Practice Exam

T9A11

1. What is antenna gain?

• A. The increase in impedance on receive or transmit compared to a reference antenna
• B. The increase in signal strength in a specified direction compared to a reference antenna
• C. The additional power that is required in the antenna when transmitting on a higher frequency
• D. The additional power that is added to the transmitter power

T0A03

2. In the United States, what circuit does black wire insulation indicate in a three-wire 120 V cable?

• A. Equipment ground
• B. Black insulation is never used
• C. Neutral
• D. Hot

T6B01

3. Which is true about forward voltage drop in a diode?

• A. It is proportional to peak inverse voltage
• B. It has no impact on the voltage delivered to the load
• C. It is lower in some diode types than in others
• D. It indicates that the diode is defective

T5C09

4. How much power is delivered by a voltage of 13.8 volts DC and a current of 10 amperes?

• A. 3.8 watts
• B. 0.7 watts
• C. 23.8 watts
• D. 138 watts

T1C09

5. What is the grace period for renewal if an amateur license expires?

• A. Three years
• B. Two years
• C. Five years
• D. Ten years

T7C08

6. Which instrument can be used to determine SWR?

• A. Voltmeter
• B. Ohmmeter
• C. Iambic pentameter
• D. Directional wattmeter

T6C08

7. What is component 9 in figure T-2?

• A. Variable transformer
• B. Variable resistor
• C. Variable capacitor
• D. Variable inductor

T6D11

8. Which of the following is a resonant or tuned circuit?

• A. A circuit designed to provide high-fidelity audio
• B. A resistor circuit used for reducing standing wave ratio
• C. A linear voltage regulator
• D. An inductor and a capacitor in series or parallel

T7B11

9. What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or transceiver?

• A. Excessive SWR at the antenna connection
• B. Frequent blowing of power supply fuses
• C. The transmitter will not stay on the desired frequency
• D. Reports of garbled, distorted, or unintelligible voice transmissions

T5A10

10. Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?

• A. Power
• B. Current
• C. Resistance
• D. Voltage

T2A08

11. What is the meaning of the procedural signal "CQ"?

• A. Test transmission, no reply expected
• B. Only the called station should transmit
• C. Call on the quarter hour
• D. Calling any station

T8A10

12. What is the approximate bandwidth of AM fast-scan TV transmissions?

• A. More than 10 MHz
• B. About 1 MHz
• C. About 6 MHz
• D. About 3 MHz

T4A03

13. Why are short, heavy-gauge wires used for a transceiver's DC power connection?

• A. To provide a good counterpoise for the antenna
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. To avoid RF interference
• D. To minimize voltage drop when transmitting

T7D03

14. When configured to measure current, how is a multimeter connected to a component?

• A. In series
• B. In quadrature
• C. In phase
• D. In parallel

T1F11

15. Which of the following is a requirement for the issuance of a club station license grant?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. The club must have at least four members
• C. The club must be registered with the American Radio Relay League
• D. The trustee must have an Amateur Extra Class operator license grant

T1E08

16. Which of the following is an example of automatic control?

• A. Controlling a station over the internet
• B. Using a computer or other device to identify automatically
• C. Using a computer or other device to send CW automatically
• D. Repeater operation

T6A05

17. What type of electrical component consists of conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?

• A. Potentiometer
• B. Capacitor
• C. Oscillator
• D. Resistor

T2C05

18. What does the term "traffic" refer to in net operation?

• A. The number of stations checking in and out of a net
• B. Operation by mobile or portable stations
• C. Requests to activate the net by a served agency
• D. Messages exchanged by net stations

T3B09

19. What frequency range is referred to as UHF?

• A. 300 to 3000 MHz
• B. 30 to 300 MHz
• C. 30 to 300 kHz
• D. 300 to 3000 kHz

T5B11

20. Which decibel value represents a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?

• A. 10 dB
• B. 18 dB
• C. 28 dB
• D. 12 dB

T1D01

21. With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur radio stations prohibited from exchanging communications?

• A. Any country whose administration has notified the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) that it objects to such communications
• B. Any country whose administration has notified the American Radio Relay League (ARRL) that it objects to such communications
• C. Any country banned from making such communications by the American Radio Relay League (ARRL)
• D. Any country banned from such communications by the International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)

T2B06

22. What type of signaling uses pairs of audio tones?

• A. DTMF
• B. GPRS
• C. D-STAR
• D. CTCSS

T9B02

23. What is the most common impedance of coaxial cables used in amateur radio?

• A. 50 ohms
• B. 600 ohms
• C. 12 ohms
• D. 8 ohms

T0C06

24. Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine whether your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

• A. By calculation based on computer modeling
• B. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
• C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
• D. All these choices are correct

T1B08

25. How are US amateurs restricted in segments of bands where the Amateur Radio Service is secondary?

• A. U.S. amateurs must give foreign amateur stations priority in those segments
• B. U.S. amateurs may find non-amateur stations in those segments, and must avoid interfering with them
• C. International communications are not permitted in those segments
• D. Digital transmissions are not permitted in those segments

T8C03

26. What operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period?

• A. Contesting
• B. Simulated emergency exercises
• C. Public service events
• D. Net operations

T4B08

27. What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?

• A. Permits monitoring several modes at once by selecting a separate filter for each mode
• B. Increases the amount of offset between receive and transmit frequencies
• C. Increases the number of frequencies that can be stored in memory
• D. Permits noise or interference reduction by selecting a bandwidth matching the mode

T8D06

28. What does the abbreviation "PSK" mean?

• A. Pulse Shift Keying
• B. Packet Short Keying
• C. Phased Slide Keying
• D. Phase Shift Keying

T3A03

29. What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance CW and SSB contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?

• A. Vertical
• B. Right-hand circular
• C. Left-hand circular
• D. Horizontal

T7A07

30. What is the function of a transceiver's PTT input?

• A. Provides a transmit tuning tone when grounded
• B. Input for a key used to send CW
• C. Input for a preamplifier tuning tone
• D. Switches transceiver from receive to transmit when grounded

T1A04

31. How many operator/primary station license grants may be held by any one person?

• A. One for each permanent station location from which the person plans to operate
• B. No more than two
• C. One for each band on which the person plans to operate
• D. One

T5D03

32. What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?

• A. R = E x I
• B. R = E + I
• C. R = E / I
• D. R = E - I

T3C09

33. What is generally the best time for long-distance 10 meter band propagation via the F region?

• A. From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of low sunspot activity
• B. From dawn to shortly after sunset during periods of high sunspot activity
• C. From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of high sunspot activity
• D. From shortly after sunset to dawn during periods of low sunspot activity

T8B05

34. What is a satellite beacon?

• A. An indicator light that shows where to point your antenna
• B. The primary transmit antenna on the satellite
• C. A reflective surface on the satellite
• D. A transmission from a satellite that contains status information

T0B07

35. Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?

• A. This type of tower must never be grounded
• B. This type of tower must never be painted
• C. This type of tower must not be climbed unless it is retracted, or mechanical safety locking devices have been installed
• D. All these choices are correct