Practice Exam

G4A01

1. What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

• A. To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
• B. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
• C. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
• D. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources

G9D07

2. Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

• A. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
• B. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
• C. Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
• D. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency

G4E06

3. What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

• A. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
• B. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
• C. Harmonic radiation may increase
• D. Q of the antenna will be very low

G5C04

4. What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

• A. 75 ohms
• B. 67 ohms
• C. 150 ohms
• D. 300 ohms

G2B09

5. Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

• A. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
• B. Only a RACES net control operator
• C. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
• D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

G5B10

6. What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

• A. 20.6 percent
• B. 25.9 percent
• C. 12.2 percent
• D. 10.9 percent

G9B02

7. Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

• A. Slope the radials downward
• B. Coil the radials
• C. Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
• D. Slope the radials upward

G4C04

8. What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

• A. A chirpy CW signal
• B. Severely distorted audio
• C. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
• D. On-and-off humming or clicking

G8B05

9. Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

• A. Second harmonics
• B. Odd-order
• C. Even-order
• D. Intercept point

G3A01

10. How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

• A. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
• B. A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
• C. A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
• D. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation

G7B01

11. What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

• A. To limit the modulation index
• B. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
• C. To eliminate self-oscillations
• D. To keep the carrier on frequency

G0B09

12. Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

• A. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. The generator must be insulated from ground
• D. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency

G5A01

13. What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

• A. Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
• B. Resonance causes impedance to be very high
• C. Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
• D. Resonance causes impedance to be very low

G3C09

14. What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?

• A. Scatter
• B. Short-path
• C. Chordal hop
• D. Faraday rotation

G8C16

15. Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

• A. Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
• B. DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
• C. WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
• D. FT8, FT4, and FST4

G1D09

16. How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

• A. 365 days
• B. 180 days
• C. For as long as your current license is valid
• D. 30 days

G3B04

17. Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Check the A-index
• C. Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
• D. Send a series of dots and listen for echoes

G2A06

18. Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

• A. Very high-fidelity voice modulation
• B. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
• C. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
• D. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes

G1B10

19. What is the power limit for beacon stations?

• A. 10 watts PEP output
• B. 200 watts PEP output
• C. 20 watts PEP output
• D. 100 watts PEP output

G2C02

20. What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS?"

• A. Increase your power
• B. Change frequency
• C. Send slower
• D. Repeat everything twice

G9C01

21. Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

• A. Closer element spacing
• B. Loading coils in series with the element
• C. Larger-diameter elements
• D. Tapered-diameter elements

G0A11

22. What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

• A. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
• B. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
• C. Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
• D. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation

G1E05

23. What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

• A. They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
• B. The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
• C. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
• D. They must be for other licensed amateurs

G1A05

24. On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

• A. All of the above
• B. 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
• C. 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
• D. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz

G4B07

25. What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

• A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
• B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
• C. Two swept frequency tones
• D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

G1C06

26. What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

• A. 200 watts PEP output
• B. 1500 watts PEP output
• C. 1000 watts PEP output
• D. 1200 watts PEP output

G7A10

27. Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

• A. Symbol 1
• B. Symbol 11
• C. Symbol 5
• D. Symbol 4

G6B03

28. Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

• A. Low power consumption
• B. Better suited for RF amplification
• C. High power handling capability
• D. Better suited for power supply regulation

G8A01

29. How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

• A. By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
• B. By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
• C. By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
• D. By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies

G7C07

30. What term specifies a filter's attenuation inside its passband?

• A. Ultimate rejection
• B. Return loss
• C. Insertion loss
• D. Q

G9A01

31. Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

• A. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
• B. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
• C. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
• D. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line

G4D06

32. How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

• A. 12 dB
• B. 15 dB
• C. 6 dB
• D. 18 dB

G6A11

33. What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

• A. Its reactance increases
• B. Harmonics are generated
• C. It becomes capacitive
• D. Catastrophic failure is likely

G2D07

34. Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

• A. Adam, Boy, Charles, David
• B. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
• C. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
• D. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark

G2E02

35. What is VARA?

• A. A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
• B. A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
• C. A digital protocol used with Winlink
• D. A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF