devices that utilize ternary math
• B. Logic devices with 0, 1, and high-impedance output states
• C. A counter with eight states
• D. Logic with three output impedances which can be selected to better match the load impedance

E9B04

49. What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 28 dB
• B. 3 dB
• C. 15 dB
• D. 38 dB

E7B10

50. In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

• A. Self bias
• B. Load resistors
• C. Voltage divider bias
• D. Feedback