Practice Exam

E8B02

1. How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?

• A. It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
• B. It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
• C. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
• D. It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases

E7D03

2. What device is typically used as a stable voltage reference in a linear voltage regulator?

• A. A varactor diode
• B. A tunnel diode
• C. A Zener diode
• D. An SCR

E7H07

3. How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

• A. Reduce noise on the oscillator's power supply
• B. Use NP0 capacitors
• C. Mechanically isolate the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
• D. Increase the bias voltage

E4E11

4. What could cause local AM broadcast band signals to combine to generate spurious signals in the MF or HF bands?

• A. Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective
• B. Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast signals
• C. One or more of the broadcast stations is transmitting an over-modulated signal
• D. You are receiving skywave signals from a distant station

E6D13

5. What is the primary cause of inductor self-resonance?

• A. Inter-turn capacitance
• B. Inductive kickback
• C. Non-linear core hysteresis
• D. The skin effect

E6F02

6. What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

• A. It becomes unstable
• B. It decreases
• C. It stays the same
• D. It increases

E8D06

7. What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

• A. The signal can overpower interfering signals
• B. Some types of errors can be detected
• C. Foreign language characters can be sent
• D. Faster transmission rate

E4C13

8. How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

• A. It improves dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
• B. It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
• C. It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
• D. All these choices are correct

E6E08

9. How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

• A. Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
• B. Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
• C. Directly to the bias voltage (VCC IN) lead
• D. MMICs require no operating bias

E5D08

10. How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200VAC at 5 amperes?

• A. 200 watts
• B. 1000 watts
• C. 600 watts
• D. 1600 watts

E1D10

11. Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations (subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station)?

• A. All these choices are correct
• B. Any amateur station designated by NASA
• C. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee
• D. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU

E4A02

12. Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

• A. RF amplitude and time
• B. RF amplitude and frequency
• C. SWR and time
• D. SWR and frequency

E8C01

13. How is Forward Error Correction implemented?

• A. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters
• B. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
• C. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm
• D. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters

E8A03

14. What type of wave does a Fourier analysis show to be made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all its harmonics?

• A. A sine wave
• B. A sawtooth wave
• C. A square wave
• D. A cosine wave

E9A06

15. What is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

• A. 2000 watts
• B. 317 watts
• C. 126 watts
• D. 300 watts

E5B07

16. What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

• A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
• C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
• D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current

E9G11

17. How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

• A. In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
• B. In fractions of antenna electrical frequency
• C. In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
• D. In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength

E1F03

18. Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

• A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
• B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
• C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers
• D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country and was certificated by that country's government

E6B09

19. What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

• A. As an RF detector
• B. As a constant voltage source
• C. As a high-voltage rectifier
• D. As a constant current source

E9C09

20. Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

• A. A multi-band trap antenna
• B. A multi-band dipole antenna fed with coax and a balun through a selected length of open wire transmission line
• C. A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
• D. A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun

E6A06

21. What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

• A. The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
• B. The change in collector current with respect to base current
• C. The switching speed
• D. The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 0.707

E9H03

22. What is Receiving Directivity Factor (RDF)?

• A. Forward gain compared to average gain over the entire hemisphere
• B. Relative directivity compared to a dipole
• C. Forward gain compared to the gain in the reverse direction
• D. Relative directivity compared to isotropic

E2D05

23. What is one advantage of the JT65 mode?

• A. The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal-to-noise ratio
• B. Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
• C. Easily copied by ear if necessary
• D. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth

E0A03

24. Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?

• A. 30 to 300 MHz
• B. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
• C. 3 to 30 MHz
• D. 300 to 3000 MHz

E7A05

25. Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between two states without an external clock?

• A. T flip-flop
• B. Monostable multivibrator
• C. J-K flip-flop
• D. Astable multivibrator

E2B04

26. How is color information sent in analog SSTV?

• A. Color information is sent on a 2.8 kHz subcarrier
• B. Color lines are sent sequentially
• C. Color is amplitude modulated on the frequency modulated intensity signal
• D. Color is sent in a color burst at the end of each line

E3A13

27. Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

• A. CW
• B. RTTY
• C. SSB
• D. FM

E2C07

28. What is the Cabrillo format?

• A. A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
• B. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
• C. The most common set of contest rules
• D. The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors

E1C05

29. When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications?

• A. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
• B. Never
• C. When agreed upon by the sending or receiving station
• D. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions

E3C09

30. How does the intensity of an X3 flare compare to that of an X2 flare?

• A. 10 percent greater
• B. 50 percent greater
• C. Twice as great
• D. Four times as great

E4B11

31. Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?

• A. Reflection coefficient
• B. All these choices are correct
• C. Output impedance
• D. Input impedance

E5A03

32. What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

• A. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
• B. High, as compared to the circuit resistance
• C. Approximately equal to circuit resistance
• D. Approximately equal to inductive reactance

E1E10

33. What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

• A. They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
• B. They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
• C. They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
• D. They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions

E2E13

34. Which of these digital modes has the fastest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

• A. 300 baud packet
• B. AMTOR
• C. 170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
• D. PSK31

E5C02

35. How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

• A. By phase angle and magnitude
• B. By X and R values
• C. By Y and G values
• D. By real and imaginary parts

E7E01

36. Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone emissions?

• A. A balanced modulator on the oscillator
• B. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
• C. A reactance modulator on the oscillator
• D. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier

E2A13

37. Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world?

• A. Digipeating
• B. Store-and-forward
• C. Node hopping
• D. Multi-satellite relaying

E9E01

38. What system matches a higher-impedance transmission line to a lower-impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?

• A. The omega matching system
• B. The stub matching system
• C. The delta matching system
• D. The gamma matching system

E9F13

39. What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

• A. The same as the generator output impedance
• B. Very high impedance
• C. Very low impedance
• D. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line

E7G10

40. What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

• A. 76
• B. 1
• C. 38
• D. 0.03

E1A13

41. Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

• A. Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio license grant
• B. Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
• C. Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
• D. Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

E3B03

42. What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation?

• A. Morning
• B. Noon
• C. Afternoon or early evening
• D. Late at night

E7B08

43. How can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?

• A. By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input
• B. By increasing the driving power
• C. By reducing the driving power
• D. By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase portion of the output back to the input

E9B04

44. What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

• A. 38 dB
• B. 3 dB
• C. 28 dB
• D. 15 dB

E7F06

45. What is the minimum number of bits required for an analog-to-digital converter to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

• A. 10 bits
• B. 8 bits
• C. 4 bits
• D. 6 bits

E9D09

46. What is the function of a loading coil used as part of an HF mobile antenna?

• A. To cancel capacitive reactance
• B. To lower the losses
• C. To increase the SWR bandwidth
• D. To lower the Q

E6C04

47. Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

• A. It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
• B. Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
• C. All these choices are correct
• D. It is immune to electrostatic damage

E4D02

48. Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

• A. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
• B. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
• C. Spurious signals caused by cross-modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
• D. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband

E7C12

49. What is one advantage of a Pi-matching network over an L-matching network consisting of a single inductor and a single capacitor?

• A. Pi-networks provide balanced input and output
• B. Pi-networks are more stable
• C. The Q of Pi-networks can be controlled
• D. L-networks cannot perform impedance transformation

E1B08

50. What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

• A. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
• B. The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
• C. The amateur station must cease operation
• D. The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference