Practice Exam

E8D06

1. What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

• A. Faster transmission rate
• B. A larger character set is available
• C. Some types of errors can be detected
• D. Signal-to-noise ratio is improved

E9H07

2. What is the function of a Beverage antenna's termination resistor?

• A. Absorb signals from the reverse direction
• B. Eliminate harmonic reception
• C. Decrease SWR bandwidth
• D. Increase the front-to-side ratio

E9G09

3. What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks?

• A. Constant-SWR circles
• B. Coaxial-length circles
• C. Transmission line length circles
• D. Radiation-pattern circles

E3C03

4. Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A-index or K-index is elevated?

• A. NVIS
• B. Transequatorial
• C. Through the auroral oval
• D. Sporadic-E

E5C07

5. Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coordinates?

• A. On the vertical axis
• B. On a line through the origin, slanted at 45 degrees
• C. On a horizontal line, offset vertically above the horizontal axis
• D. On the horizontal axis

E4C12

6. How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. It improves sensitivity by reducing front-end noise
• C. It improves blocking dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
• D. It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing

E7E09

7. What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high?

• A. Spurious mixer products are generated
• B. Automatic limiting occurs
• C. Mixer blanking occurs
• D. Excessive AGC voltage levels are generated

E1D07

8. Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations?

• A. Satellite operation is permitted on all HF bands
• B. Only 10 meters
• C. 30 meters, 17 meters, and 10 meters
• D. 40 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters

E2C01

9. What indicator is required to be used by US-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the US?

• A. No additional indicator is required
• B. / followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station
• C. / followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
• D. /R# where # is the district of the remote station

E6E09

10. Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range?

• A. Radial lead
• B. Surface mount
• C. Axial lead
• D. TO-220

E7B12

11. What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

• A. Common collector
• B. Emitter follower
• C. Common base
• D. Common emitter

E7D08

12. What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?

• A. Switching voltage regulator
• B. Common base amplifier
• C. Linear voltage regulator
• D. Common emitter amplifier

E1B11

13. What does PRB-1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures?

• A. Such structures must be permitted when use for emergency communications can be demonstrated
• B. Reasonable accommodations of amateur radio must be made
• C. No limitations may be placed on antenna size or placement
• D. Such structures must be permitted if certified by a registered professional engineer

E9B05

14. What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. Near field
• B. Elevation
• C. Polarization
• D. Azimuth

E1E11

15. What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

• A. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
• B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
• C. Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
• D. All these choices are correct

E6B05

16. What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?

• A. Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
• B. Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
• C. Low junction capacitance
• D. Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop

E6C04

17. Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

• A. It is immune to electrostatic damage
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
• D. It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors

E8A08

18. Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio?

• A. Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
• B. Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses

E7F07

19. What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform?

• A. Converting digital signals to analog form
• B. Converting signals from the time domain to the frequency domain
• C. Converting signals from the frequency domain to the time domain
• D. Converting analog signals to digital form

E5D09

20. What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors?

• A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
• B. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
• C. It is canceled by Coulomb forces in the capacitor and inductor
• D. Energy is stored in magnetic or electric fields, but power is not dissipated

E2D05

21. What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode?

• A. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
• B. Decodes signals with a very low signal-to-noise ratio
• C. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
• D. Symbol rate is 65 baud

E6F05

22. Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

• A. A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
• B. An optical computing device in which light is coupled between devices by fiber optics
• C. A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog-to-digital conversion
• D. A device that detects rotation by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel

E8B02

23. How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?

• A. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
• B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
• C. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
• D. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases

E9E01

24. Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom?

• A. T-match
• B. Shunt-fed
• C. Beta or hairpin
• D. Gamma

E9F03

25. Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length?

• A. Electromagnetic waves move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
• B. Skin effect is more pronounced in the coaxial cable
• C. Electromagnetic waves move faster in coaxial cable than in air
• D. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable

E6A06

26. What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

• A. The change in collector current with respect to the change in base current
• B. The switching speed
• C. The breakdown voltage of the base-to-collector junction
• D. The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 0.707

E4A11

27. Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Velocity factor
• C. Cable length
• D. Resonant frequency of a tuned circuit

E8C03

28. Why should the phase of a PSK signal be changed at the zero crossing of the RF signal?

• A. To improve carrier suppression
• B. To simplify modulation
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. To minimize bandwidth

E7H09

29. What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital-to-analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

• A. A phase-locked loop synthesizer
• B. A hybrid synthesizer
• C. A direct digital synthesizer
• D. A direct conversion synthesizer

E3B06

30. On which of the following amateur bands is long-path propagation most frequent?

• A. 6 meters and 2 meters
• B. 10 meters and 6 meters
• C. 160 meters and 80 meters
• D. 40 meters and 20 meters

E5B03

31. How is impedance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance?

• A. Square the magnitude and subtract 90 degrees from the angle
• B. Take the square root of the magnitude and add 180 degrees to the angle
• C. Take the reciprocal of the angle and change the sign of the magnitude
• D. Take the reciprocal of the magnitude and change the sign of the angle

E7C09

32. What is a crystal lattice filter?

• A. An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1 kHz intervals
• B. A filter using lattice-shaped quartz crystals for high-Q performance
• C. A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
• D. A filter for low-level signals made using quartz crystals

E1F03

33. Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

• A. It was manufactured and certificated in a country which has a reciprocal certification agreement with the FCC
• B. Gain is less than 23 dB when driven by power of 10 watts or less
• C. The amplifier is constructed or modified by an amateur radio operator for use at an amateur station
• D. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit

E9C07

34. What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire half-wave folded dipole antenna?

• A. 450 ohms
• B. 50 ohms
• C. 72 ohms
• D. 300 ohms

E6D04

35. Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers?

• A. To simplify assembly during manufacturing
• B. To save cost by reducing the amount of magnetic material
• C. To increase the cutoff frequency by reducing capacitance
• D. To reduce power loss from eddy currents in the core

E2A02

36. Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder?

• A. Doppler shift is reduced because the uplink and downlink shifts are in opposite directions
• B. Signal position in the band is reversed
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Upper sideband on the uplink becomes lower sideband on the downlink, and vice versa

E5A06

37. What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

• A. It equals 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)
• B. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)
• C. It is at a minimum
• D. It is at a maximum

E4B03

38. Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

• A. S22
• B. S12
• C. S21
• D. S11

E9D01

39. How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled?

• A. 3 dB
• B. 2 dB
• C. 4 dB
• D. 6 dB

E4E01

40. What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

• A. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
• B. Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. Excessive ringing

E1A01

41. Why is it not legal to transmit a 3 kHz bandwidth USB signal with a carrier frequency of 14.348 MHz?

• A. USB is not used on 20-meter phone
• B. The lower 1 kHz of the signal is outside the 20-meter band
• C. 14.348 MHz is outside the 20-meter band
• D. The upper 1 kHz of the signal is outside the 20-meter band

E7G02

42. What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7-3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor?

• A. Low-pass filter
• B. Notch filter
• C. High-pass filter
• D. Band-pass filter

E0A02

43. When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

• A. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
• B. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
• C. Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
• D. Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits

E3A10

44. What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium?

• A. The index of refraction
• B. Resistance and reactance
• C. Evanescence
• D. Birefringence

E2E10

45. Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

• A. MFSK16
• B. FT8
• C. 170 Hz shift, 45-baud RTTY
• D. PACTOR IV

E1C10

46. What is the maximum mean power level for a spurious emission below 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission?

• A. - 43 dB
• B. - 63 dB
• C. - 53 dB
• D. - 73 dB

E2B01

47. In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

• A. 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data
• B. Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
• C. 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval
• D. Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel

E9A09

48. What is antenna efficiency?

• A. Radiation resistance divided by transmission resistance
• B. Radiation resistance divided by total resistance
• C. Effective radiated power divided by transmitter output
• D. Total resistance divided by radiation resistance

E4D02

49. Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

• A. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
• B. Poor weak signal reception caused by insufficient local oscillator injection
• C. Spurious signals caused by cross modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
• D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals

E7A06

50. What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

• A. It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
• B. It produces a continuous square wave
• C. It stores one bit of data
• D. It switches temporarily to an alternate state for a set time