Practice Exam

G3B07

1. What does LUF stand for?

• A. Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
• B. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
• C. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
• D. Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius

G9C10

2. Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

• A. The spacing of each element along the boom
• B. The number of elements on the boom
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. The physical length of the boom

G9D08

3. How does a "screwdriver" mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

• A. By varying the base loading inductance
• B. By extending and retracting the whip
• C. By deploying a capacitance hat
• D. By varying its body capacitance

G1A08

4. Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

• A. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
• B. All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
• C. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
• D. All HF bands

G2A08

5. What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

• A. Say "Breaker Breaker"
• B. Say your call sign once
• C. Say "CQ" followed by the call sign of either station
• D. Say "QRZ" several times, followed by your call sign

G0A10

6. What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
• C. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
• D. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio

G4A13

7. What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

• A. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
• B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
• C. To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
• D. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries

G1B09

8. On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

• A. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
• B. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
• C. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
• D. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

G2C04

9. What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean?

• A. "Will you keep the frequency clear?"
• B. "Are you busy?" or "Is this frequency in use?"
• C. "Are you listening only for a specific station?"
• D. "Are you operating full break-in?" or "Can you operate full break-in?"

G9A07

10. What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

• A. The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
• B. The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
• C. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
• D. The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

G4B02

11. Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

• A. Complex waveforms can be measured
• B. An oscilloscope uses less power
• C. Complex impedances can be easily measured
• D. Greater precision

G2E06

12. What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

• A. 850 Hz
• B. 170 Hz
• C. 425 Hz
• D. 85 Hz

G1D09

13. How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

• A. 365 days
• B. For as long as your current license is valid
• C. 30 days
• D. 180 days

G9B08

14. How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

• A. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
• B. It steadily increases
• C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
• D. It steadily decreases

G3C11

15. Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

• A. The F1 region
• B. The E region
• C. The F2 region
• D. The D region

G4D03

16. What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Excess intermodulation products
• C. Distorted speech
• D. Excessive background noise

G1C09

17. What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

• A. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
• B. 1500 watts PEP
• C. 10 watts RMS
• D. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole

G6B08

18. How is an LED biased when emitting light?

• A. In the tunnel-effect region
• B. At the Zener voltage
• C. Reverse biased
• D. Forward biased

G4E06

19. What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

• A. Q of the antenna will be very low
• B. Harmonic radiation may increase
• C. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
• D. Operating bandwidth may be very limited

G1E10

20. Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

• A. These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
• B. A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
• C. A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies
• D. These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

G8C02

21. Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

• A. MFSK16
• B. SSB-SC
• C. WSPR
• D. PSK31

G7B04

22. In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

• A. Less than 50%
• B. 50%
• C. More than 50% but less than 100%
• D. 100%

G5B11

23. What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

• A. 1.414
• B. 0.707
• C. 2.00
• D. 1.00

G5C12

24. What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

• A. 0.07 microfarads
• B. 14.3 microfarads
• C. 1,000 microfarads
• D. 70 microfarads

G5A02

25. What is reactance?

• A. Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
• B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
• C. Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
• D. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance

G0B11

26. Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

• A. They must be bonded together with all other grounds
• B. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
• C. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
• D. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines

G6A07

27. What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

• A. The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
• B. Saturation and cutoff
• C. Peak and valley current points
• D. Enhancement and depletion modes

G3A03

28. Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

• A. 28 days
• B. 20 to 40 hours
• C. 1 to 2 hours
• D. 8 minutes

G8A04

29. What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

• A. Amplitude modulation
• B. Phase modulation
• C. Pulse modulation
• D. Multiplex modulation

G7A06

30. What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

• A. 270 degrees
• B. 180 degrees
• C. 90 degrees
• D. 360 degrees

G2B01

31. Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

• A. Nets have priority
• B. QSOs in progress have priority
• C. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
• D. Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

G8B02

32. What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

• A. Mixer interference
• B. Quadrature response
• C. Image response
• D. Intermediate interference

G4C10

33. What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station's audio connections?

• A. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
• B. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
• C. You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal
• D. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high

G2D11

34. Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

• A. To follow standard radiogram structure
• B. To be sure the contact will count for award programs
• C. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
• D. To allow each station to operate according to conditions

G7C10

35. What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

• A. The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
• B. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
• C. Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
• D. Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog