Practice Exam

E2A06

1. What are Keplerian elements?

• A. Phase reversing elements in a Yagi antenna
• B. High-emission heater filaments used in magnetron tubes
• C. Parameters that define the orbit of a satellite
• D. Encrypting codes used for spread spectrum modulation

E6D03

2. Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

• A. Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a magnetic field
• B. Mechanical deformation of material by the application of a voltage
• C. Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light
• D. Increased conductivity in the presence of light

E2D05

3. What is one advantage of the JT65 mode?

• A. Easily copied by ear if necessary
• B. The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal-to-noise ratio
• C. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
• D. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth

E1F02

4. What privileges are authorized in the U.S. to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?

• A. Full privileges, up to and including those of the Amateur Extra Class license, on the 80, 40, 20, 15, and 10 meter bands
• B. None, they must obtain a U.S. license
• C. The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed U.S. Amateur Extra Class license privileges
• D. All privileges of the Amateur Extra Class license

E5D14

5. What is reactive power?

• A. Power consumed in circuit Q
• B. Wattless, nonproductive power
• C. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
• D. Power lost because of capacitor leakage

E5C11

6. Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

• A. Point 1
• B. Point 8
• C. Point 3
• D. Point 7

E4C07

7. What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

• A. The minimum discernible signal
• B. The maximum detectable spectrum
• C. The multiplex distortion stability
• D. The meter display sensitivity

E8C06

8. What is the bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?

• A. 0.5 kHz
• B. 0.3 kHz
• C. 0.1 Hz
• D. 1.0 kHz

E7F03

9. What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?

• A. A Hilbert-transform filter
• B. An elliptical filter
• C. A notch filter
• D. An adaptive filter

E9B09

10. What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling antennas?

• A. Method of Moments
• B. Mutual impedance analysis
• C. Graphical analysis
• D. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties

E6F06

11. Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices?

• A. A heavy metal
• B. An ordinary metal
• C. A crystalline semiconductor
• D. A liquid semiconductor

E2B07

12. What is the name of the signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?

• A. Hue
• B. Spectral intensity
• C. Luminance
• D. Chroma

E1E04

13. Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process?

• A. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
• B. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
• C. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
• D. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau

E4E03

14. Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?

• A. Signals that appear at one IF but not another
• B. Signals that are constant at all IF levels
• C. Signals that have a sharply peaked frequency distribution
• D. Signals that appear across a wide bandwidth

E6A02

15. Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

• A. N-type
• B. P-type
• C. Insulated gate
• D. Bipolar

E6E11

16. What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

• A. A total of two rows of connecting pins placed on opposite sides of the package (Dual In-line Package)
• B. Two chips in each package (Dual In Package)
• C. Low leakage doubly insulated package
• D. Package mounts in a direct inverted position

E1C09

17. What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

• A. 3.0
• B. 0.5
• C. 2.0
• D. 1.0

E3A11

18. What is a typical range for tropospheric propagation of microwave signals?

• A. 2500 miles
• B. 100 miles to 300 miles
• C. 1200 miles
• D. 10 miles to 50 miles

E6B03

19. What type of bias is required for an LED to emit light?

• A. Zero bias
• B. Forward bias
• C. Inductive bias
• D. Reverse bias

E9A06

20. What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

• A. 126 watts
• B. 317 watts
• C. 300 watts
• D. 2000 watts

E7D05

21. Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a constant load on the unregulated voltage source?

• A. A constant current source
• B. A shunt current source
• C. A shunt regulator
• D. A series regulator

E8A06

22. What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone signal?

• A. 1 to 1
• B. 100 to 1
• C. 2.5 to 1
• D. 25 to 1

E9C07

23. What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?

• A. 450 ohms
• B. 300 ohms
• C. 50 ohms
• D. 72 ohms

E0A10

24. What toxic material may be present in some electronic components such as high voltage capacitors and transformers?

• A. Polytetrafluoroethylene
• B. Polychlorinated biphenyls
• C. Polyethylene
• D. Polymorphic silicon

E4A02

25. Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

• A. SWR and time
• B. SWR and frequency
• C. RF amplitude and frequency
• D. RF amplitude and time

E5A06

26. What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

• A. It is at a maximum
• B. It is at a minimum
• C. It equals 2 multiplied by pi, multiplied by frequency, multiplied by inductance
• D. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times pi, multiplied by the square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C

E5B09

27. What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

• A. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
• B. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
• C. Voltage and current are in phase
• D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

E9G01

28. Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

• A. Impedance along transmission lines
• B. Antenna radiation pattern
• C. Radio propagation
• D. Radiation resistance

E7B16

29. What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power amplifier?

• A. Transmission of spurious signals
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Creation of parasitic oscillations
• D. Low efficiency

E2E12

30. How do ALE stations establish contact?

• A. ALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on
• B. ALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use
• C. ALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter
• D. ALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received

E1A07

31. What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200 meter band?

• A. 50 watts PEP
• B. 1 watt EIRP (Equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• C. 5 watts EIRP (Equivalent isotropic radiated power)
• D. 100 watts PEP

E8B05

32. What is the deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

• A. 60
• B. 1.67
• C. 0.167
• D. 0.6

E7G10

33. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

• A. 76
• B. 1
• C. 38
• D. 0.03

E7H03

34. How is positive feedback supplied in a Hartley oscillator?

• A. Through a capacitive divider
• B. Through a tapped coil
• C. Through a neutralizing capacitor
• D. Through link coupling

E8D01

35. Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

• A. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker
• B. Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
• C. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
• D. The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered

E2C07

36. What is the Cabrillo format?

• A. The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors
• B. A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
• C. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
• D. The most common set of contest rules

E9F13

37. What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. Very high impedance
• B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
• C. The same as the generator output impedance
• D. Very low impedance

E3B10

38. Why is chordal hop propagation desirable?

• A. The MUF for chordal hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
• B. Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
• C. Atmospheric noise is lower in the direction of chordal hop propagation
• D. The signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop using Earth as a reflector

E7A04

39. How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 4
• D. 8

E6C07

40. What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

• A. A resistor that ensures that an oscillator frequency does not drift
• B. A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply line used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
• C. A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
• D. A resistor connected to an op-amp output that prevents signals from exceeding the power supply voltage

E9E05

41. How must an antenna's driven element be tuned to use a hairpin matching system?

• A. The driven element reactance must be inductive
• B. The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
• C. The driven element reactance must be capacitive
• D. The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating frequency

E1D11

42. Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

• A. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
• B. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
• C. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
• D. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators

E9D10

43. What happens to feed-point impedance at the base of a fixed length HF mobile antenna when operated below its resonant frequency?

• A. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
• B. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
• C. The radiation resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
• D. The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases

E7E10

44. How does a diode envelope detector function?

• A. By rectification and filtering of RF signals
• B. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
• C. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
• D. By breakdown of the Zener voltage

E3C10

45. What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

• A. The solar wind velocity at 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to solar activity
• B. The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to x-ray flare levels
• C. UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to the solar flux index
• D. The ratio of x-ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number

E4B04

46. Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?

• A. S21
• B. S12
• C. S11
• D. S22

E9H07

47. Why is RF attenuation used when direction-finding?

• A. To narrow the receiver bandwidth
• B. To increase receiver sensitivity
• C. To compensate for isotropic directivity and the antenna effect of feed lines
• D. To prevent receiver overload which reduces pattern nulls

E4D03

48. How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?

• A. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
• B. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
• C. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
• D. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters

E1B03

49. Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

• A. 10 miles
• B. 30 miles
• C. 3 miles
• D. 1 mile

E7C06

50. What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical filter?

• A. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band ripple
• B. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
• C. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band ripple
• D. Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band corners